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ASA 104 Flashcards

1
Q

Boats traveling to a foreign country should plan to enter at an official port of entry when possible.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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2
Q

Which of the following documents may be required by Customs and Immigration?

A. Boat registration/documentation and crew medical records
B. Boat registration/documentation and crew passports
C. Boat survey and crew passports
D. Boat survey and crew medical records

A

B. Boat registration/documentation and crew passports

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3
Q

Recommended treatment for a crewmember suffering from heat exhaustion is:

A. Gradual warming and hot drinks
B. Rapid cooling and hydration
C. Massage and vigorous exercise
D. Cold compresses and vigorous exercise

A

B. Rapid cooling and hydration

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4
Q

Which of the following conditions could aggravate seasickness?

A. Alcohol consumption
B. Excess sleep
C. Fresh air
D. Scanning the horizon

A

A. Alcohol consumption

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5
Q

A charter cruising boat should be stocked with spare fuel filters and an alternator belt.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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6
Q

While a diesel engine’s fuel consumption remains stable with constant RPM, the boat’s range under power may be affected by all EXCEPT:

A. Wind and sea conditions
B. Marine growth on the hull
C. Charging batteries while underway
D. Onboard weight

A

C. Charging batteries while underway

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7
Q

Returning from a day trip to a nearby anchorage you find that 1.3 gallons of fuel have been used. Your log indicates that you motored for 1 hour and 45 minutes. What was your approximate fuel consumption rate?

A. 1.11 gph
B. 0.74 gph
C. 0.90 gph
D. 1.35 gph

A

B. 0.74 gph

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8
Q

Your boat’s 18 gallon fuel tank is full, and you plan to keep 1/3 of a tank in reserve. Your fuel consumption rate is 0.75 gph at 2200 rpm (yielding approximately 6 knot cruising speed), and there are no additional factors affecting range. Be sure to retain 1/3 tank in reserve. At 2200 rpm, what is your approximate cruising range, in hours and distance?

A. 16 hours, 54 nm
B. 16 hours, 96 nm
C. 9 hours, 54 nm
D. 9 hours, 96 nm

A

B. 16 hours, 96 nm

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9
Q

When provisioning the boat for charter, plan on these quantities of fresh water (per person/per day):

A. 2 gallons for drinking; 5 gallons for bathing, washing, cooking
B. 2 gallons for drinking; 2 gallons for bathing, washing, cooking
C. ½ gallon for drinking; 3 gallons for bathing, washing, cooking
D. ½ gallon for drinking; 5 gallons for bathing, washing, cooking

A

D. ½ gallon for drinking; 5 gallons for bathing, washing, cooking

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10
Q

After using a marine propane stove, turn off the gas solenoid first and let the remaining gas burn off, then turn the stove off.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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11
Q

Propane systems usually have a _______ in the propane locker that turns the propane gas off when the stove is not in use.

A. Injector pump
B. Regulator
C. Solenoid
D. Check valve

A

C. Solenoid

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12
Q

To increase safety when cooking underway, use the __________ to keep the marine stove level when heeling.

A. Dish cloths
B. Gimbals
C. Solenoid
D. Fiddles

A

B. Gimbals

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13
Q

Waste from marine heads should not be discharged in US Inland Waters or within _______ of the US coastline.

A. 3 miles
B. 5 miles
C. 10 miles
D. 25 miles

A

A. 3 miles

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14
Q

In regulated waters, prevent overboard discharge of waste by:

A. Limiting waste to liquid only
B. Securing the “Y” valve or holding tank discharge handle
C. Using plenty of paper products to absorb waste in the holding tank
D. Using an enzyme to purify the holding tank

A

B. Securing the “Y” valve or holding tank discharge handle

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15
Q

To flush a marine head while in US Inland Waters, first pump in some water and then pump sufficiently to ensure the waste reaches the:

A. Bilge pump
B. Sump pump
C. Holding tank
D. Macerator

A

C. Holding tank

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16
Q

To pump out a marine holding tank, unscrew the waste deck plate and then hold the pumpout nozzle firmly in the outlet before opening the valve.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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17
Q

A freshwater pump cycling on and off when no one is using water may indicate:

A. Normal operation of the freshwater system
B. A leak or an open faucet
C. Full water tanks
D. Water in the bilge

A

B. A leak or an open faucet

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18
Q

Because marine refrigerators are a big draw of 12V DC power, it is unlikely you will have sufficient stored electricity to run the refrigeration 24/7 while sailing or anchored out without recharging the batteries.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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19
Q

A seacock with the handle at right angles to the body of the connected pipe is in the open position.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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20
Q

An automatic bilge pump submersed in a wet bilge should be switched OFF when unattended.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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21
Q

On a boat’s electrical control panel, the circuits are activated and protected by circuit breakers.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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22
Q

To preclude dropping a live power cord into the water, connect the shore power cable to the boat first, and then connect the cable to the power outlet on the dock.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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23
Q

The “house” (12 volt) electrical system operates on _______ .

A. Alternating current (A/C)
B. Direct current (D/C)
C. Shore power
D. Generator

A

B. Direct current (D/C)

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24
Q

When at anchor, or moored without shore power, you should not allow the bank of house batteries to run below 50% capacity.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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25
Q

What should be the first response if nothing happens when the engine start switch is activated?

A. Jump the batteries
B. Check water levels in the batteries
C. Ensure the battery switch is ON
D. Crosswire to use the domestic battery

A

C. Ensure the battery switch is ON

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26
Q

Once a diesel engine is started and running smoothly, it is advisable to turn OFF the engine battery to preserve its charge.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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27
Q

The purpose of the primary fuel filter is to:

A. Separate oil from the fuel
B. Remove water and dirt particles from the fuel
C. Moderate fuel consumption
D. Precisely mix fuel with air

A

B. Remove water and dirt particles from the fuel

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28
Q

The _________ draws diesel fuel from the tank through the secondary filter, and can be operated manually to prime the fuel system and bleed air bubbles.

A. Air pump
B. Exhaust pump
C. Bilge pump
D. Lift pump

A

D. Lift pump

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29
Q

Fuel exiting the injector pump is under considerably higher pressure than fuel exiting the lift pump.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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30
Q

Checking the engine oil is a process that need only be performed every 150 engine hours.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

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31
Q

Coolant flow in the pressurized internal cooling system is regulated by the:

A. Injector
B. Thermostat
C. Solenoid
D. Filter

A

B. Thermostat

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32
Q

An impeller pumps water in the raw-water cooling system.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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33
Q

Which of the following could cause the raw-water cooling system to fail?

A. Cracked filler cap
B. Clogged strainer
C. Low coolant level
D. Inoperable thermostat

A

B. Clogged strainer

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34
Q

The ____________________ may require occasional removal to clear marine life.

A. Knotmeter transducer
B. Depth sounder
C. GPS
D. Auto-helm controls

A

A. Knotmeter transducer

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35
Q

Which of the following signals is NOT an officially recognized distress signal?

A. Emergency Position-Indicating Radio Beacon (EPIRB)
B. Pyrotechnic flares
C. Code flag Alpha
D. Black square and ball on an orange background

A

C. Code flag Alpha

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36
Q

The international distress, safety and calling channel on the VHF radio is:

A. Channel 7
B. Channel 16
C. Channel 72
D. Channel 87

A

B. Channel 16

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37
Q

In the event of a collision with another boat, your first responsibility is to:

A. Assess the damage to the boat
B. Exchange insurance information
C. Establish the safety of your crew
D. File an incident report with USCG

A

C. Establish the safety of your crew

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38
Q

Upon grounding under sail, your first action should be to:

A. Kedge off
B. Motor off
C. Pad the hull
D. De-power the sails

A

D. De-power the sails

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39
Q

Effective tools to fight most onboard fires include Class B–C fire extinguishers and fire blankets.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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40
Q

Turning the propeller shaft by hand might help free a line accidentally wrapped around the propeller.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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41
Q

In the event of steering cable failure, fit the emergency tiller into the:

A. Binnacle
B. Rudder stock
C. Keel bolt
D. Outdrive

A

B. Rudder stock

42
Q

If your engine fails in a crowded anchorage, your immediate action should be:

A. Set the sails and continue to your destination
B. Coast or sail to an open space and drop anchor
C. Head for the nearest anchored boat and grab their anchor line
D. Sail to the nearest channel and drop anchor

A

B. Coast or sail to an open space and drop anchor

43
Q

To control boat speed and stop to windward of a Man Overboard (MOB), on which point of sail should you make the final recovery approach?

A. Close Reach
B. Beam Reach
C. Head to Wind
D. Broad Reach

A

A. Close Reach

44
Q

Which statement about LifeSling® is NOT correct?

A. A LifeSling is a MOB recovery device consisting of a flotation collar and 125-150’ of floating line.
B. To recover an MOB with a LifeSling, sail or motor an elliptical course around the MOB
C. To recover an MOB with a LifeSling, sail or motor a Figure 8 course around the MOB
D. The LifeSling floating line should be tied securely to the boat and to the collar

A

C. To recover an MOB with a LifeSling, sail or motor a Figure 8 course around the MOB

45
Q

The skipper remains responsible for the boat and crew, even while below deck.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

46
Q

What is the correct procedure to initiate a call to another vessel or station on the VHF radio?

A. Identify your vessel by name twice
B. Call “Pan Pan” four times to attract attention
C. Call the name of the other vessel three times
D. Identify your vessel by your radio’s call letters

A

C. Call the name of the other vessel three times

47
Q

When tying a boat to a fixed pier where a large tidal range exists, spring lines should be:

A. Spring lines are not useful with fixed piers
B. Long enough to accommodate the tidal range
C. Shorter than usual to keep the boat in position
D. Equal to the length of the bow and stern lines

A

B. Long enough to accommodate the tidal range

48
Q

In which position should you drop your anchor to allow the best swing clearance when anchoring near another boat?

A. Directly ahead of the other boat
B. Off the other boat’s quarter
C. Alongside the other boat’s starboard side
D. Alongside the other boat’s port side

A

B. Off the other boat’s quarter

49
Q

Which of these anchoring methods requires the most swinging room?

A. Bahamian moor
B. Forked moor
C. Bow anchor only
D. Fore-and-Aft moor

A

C. Bow anchor only

50
Q

When weighing (raising) anchor, use the anchor windlass to pull the boat forward.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

51
Q

Which statement about rafting at anchor is NOT correct?

A. The largest/heaviest boat with the biggest anchor should anchor first
B. Skippers should request permission to come alongside before approaching
C. The boats at both ends of the raft should anchor to reduce swing
D. Spring lines should be adjusted to offset the masts fore and aft

A

C. The boats at both ends of the raft should anchor to reduce swing

52
Q

Which procedure is correct when towing a dinghy?

A. Store excess bags of garbage in the dinghy for ballast
B. Adjust the towline to keep the dinghy in step with waves or wake
C. Lengthen the towline during anchoring, mooring or docking
D. Keep the outboard engine in its vertical operating position with fuel vent open

A

B. Adjust the towline to keep the dinghy in step with waves or wake

53
Q

Polypropylene dinghy painters float, but they are slippery and can easily become untied.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

54
Q

To prepare the boat and crew for heavy weather:

A. Deploy and tow the liferaft for rapid access
B. Stow gear, wear harnesses & tethers, reef the sails
C. Abandon the watch rotation and keep all crew on deck
D. Open two hatches to ensure ventilation belowdecks

A

B. Stow gear, wear harnesses & tethers, reef the sails

55
Q

Which statement about using winches is NOT correct?

A. Properly used winches give you more power to safely control the sails
B. When easing a sheet, keep enough wraps on the winch to retain control of the tail
C. Positioning your body over a winch allows you to apply more upper-body strength
D. Electric winches will automatically stop if resistance is encountered

A

D. Electric winches will automatically stop if resistance is encountered

56
Q

Flattening the sails is a technique used to:

A. Increase the sail’s depth as wind speed drops
B. Increase control by de-powering the sails
C. Increase the longevity of the sails
D. Increase clearance under the boom

A

B. Increase control by de-powering the sails

57
Q

Twist can be increased in the mainsail by:

A. Easing the traveller to leeward
B. Tightening the mainsheet
C. Easing the mainsheet
D. Moving the jibsheet leads aft

A

C. Easing the mainsheet

58
Q

Reefing the mainsail can be achieved while still sailing on the jib.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

59
Q

To set the roller-furling jib, choose either a close reach or a deep broad reach, depending on conditions.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

60
Q

The shape of the jib is controlled by:

A. The main halyard
B. The tell tales
C. The position of the jibsheet leads
D. Reefing lines

A

C. The position of the jibsheet leads

61
Q

Prop walk is the term that describes:

A. The speed of propeller rotation when in reverse gear
B. A standing turn conducted in a fairway
C. A tendency for the stern to move sideways when reverse gear is initially engaged
D. The flow of water from the propeller over the rudder in forward gear

A

C. A tendency for the stern to move sideways when reverse gear is initially engaged

62
Q

If your dockside test reveals that prop wash flows away from the starboard side when reverse gear is engaged, you can expect that the stern will be pushed to port.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

63
Q

Requesting “permission to board” another skipper’s boat is an outdated tradition that no longer serves a purpose.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

64
Q

Skippers of anchored boats are generally expected to re-anchor to accommodate boaters who arrive later at an anchorage.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

65
Q

The flag of the boat’s country of registry should be flown _______ .

A. At the stern
B. At the port spreader
C. At the starboard spreader
D. At the forestay

A

A. At the stern

66
Q

When traveling in waters of another country, the flag of the host country should be hoisted _______ after clearing customs and immigration.

A. At the stern
B. At the port spreader
C. At the starboard spreader
D. At the forestay

A

C. At the starboard spreader

67
Q

Sailboats racing in a regatta are the stand-on vessels (over non-racing sailboats) under the Navigation Rules.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

68
Q

A sailboat less than 20 meters in length may display a masthead tri-color light when motor-sailing.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

69
Q

Navigation lights must be used between sunset and sunrise, and in periods of restricted visibility.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

70
Q

Illuminating the white all around light at the top of the mast indicates that a sailboat is:

A. Under power
B. Under sail
C. At anchor
D. Distressed

A

C. At anchor

71
Q

Skippers have a legal obligation to render assistance that can be safely offered to individuals who are in danger at sea.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

72
Q

Vessels underway are required to maintain a proper lookout:

A. Only during periods of reduced visibility
B. Only in areas of concentrated traffic
C. At all times
D. Only while making way

A

C. At all times

73
Q

Pleasure craft are obliged to follow the “divided highways” of Traffic Separation Schemes when approaching a commercial port.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

74
Q

The stand-on vessel must maintain its course and speed unless the give-way vessel fails to take action to keep clear.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

75
Q

The proper length of a “prolonged” blast is:

A. 2 to 3 seconds
B. 4 to 6 seconds
C. 5 to 8 seconds
D. Greater than 10 seconds

A

B. 4 to 6 seconds

76
Q

If you are under auxiliary power and see a powerboat approach you off your starboard bow, you are required to:

A. Alter course to port
B. Alter course to starboard
C. Stop or slow down
D. Give way

A

D. Give way

77
Q

You are operating under auxiliary power in inland waters when a powerboat approaching from astern sounds one short blast. If you agree with his intention, how should you respond?

A. Reply with one short blast and alter your course to port
B. Reply with one short blast and maintain your course
C. Reply with two short blasts and maintain your course
D. Make no reply but alter your course to starboard

A

B. Reply with one short blast and maintain your course

78
Q

Sea breezes occur when:

A. Warm air rising over water draws cooler air offshore from the land
B. Warm air rising over land draws cooler air onshore from the water
C. Synoptic-scale warm fronts draw warm air onshore from the water
D. Synoptic-scale cold fronts draw cool air offshore from the land

A

B. Warm air rising over land draws cooler air onshore from the water

79
Q

An important difference for mariners between Advection fog and Radiation fog is that Advection fog:

A. Forms over land and can spill onto adjacent waters
B. Generally burns off quickly after sunrise
C. Can persist with moderate or strong winds
D. Forms only during the winter

A

C. Can persist with moderate or strong winds

80
Q

Which action is appropriate when operating in restricted visibility?

A. Increase speed to improve maneuverability
B. Make proper sound signals per the Navigation Rules
C. Stay in a shipping channel to ensure deep water
D. Turn off navigation lights to reduce backscatter glare

A

B. Make proper sound signals per the Navigation Rules

81
Q

The difference in water height between high and low tides is called:

A. Tidal current
B. Tidal range
C. Tide table
D. Tidal datum

A

B. Tidal range

82
Q

A tidal current generally reaches its maximum strength midway between slacks.

A. True
B. False

A

A. True

83
Q

The flow of water associated with a rising (incoming) tide is called:

A. Ebb current
B. Slack
C. Flood current
D. Stand

A

C. Flood current

84
Q

To obtain the depth of water at high tide:

A. Read the predicted height directly from the tide tables
B. Add the predicted height of tide to the charted depth
C. Subtract the predicted height of tide from the charted depth
D. Add the predicted height of tide to mean sea level

A

B. Add the predicted height of tide to the charted depth

85
Q

The line indicating a boat’s intended direction of travel is called the:

A. Heading
B. Bearing
C. Course
D. Track

A

C. Course

86
Q

The angular difference between True North and Magnetic North is called:

A. Variation
B. Deviation
C. Course over Ground
D. Leeway

A

A. Variation

87
Q

Which factors are used to determine a dead reckoning (DR) position?

A. Heading, Current, Time
B. Heading, Boat Speed, Time
C. Track, Speed Over Ground, Time
D. Track, Boat Speed, Bearings

A

B. Heading, Boat Speed, Time

88
Q

Positions east and west of the Prime (Greenwich) Meridian are expressed in degrees of:

A. Latitude from 0–90
B. Latitude from 0–180
C. Longitude from 0–90
D. Longitude from 0–180

A

D. Longitude from 0–180

89
Q

To measure distance on a nautical chart, span dividers between two points of interest and then measure along the ____________________ scale, where 1 minute = 1 nautical mile.

A. Latitude
B. Longitude
C. Time
D. Speed

A

A. Latitude

90
Q

Water depths (soundings) on nautical charts may be expressed in which units?

A. Feet, Fathoms, Meters
B. Feet, Knots, Meters
C. Meters, MLLW, Seconds
D. Fathoms, Knots, Datum

A

A. Feet, Fathoms, Meters

91
Q

Which of these simultaneous data combinations is sufficient to yield a fix?

A. Dead reckoning position and a single Line of Position
B. Two intersecting Lines of Position
C. Dead reckoning position and single depth contour
D. Course and Speed Over Ground

A

B. Two intersecting Lines of Position

92
Q

Chart No. 1 is the NOAA/NGA publication that details _______ .

A. Locations of obstructions
B. Radio beacons and their frequencies
C. Chart symbols and their meanings
D. Locations of weather buoys

A

C. Chart symbols and their meanings

93
Q

Three charted Aids to Navigation (ATON) are at about the same distance from a sailboat travelling South. One lies North (N), one lies East (E), and one lies South Southwest (SSW) of the boat. Which ATON combination would provide the best two-bearing fix using a hand-bearing compass?

A. N and E
B. N and SSW
C. E and SSW
D. It doesn’t matter, all will produce lines of position of equal value

A

A. N and E

94
Q

A sailboat has a reliable knotmeter and a GPS. The GPS’ Speed Over Ground (SOG) is different from the knotmeter’s boat speed. Assuming no change in conditions, which speed would yield the more accurate Estimated Time Enroute (ETE) to a destination?

A. The knotmeter (boat speed)
B. The GPS SOG
C. The lesser of the two speeds
D. The greater of the two speeds

A

B. The GPS SOG

95
Q

Magnetic courses are read from the outer ring of the compass rose.

A. True
B. False

A

B. False

96
Q

Plot a course between: (A) RG Fl (2+1) R 6s (approx Lat 48° 45.3’ N, Lon 122° 43.5’ W) and (B) W Or C “DANGER REEF” (approx Lat 48° 45.8’ N, Lon 122° 52.0’ W). The magnetic course between (A) and (B) is 256°. You plan to travel at a speed of 4.0 knots.

Established on course immediately abeam (A) at 1512, what is your Estimated Time Enroute (ETE) between (A) and (B)?

A. 1 hr & 4 minutes
B. 43 minutes
C. 1 hr & 24 minutes
D. 0.7 hr

A

C. 1 hr & 24 minutes

97
Q

Plot a course between: (A) RG Fl (2+1) R 6s (approx Lat 48° 45.3’ N, Lon 122° 43.5’ W) and (B) W Or C “DANGER REEF” (approx Lat 48° 45.8’ N, Lon 122° 52.0’ W). The magnetic course between (A) and (B) is 256°. You plan to travel at a speed of 4.0 knots.

Due to unforeseen currents, you actually reach your waypoint (B) at 1704. What was your average Speed Over Ground (SOG) between (A) and (B)?

A. 3.9 knots
B. 3.5 knots
C. 3.0 knots
D. 2.6 knots

A

C. 3.0 knots

98
Q

Plot a course between: (A) RG Fl (2+1) R 6s (approx Lat 48° 45.3’ N, Lon 122° 43.5’ W) and (B) W Or C “DANGER REEF” (approx Lat 48° 45.8’ N, Lon 122° 52.0’ W). The magnetic course between (A) and (B) is 256°. You plan to travel at a speed of 4.0 knots.

After spending the night on anchor in Echo Bay, Sucia Island, favorable winds allow you to plan to proceed under sail from (B) W Or C “DANGER REEF” to (C) RG “B” Fl (2+1) R 6s BELL (approx Lat 48° 47.0’ N, Lon 122° 48.9’ W) and thence return direct to (A). What is the total distance from (B) to (C) to (A)?

A. 5.6 nm
B. 6.4 nm
C. 6.0 nm
D. 7.2 nm

A

B. 6.4 nm

99
Q

Plot a course between: (A) RG Fl (2+1) R 6s (approx Lat 48° 45.3’ N, Lon 122° 43.5’ W) and (B) W Or C “DANGER REEF” (approx Lat 48° 45.8’ N, Lon 122° 52.0’ W). The magnetic course between (A) and (B) is 256°. You plan to travel at a speed of 4.0 knots.

If your ETE along the route (B)-(C)-(A) is 1.6 hrs and you depart (B) at 1152, what will be your Estimated Time of Arrival (ETA) at (A)?

A. 1328
B. 1322
C. 1316
D. 1240

A

A. 1328

100
Q

Plot a course between: (A) RG Fl (2+1) R 6s (approx Lat 48° 45.3’ N, Lon 122° 43.5’ W) and (B) W Or C “DANGER REEF” (approx Lat 48° 45.8’ N, Lon 122° 52.0’ W). The magnetic course between (A) and (B) is 256°. You plan to travel at a speed of 4.0 knots.

At the same time that you passed abeam (B) “DANGER REEF” northbound at your planned 4.0 knots enroute to (C), a 550-foot tanker passed abeam the radio reporting point 8 (approx Lat 48° 48.4’ N, Lon 122° 56.3’ W) southbound at a speed of 18 knots on the traffic lane centerline. Which of the following statements is most correct?

A. No potential collision situation exists, as you will be well clear to the north prior to the approach of the tanker.
B. As a sailing vessel, the Navigation Rules say you are the stand-on vessel, and the approaching tanker must give way.
C. As the tanker sees you approaching on his starboard side, the Navigation Rules say you are the stand-on vessel, and the approaching tanker must give way.
D. As you are a sailing vessel, the Navigation Rules say that you shall not impede a vessel required to follow a traffic lane, and you must give way.

A

D. As you are a sailing vessel, the Navigation Rules say that you shall not impede a vessel required to follow a traffic lane, and you must give way.

Sailing (4 decks)

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