ASCP 2023 exam Flashcards

1
Q

Which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?

A

Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

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2
Q

A common cause of acute exudative pharyngitis is:

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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3
Q

Polyvinyl alcohol used in the preparation of permanently stained smears of fecal material:

A

serves as an adhesive

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4
Q

The characteristic that is most commonly associated with the presence of strict anaerobic bacteria and can be taken as presumptive evidence of their presence in a clinical specimen is the

A

presence of a foul, putrid odor from tissue specimens and cultures

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5
Q

What stain is most often used as a screening stain when mycobacteria is suspected in a respiratory specimen?

A

auramine O

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6
Q

Which organism is the most common anaerobic bacteria isolated from infectious processes of soft tissue and anaerobic bacteremia?

A

B. fragilis

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7
Q

The primary isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires:

A

CO2

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8
Q

Shigella species characteristically are

A

nonmotile

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9
Q

In reviewing the number of Mycobacterium isolates for the current year, it is noted that there were 76% fewer isolates than the previous year (115 vs 28). The technologist in charge of the area has documented that the quality control of media, reagents and stains has been acceptable and there has been no gross contamination of the cultures noted. The most appropriate next course of action is to:

A

review the digestion and decontamination procedure

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10
Q

Which organism is predominantly responsible for visceral larva migrans?

A

Toxocara canis

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11
Q

which one of the following organisms could be used as the positive quality control test for lecithinase on egg yolk agar?

A

Clostridium perfringens

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12
Q

Organisms that are part of the Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex (MTBC) include Mycobacterium tuberculosis and:

A

M. africanum and M. bovis

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13
Q

A positive niacin test is characteristic of Mycobacterium:

A

tuberculosis

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14
Q

Small protozoan cysts are found in a wet mount of sediment from ethyl-acetate concentrated material. Each cyst has 4 nuclei that do not have peripheral chromatin, and each nucleus has a large karyosome, which appears as a refractive dot. These oval cysts are most likely

A

Endolimax nana

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15
Q

Which DNase-positive organism’s colony is not easily broken up and therefore displays the “hockey puck” characteristic, where it can be pushed across the plate of medium?

A

Moraxella catarrhalis

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16
Q

A reliable test for distinguishing Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is:

A

coagulase

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17
Q

Which type of virus causes severe acute respiratory syndrome?

A

coronavirus

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18
Q

A young girl cuts her foot on a rock while swimming in the ocean. Her foot begins to show signs of infection, and her parents take her to the ER. A culture grows non-lactose fermenting gram-negative bacilli that produce copious amounts of hydrogen sulfide and gas, is indole-positive and motile. The organism most likely isolated is:

A

Edwardsiella species

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19
Q

Which one of the following clinical syndromes is associated with VZV infection?

A

shingles

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20
Q

Anaerobic, box-car shaped, beta-hemolytic gram-positive bacilli isolated from a foot wound are most likely:

A

Clostridium perfringens

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21
Q

A method to culture Acanthamoeba species from corneal ulcer scrapings is to inoculate:

A

an agar plate overlaid with Escherichia coli

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22
Q

An isolate on chocolate agar from a patient with epiglottitis is suggestive of Haemophilus species. Additional testing shows that the isolate required NAD for growth and is nonhemolytic. The organism is most likely Haemophilus:

A

parainfluenzae

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23
Q

What precaution should be taken to prevent infection of laboratory personnel when processing specimens for mycobacterial culture?

A

process all specimens in a biological safety hood

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24
Q

Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci may be distinguished from other hemolytic streptococci by which of the following procedures?

A

latex antigen grouping

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25
Q

Which one of the following media is most helpful in distinguishing the morphology of yeasts?

A

cornmeal agar with Tween 80

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26
Q

The recommended medium/media to inoculate for the primary isolation of Mycobacteria include:

A

a broth-based and a solid-based medium

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27
Q

In a person vaccinated against hepatitis B virus several years prior, which serological marker would be expected?

A

anti-HBs

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28
Q

Relapsing fever in humans is caused by

A

Borrelia recurrentis

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29
Q

Gram stain of a thigh wound shows many gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. The specimen is placed on brain-heart infusion blood agar and incubated aerobically at 35°C for 3 days. At the end of that time, the plates show no growth. The most likely explanation is that some of the specimen should have been incubated

A

anaerobically

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30
Q

Darkfield microscopy is used to visualize

A

Treponema pallidum

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31
Q

Small, pleomorphic gram-negative bacilli are isolated from an eye culture. They grow only on chocolate agar and are oxidase-variable. The most likely organism is:

A

Haemophilus influenzae

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32
Q

Differentiation of Mycobacterium avium from Mycobacterium intracellulare can be accomplished by

A

molecular testing

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33
Q

The Gram stain of drainage from a pulmonary sinus tract shows many WBCs and 3+ branching gram-positive bacilli. Colonies grow only on anaerobic media after 3 days’ incubation. They are yellow-tan and have a molar tooth appearance. The most likely genus is:

A

Actinomyces

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34
Q

The principal difference between the Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast stain technique and the Kinyoun acid-fast stain technique is the:

A

use of heat to allow the dye to penetrate organism

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35
Q

Fluid from a cutaneous black lesion is submitted for routine bacterial culture. After 18 hours of incubation at 35°C there is no growth on MacConkey agar, but 3+ growth on sheep blood agar. The colonies are nonhemolytic, nonmotile, 4 - 5 mm in diameter and off-white with a ground glass appearance. Each colony has an irregular edge with comma-shaped outgrowths that stand up like “beaten egg whites” when gently lifted with an inoculating needle. A Gram stain of a typical colony shows large, gram-positive rectangular bacilli. The organism is most likely:

A

Bacillus anthracis

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36
Q

A catheterized urine is inoculated onto blood and MacConkey agar using a 0.01 mL loop. After 24 hours, 68 colonies of a small translucent nonhemolytic organism grew on blood agar, but not MacConkey. Testing reveals small gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci. The preliminary report and follow up testing would be:

A

growth of 6800 CFU/mL of a Streptococcus species, esculin hydrolysis and 6.5% NaCl growth test to follow

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37
Q

A patient has a suspected diagnosis of subacute bacterial endocarditis. His blood cultures grow non-spore-forming pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli only in the anaerobic bottle. What test(s) will give a presumptive identification of this microorganism?

A

catalase and spot indole

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38
Q

An organism previously thought to be nonpathogenic, Moraxella catarrhalis, is now known to be associated with opportunistic respiratory infection and nosocomial transmission. Characteristic identification criteria include:

A

butyrate esterase-positive

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39
Q

A fibrous skin nodule is removed from the back of a patient from Central America. A microfilaria seen upon microscopic exam of the nodule is most likely:

A

Onchocerca volvulus

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40
Q

Primary amoebic encephalitis is caused by:

A

Naegleria fowleri

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41
Q

An Enterococcus isolated from multiple blood cultures in a patient endocarditis should be:

A

screened for high-level aminoglycoside resistance

42
Q

A blood culture bottle with macroscopic signs of growth is Gram stained and the technician notes small, curved gram-negative bacilli resembling “gull wings.” It is subcultured to blood and chocolate agar, and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. After 24 hours, no growth is apparent. The next step should be to:

A

subculture the bottle, and incubate in microaerophilic conditions

43
Q

Differentiating tests that will separate Burkholderia from Stenotrophomonas include:

44
Q

Tests for Haemophilus influenzae beta-lactamase production:

A

should be performed on all blood and CSF isolates

45
Q

The most frequent cause of prosthetic heart valve infections occurring within 2 - 3 months after surgery is:

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

46
Q

The laboratory aid prepared and performed a Gram stain of a vaginal smear for Neisseria gonorrhoeae, as requested by a resident. The findings on the stain were:

many white blood cells
few epithelial cells
many gram-positive bacilli
few gram-negative diplococci
few gram-positive cocci in chains

The technologist should:

A

not read or report a Gram stain on a vaginal specimen

47
Q

Which medium could a technologist use to verify that a yeast isolate from a blood culture is pure?

48
Q

Gamma-hemolytic streptococci that blacken bile esculin agar but do not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth are most likely:

A

group D Streptococcus (Streptococcus bovis group)

49
Q

Which one of the following viruses is responsible for the most common congenital infection in the United States?

50
Q

Examples of Category A agents of bioterrorism include:

A

Francisella tularensis, Yersinia pestis

51
Q

Where do Plasmodium sporozoites proliferate?

52
Q

Which of the following is the most reliable test to differentiate Neisseria lactamica from Neisseria meningitidis?

A

rapid ONPG

53
Q

Gram-positive cocci in chains are seen on a Gram stain from a blood culture. The organism grows as a beta-hemolytic colony. Further tests that could be performed include:

A

PYR, bacitracin, and hippurate

54
Q

This organism is responsible for hydatid cysts of the liver:

A

Echinococcus

55
Q

An organism that may be mistaken for Neisseria gonorrhoeae in Gram-stained smears of uterine cervix exudates is:

A

Moraxella osloensis

56
Q

A pregnant patient is screened at 36 weeks’ gestation for group B Streptococcus (GBS). A vaginal swab is collected and cultured in Todd-Hewitt broth with 8 µg/mL gentamicin and 15 µg/mL nalidixic acid. The broth is subcultured onto sheep blood agar after 24 hours of incubation. No GBS are seen on the subculture and the results are reported as negative. The patient later goes on to deliver an infant with early onset GBS disease. What is the most likely reason for the negative GBS culture?

A

a vaginal swab was collected instead of a vaginal/rectal swab

57
Q

This parasite is transmitted by accidental ingestion of cat feces that contain oocysts and by ingestion of undercooked meat that has tissue cysts. The parasite is:

A

Toxoplasma gondii

58
Q

Microbiology-related urgent or critical results include positive:

A

blood cultures, cerebrospinal fluid cultures and acid-fast smears

59
Q

A method for the definitive identification of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is

A

utilization of carbohydrates

60
Q

The Epstein-Barr virus is associated with which of the following?

A

Burkitt lymphoma

61
Q

Infection of the urinary tract is mostfrequently associated with:

62
Q

Representative beta-lactam antibiotics and their mechanism of action includ

A

ampicillin, cefazolin and imipenem; and inhibition of cell wall synthesis

63
Q

During the previous month, Staphylococcus epidermidis has been isolated from blood cultures at 2 - 3 times the rate from the previous year. The most logical explanation for the increase in these isolates is that

A

there has been a break in proper skin preparation before drawing blood for culture

64
Q

A 3-year-old unimmunized female presents to the ER with a severe cough, fever, and flu-like symptoms. The parents report that the child had vomited a few times due to the severe coughing. A nasopharyngeal swab is used to collect the specimen and planted on a chocolate, Bordet-Gengou, and Regan Lowe media. After 5 days of incubation, colonies grow on all of the media, with the growth on Bordet-Gengou described as “drops of mercury.” The Gram stain shows minute coccobacilli that are catalase-positive and oxidase-positive. The most likely identification of this isolate is:

A

Bordetella pertussis

65
Q

The laboratory is considering adoption of a rapid and sensitive “stand alone” method that detects Clostridioides difficile toxins A and B. Which one of the following testing methodologies will provide this?

66
Q

A very bloody stool is received by the laboratory. The following day a pathogenic strain of E. coli is isolated. Which sugar should this isolate be tested against to begin the identification process?

67
Q

A technologist on the respiratory bench notices an increased number of patients on the ICU growing the same, drug-resistant gram-negative bacilli from sputum specimens. Which department in the hospital will the microbiology laboratory work with to collect data on positive patients?

A

Infection control

68
Q

The organism most commonly associated with neonatal purulent meningitis is:

A

group B streptococci

69
Q

Microorganisms resembling Mycoplasma pneumoniae have been isolated from the blood of patients treated with antibiotics that:

A

interfere with cell wall synthesis

70
Q

The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of deamination activity are:

A

Proteus mirabilis—Escherichia coli

71
Q

When staining mycobacteria, the primary stain used in the acid-fast staining process is:

A

carbol fuchsin

72
Q

Characteristics of the HACEK group of bacteria include:

A

requirement of 5 - 10% CO2 for growth

73
Q

What organism combination is appropriate to serve as quality control for the listed test or organism characteristic?

A

indole: Escherichia coli and Proteus mirabilis

74
Q

The optochin disk is used for the identification of:

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

75
Q

Which of the following gram-positive bacilli is associated with infections in neonates, pregnant women, elderly adults, and outbreaks of food contamination? I

A

Listeria monocytogenes

76
Q

The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of deoxyribonuclease (DNase) production are:

A

Serratia marcescens—Escherichia coli

77
Q

When compared to direct specimen carbol fuchsin stains used for detecting mycobacteria, fluorochrome stains are less sensitive for detecting mycobacteria classified as:

A

rapid growers

78
Q

The genus of virus associated with anogenital warts, cervical dysplasia and neoplasia is

A

human papillomavirus

79
Q

A characteristic that is helpful in separating Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members of the Pseudomonas family is:

A

growth at 42°C

80
Q

A liquid fecal specimen from a 3-month-old infant is submitted for culture. The stool culture should detect Salmonella, Shigella and:

A

Campylobacter species

81
Q

Which nonculture method is best for the diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in an adult female?

82
Q

Talaromyces (formerly Penicillium) species can be separated from Aspergillus fumigatus by:

A

lack of vesicle

83
Q

Which of the following would best differentiate Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes?

A

hydrolysis of sodium hippurate

84
Q

A 44-year-old man is admitted to the hospital following a 2-week history of low-grade fever, malaise and anorexia. Examination of a Giemsa stain reveals many intraerythrocytic parasites. Further history reveals frequent camping trips near Martha’s Vineyard and Nantucket Island, but no travel outside the continental United States. This parasite could easily be confused with:

A

Plasmodium falciparum

85
Q

An organism has been identified as a member of the fluorescent group of Pseudomonas. Which of the following sets of tests should be used to determine the species of the organism?

A

growth at 42°C, pyocyanin production, gelatinase production

86
Q

An Enterobacterales organism will appear to be more resistant on a disk diffusion susceptibility test if the:

A

inoculum is too concentrated

87
Q

A branching gram-positive, partially acid-fast organism is isolated from a bronchial washing on a 63-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy. The organism does not hydrolyze casein, tyrosine or xanthine. The most likely genus causing the infection is:

88
Q

While swimming in a lake near his home, a young boy cut his foot, and an infection developed. The culture grew a nonfastidious gram-negative, oxidase-positive, beta-hemolytic, motile bacilli that produced deoxyribonuclease (DNase). The mostlikely identification is:

A

Aeromonas hydrophila

89
Q

Haemophilus influenzae becomes resistant to ampicillin when the organism produces:

A

the beta-lactamase enzyme

90
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid test results that are most consistent with viral meningitis include:

A

lymphocytes predominant

91
Q

The most sensitive substrate for the detection of beta-lactamases is:

A

nitrocefin

92
Q

Penicillin resistance in Neisseria gonorrhoeae can be due to the organism producing:

A

beta-lactamase

93
Q

What Mycobacterium species includes a BCG strain used for vaccination against tuberculosis?

94
Q

Chlamydia trachomatis infections have been implicated in:

A

LGV and conjunctivitis

95
Q

Infection by this organism can cause of B12 deficiency:

A

Diphyllobothrium latum

96
Q

Which one of the following anaerobes is inhibited by sodium polyanethol sulfonate (SPS)?

A

Peptostreptococcus anaerobius

97
Q

A common cause of acute exudative pharyngitis is:

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

98
Q

The best medium for culture of Bordetella pertussis is:

A

Regan-Lowe agar

99
Q

Polyvinyl alcohol used in the preparation of permanently stained smears of fecal material:

A

serves as an adhesive

100
Q

The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of deoxyribonuclease (DNase) production are:

A

Serratia marcescens—Escherichia coli