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AH-1Z > ASE > Flashcards

ASE Flashcards

1
Q

What system is a passive, omni-directional radar detection system?

A

APR-39B(V)2

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2
Q

What freq bands does APR-39 detect

A

E-J and MMW

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3
Q

What freq bands does the onmi-directional blade antenna pick-up?

A

C and D bands (missile guidance signals)

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4
Q

What are the 6 sub-assemblies of the RWS?

A
  1. 2 x LH and 2 x RH polarized spiral antennas
  2. Blade monopole antenna
  3. Fw and Aft recievers
  4. Radar data processor
  5. User Data Module
  6. Audio amplifier
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5
Q

What generates signals for display on EW top page, EW set-up page, and DFD?

A

Mission Computers (also threat data to the OTO HMSD)

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6
Q

The ____ contains Mission Data Set (MDS) files and classified portions of RWS Operational Flight Programs (OFPs).

A

UDM

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7
Q

What happens when environment saturation with emissions?

A

Flashing “+” and “threat detection degraded” aural alert

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8
Q

Aural signal when APR-39 fails and when AAR-47 and APR-39 signal is lost?

A

APR-39 Failure
Four Seven Signal Lost
both over ICS

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9
Q

If the AAR-47 is working but APR-39 is not powered, will the AN/ALE-47 still dispense countermeasures in response to missile launch and will symbols or audio be present if so?

A

Yes will dispense however no symbols or audio

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10
Q

What volume knob on CSC controls audio amplifier?

A

5

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11
Q

What CBs do you pull if RWR fail caution alert displayed?

A

RWR, LDS, and MWS CBs

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12
Q

What bands do the high sensitivity crystal video and Yttrium Iron Ganet (YIG) recieve?

A 
Crystal = E-G
YIG = H-J
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13
Q

What waveband do the small (nipple) dome omni-directional antenna?

A

K (MMW)

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14
Q

What three major radars can be detected by E-J antennas?

A

Pulsed Doppler, Continous Wave, and Low Probability of Intercept

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15
Q

Can C/D antenna detect bearing?

A

No

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16
Q

When symbol does the H-J, C/D, or E-G radar detected but no match MDS?

A

H-J = Unknown (U)

C/D and E-G = not displayed

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17
Q

3 types of lasers classified by the AN/AAR-47?

A
  1. Beamriders (flash box *)
  2. Designators (* with a box)
  3. Range Finders *
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18
Q

After power up, how long until APR-39 runs IBIT?

A

2 mins

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19
Q

Does the advisory “CMDS MAN PROG DATA LOST” affect ALE-47 performance?

A

No. Its a known deficiency and causes SYS STAT to display ALE-47 degraded.

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20
Q

What are search indications displayed as?

A

“Hash or Tick”

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21
Q

HFI is displayed as a ___ or ____.

A

R or G

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22
Q

How many clutter levels are they and what is the highest level?

A

3

3

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23
Q

What does a B on the RSI stand for?

A

Blanked: Overstimulation from too much photonic energy.

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24
Q

Is laser functionality still available during extended blanking?

A

Yes

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25
Q

The center of the RSI is reserved for what type of threats?

A

C/D band

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26
Q 
What threat is found in the various leathality rings? (1-5)
1
2
3
4
5
A 
1 - searching
2 - acquisition
3 - tgt tracking
4 - fire control/missile guidance and AAR threats (i.e. missile or laser indications)
5 - C/D radars
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27
Q

When a threat is no longer detected, how long will the signal ghost for?

A

10 secs

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28
Q

For threat priorities what does MODE 1 and 2 mean?

A

Mode 1 = high alt

Mode 2 = low alt

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29
Q

How many symbols (RF threats and total symbols) maybe displayed at one time?

A

8 RF threats

12 total symbols

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30
Q

When does threat prioritization matter?

A

When more than 8 threat symbols are detected by RSDS and AAR-47

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31
Q

What symbol is displayed with an APR or AAR processor failure?

A

centered P

32
Q

For all detected AAR and APR failures what symbol is displayed?

A

F (maybe displayed in specific quadrant)

33
Q

F in specific missile quadrant with “AAR-47 signal lost” means?

A

both missile and laser failure in that quadrant

34
Q

How long does an IBIT take?

A

<45 secs

35
Q

What does a displayed “R” fault mean?

A

UDM needs replacement

36
Q

What does a displayed “LR” fault mean?

A

APR-39 OFP needs replacement

37
Q

What does a flashing “P” fault mean?

A

Radar Data Processor needs replacement

38
Q

Direction of arrival maybe compromised if AOB exceeds ____ degrees.

A

30

39
Q

What system is a electro-optical threat warning system?

A

AN/AAR-47(V)2

40
Q

What does ISOC stand for?

A

Integrated Optical Sensor Converter

41
Q

What does HARLID stand for and what does it do?

A

High Angular Resolution Laser Irradiance Device

provides precise

42
Q

What material does the AAR-47 optical sensor converters contain?

A

Nickel Sulfate

43
Q

What does the AAR-47 photodiode detect?

A

low power lasers (range finders, LBRs, and designators)

44
Q

How many countermeasure expendables can the Z carry?

A

120

45
Q

Are the forward dispensers inhibited during the firing of fwd firing weapons?

A

Yes

46
Q

How long does it take to jettison all 30 countermeasures in each sequencer?

A

<4secs

47
Q

What does which flare is located in FLARE of CMDS?

A

MJU-32/B

48
Q

What does which flare is located in OTH 2 of CMDS?

A

MJU-49/B

49
Q

Is there any expendable specified for OTH1?

A

No

50
Q

Can expensables be jettisoned in STBY mode? What functionality is present in STBY mode of CMDS?

A

No

Inventory only

51
Q

What program is expended when countermeasure switch (collective 2) is pressed forward?

A

Man program 1-4 (reactive flares)

52
Q

What program is expended when countermeasure switch (collective 2) is pressed left?

A

Man program 5 (chaff)

53
Q

What program is expended when countermeasure switch (collective 2) is pressed right?

A

Man program 6 (pre-emptive flares)

54
Q

What program is expended when countermeasure switch (collective 2) is pressed aft?

A

Concent (chaff)

55
Q

Does chaff automatically come off when M + Semi selected?

A

No only in M + auto

56
Q

What does a center press of the countermeasure dispense switch (Collective Switch 2) do?

A

Switched between M + Semi and M + Auto (one must be previously selected or center press is non-functional.

57
Q

Who is the OBIT function on the EW set-up page designed for?

A

O-level maintenance. Should not be used by aircrew.

58
Q

What CB must be reset if all inventories are 0 while in training mode?

A

PRGMR CB

59
Q

Should a CM inventory re-set be conducted in flight after dispensing has occured?

A

No, it may result in miscalculation of pollable CMs and result in incorrect dispensing execution (including no dispensing).

60
Q

Name the three conditions that must be met for CM ARM to allow dispensing?

A
  1. WOG - indicate air
  2. Safety pins removed
  3. System CBs - in
61
Q

What does activation of the CM JETTISON PBA do?

A

Jettisons all CM expendables (if safety conditions are met)

62
Q

Will CM JETTISON PBA override ALE-47 being off?

A

Yes

63
Q

What does CM BYP PBA allow?

A

manual dispensing of expendables if CMDS programmer fails to function.

64
Q

What is the name of the chaff used?

A

RR-129/AL

65
Q

The RR-129 chaff payload consists of ____ _______ dioples cut in ____ lengths.

A

aluminized glass

3

66
Q

What GhZ ranges does the RR-129 function at?

A

2-18

67
Q

What three bands does the RR-144A/AL cover?

A

H/I/J

68
Q

What chemical mixture does the MJU-32 contain?

A

MTV (Magnesium, Teflon, and Viton)

69
Q

What impulse cartridge is used to fire the expendables?

A

CCU-136A/A

70
Q

What type of aircraft is the MJU-38 designed for?

A

Tactical jet or high signature fixed wing aircraft

71
Q

What material does the MJU-49 contain that when mixed with air causes a chemical reaction?

A

pyrophoric metal

72
Q

What flare contains a grain that is completely wrapped in aluminum foil?

A

MJU-67/B

73
Q

Name of training flare similar to MJU-32 and MJU-38?

A

SM-875A or SM-875B/ALE

74
Q

Does the SM-875B/ALE provide sufficient energy for use with CATM-9?

A

Yes

75
Q

Min recommended alt for use of IR expendables over land to prevent fire?

A

960’ AGL

AH-1Z (11 decks)

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