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AH-1Z > ASE > Flashcards

ASE Flashcards

1
Q

What system is a passive, omni-directional radar detection system?

A

APR-39B(V)2

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2
Q

What freq bands does APR-39 detect

A

E-J and MMW

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3
Q

What freq bands does the onmi-directional blade antenna pick-up?

A

C and D bands (missile guidance signals)

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4
Q

What are the 6 sub-assemblies of the RWS?

A
  1. 2 x LH and 2 x RH polarized spiral antennas
  2. Blade monopole antenna
  3. Fw and Aft recievers
  4. Radar data processor
  5. User Data Module
  6. Audio amplifier
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5
Q

What generates signals for display on EW top page, EW set-up page, and DFD?

A

Mission Computers (also threat data to the OTO HMSD)

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6
Q

The ____ contains Mission Data Set (MDS) files and classified portions of RWS Operational Flight Programs (OFPs).

A

UDM

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7
Q

What happens when environment saturation with emissions?

A

Flashing “+” and “threat detection degraded” aural alert

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8
Q

Aural signal when APR-39 fails and when AAR-47 and APR-39 signal is lost?

A

APR-39 Failure
Four Seven Signal Lost
both over ICS

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9
Q

If the AAR-47 is working but APR-39 is not powered, will the AN/ALE-47 still dispense countermeasures in response to missile launch and will symbols or audio be present if so?

A

Yes will dispense however no symbols or audio

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10
Q

What volume knob on CSC controls audio amplifier?

A

5

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11
Q

What CBs do you pull if RWR fail caution alert displayed?

A

RWR, LDS, and MWS CBs

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12
Q

What bands do the high sensitivity crystal video and Yttrium Iron Ganet (YIG) recieve?

A 
Crystal = E-G
YIG = H-J
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13
Q

What waveband do the small (nipple) dome omni-directional antenna?

A

K (MMW)

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14
Q

What three major radars can be detected by E-J antennas?

A

Pulsed Doppler, Continous Wave, and Low Probability of Intercept

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15
Q

Can C/D antenna detect bearing?

A

No

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16
Q

When symbol does the H-J, C/D, or E-G radar detected but no match MDS?

A

H-J = Unknown (U)

C/D and E-G = not displayed

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17
Q

3 types of lasers classified by the AN/AAR-47?

A
  1. Beamriders (flash box *)
  2. Designators (* with a box)
  3. Range Finders *
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18
Q

After power up, how long until APR-39 runs IBIT?

A

2 mins

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19
Q

Does the advisory “CMDS MAN PROG DATA LOST” affect ALE-47 performance?

A

No. Its a known deficiency and causes SYS STAT to display ALE-47 degraded.

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20
Q

What are search indications displayed as?

A

“Hash or Tick”

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21
Q

HFI is displayed as a ___ or ____.

A

R or G

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22
Q

How many clutter levels are they and what is the highest level?

A

3

3

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23
Q

What does a B on the RSI stand for?

A

Blanked: Overstimulation from too much photonic energy.

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24
Q

Is laser functionality still available during extended blanking?

A

Yes

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25
The center of the RSI is reserved for what type of threats?
C/D band
26
``` What threat is found in the various leathality rings? (1-5) 1 2 3 4 5 ```
``` 1 - searching 2 - acquisition 3 - tgt tracking 4 - fire control/missile guidance and AAR threats (i.e. missile or laser indications) 5 - C/D radars ```
27
When a threat is no longer detected, how long will the signal ghost for?
10 secs
28
For threat priorities what does MODE 1 and 2 mean?
Mode 1 = high alt | Mode 2 = low alt
29
How many symbols (RF threats and total symbols) maybe displayed at one time?
8 RF threats | 12 total symbols
30
When does threat prioritization matter?
When more than 8 threat symbols are detected by RSDS and AAR-47
31
What symbol is displayed with an APR or AAR processor failure?
centered P
32
For all detected AAR and APR failures what symbol is displayed?
F (maybe displayed in specific quadrant)
33
F in specific missile quadrant with "AAR-47 signal lost" means?
both missile and laser failure in that quadrant
34
How long does an IBIT take?
<45 secs
35
What does a displayed "R" fault mean?
UDM needs replacement
36
What does a displayed "LR" fault mean?
APR-39 OFP needs replacement
37
What does a flashing "P" fault mean?
Radar Data Processor needs replacement
38
Direction of arrival maybe compromised if AOB exceeds ____ degrees.
30
39
What system is a electro-optical threat warning system?
AN/AAR-47(V)2
40
What does ISOC stand for?
Integrated Optical Sensor Converter
41
What does HARLID stand for and what does it do?
High Angular Resolution Laser Irradiance Device | provides precise
42
What material does the AAR-47 optical sensor converters contain?
Nickel Sulfate
43
What does the AAR-47 photodiode detect?
low power lasers (range finders, LBRs, and designators)
44
How many countermeasure expendables can the Z carry?
120
45
Are the forward dispensers inhibited during the firing of fwd firing weapons?
Yes
46
How long does it take to jettison all 30 countermeasures in each sequencer?
<4secs
47
What does which flare is located in FLARE of CMDS?
MJU-32/B
48
What does which flare is located in OTH 2 of CMDS?
MJU-49/B
49
Is there any expendable specified for OTH1?
No
50
Can expensables be jettisoned in STBY mode? What functionality is present in STBY mode of CMDS?
No | Inventory only
51
What program is expended when countermeasure switch (collective 2) is pressed forward?
Man program 1-4 (reactive flares)
52
What program is expended when countermeasure switch (collective 2) is pressed left?
Man program 5 (chaff)
53
What program is expended when countermeasure switch (collective 2) is pressed right?
Man program 6 (pre-emptive flares)
54
What program is expended when countermeasure switch (collective 2) is pressed aft?
Concent (chaff)
55
Does chaff automatically come off when M + Semi selected?
No only in M + auto
56
What does a center press of the countermeasure dispense switch (Collective Switch 2) do?
Switched between M + Semi and M + Auto (one must be previously selected or center press is non-functional.
57
Who is the OBIT function on the EW set-up page designed for?
O-level maintenance. Should not be used by aircrew.
58
What CB must be reset if all inventories are 0 while in training mode?
PRGMR CB
59
Should a CM inventory re-set be conducted in flight after dispensing has occured?
No, it may result in miscalculation of pollable CMs and result in incorrect dispensing execution (including no dispensing).
60
Name the three conditions that must be met for CM ARM to allow dispensing?
1. WOG - indicate air 2. Safety pins removed 3. System CBs - in
61
What does activation of the CM JETTISON PBA do?
Jettisons all CM expendables (if safety conditions are met)
62
Will CM JETTISON PBA override ALE-47 being off?
Yes
63
What does CM BYP PBA allow?
manual dispensing of expendables if CMDS programmer fails to function.
64
What is the name of the chaff used?
RR-129/AL
65
The RR-129 chaff payload consists of ____ _______ dioples cut in ____ lengths.
aluminized glass | 3
66
What GhZ ranges does the RR-129 function at?
2-18
67
What three bands does the RR-144A/AL cover?
H/I/J
68
What chemical mixture does the MJU-32 contain?
MTV (Magnesium, Teflon, and Viton)
69
What impulse cartridge is used to fire the expendables?
CCU-136A/A
70
What type of aircraft is the MJU-38 designed for?
Tactical jet or high signature fixed wing aircraft
71
What material does the MJU-49 contain that when mixed with air causes a chemical reaction?
pyrophoric metal
72
What flare contains a grain that is completely wrapped in aluminum foil?
MJU-67/B
73
Name of training flare similar to MJU-32 and MJU-38?
SM-875A or SM-875B/ALE
74
Does the SM-875B/ALE provide sufficient energy for use with CATM-9?
Yes
75
Min recommended alt for use of IR expendables over land to prevent fire?
960' AGL

AH-1Z (11 decks)

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