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Diagnostic Imaging COPY 515 > Arthritides > Flashcards

Arthritides Flashcards

1
Q

If there are symmetric erosions and soft tissue swelling affecting 1 joint, what arthritis is this?

A

Infection

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2
Q

If there are proximal,symmetric erosions and soft tissue swelling in more than one joint, with no bony proliferation. What type of arthritis is this?

A

RA

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3
Q

If there are distal, symmetric erosions and soft tissue swelling, with bony proliferations. What form of arthritis is this most likely?

A

AS

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4
Q

If the narrowing is asymmetric with osteophytes and sclerosis. What form of arthritis is?

A

Degenerative (typical OA)

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5
Q

If the narrowing is asymmetric with osteophytes and sclerosis with uneven distribution. What type of arthritis is this?

A

Atypical OA

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6
Q

What form of arthritis has the generalized age of onset from 0-20?

A

JRA

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7
Q

What form of arthritis has the generalized age of onset from 20-40?

A

Seronegatives, seropositive (inflammatory)

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8
Q

What form of arthritis has the generalized age of onset > 40?

A

Degenerative, DISH, Gout, CPPD

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9
Q

Degenerative arthritis most commonly affects what 3 weight bearing articulations?

A

Spine, hips, and knees

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10
Q

What are the symptoms of Degenerative arthritis?

A

Progressive, insidious onset of:

  • -aching, swelling, stiffness
  • -goes away with activity
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11
Q

What joints are affected with DJD of the hand?

A

DIPs and PIPs

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12
Q

Where are Heberden’s nodes located?

A

DIPs

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13
Q

Where are Bouchard’s nodes located?

A

PIPs

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14
Q

Where is DJD located in the wrist?

A

1st MCP joint

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15
Q

Where is OA located in the foot?

A

1st MTP joint

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16
Q

When does OA of the foot become hallux rigidus?

A

When symptoms present w/ pain and stiffness

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17
Q

What are 2 radiographic indicators of OA of the foot?

A

Increase in intermetatarsal angle

Enthesopathic changes

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18
Q

DJD of the shoulder is most common in what joint?

A

AC joint

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19
Q

If there is DJD in the glenohumeral joint, what should you suspect?

A

Suspicion of significant previous trauma or CPPD

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20
Q

What are 4 RAD indicators of shoulder DJD?

A
  • -Loss of joint space
  • -Sclerosis
  • -Osteophytes
  • -Small cysts
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21
Q

What would be 2 RAD indicators of Rotator Cuff Arthropathy?

A
  • -High riding humerus

- -Decreased joint space in superior aspect of glenohumeral joint

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22
Q

HADD most commonly involves what 2 joints?

A

Shoulder and hip

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23
Q

HADD most commonly affects what tendon?

A

Supraspinatus tendon

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24
Q

Which does HADD most commonly affect?

–Tendons or Bursa

A

Tendons

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25
Q

What compartment is most commonly affect in DJD of the knee?

A

Medial tibiofemoral

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26
Q

What is the characteristic RAD finding of knee DJD?

A

Asymmetric loss of joint space

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27
Q

Pelegrini-Steida Calcification often affects what joint?

A

Medial tibial collateral ligament

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28
Q

What are multiple calcified and/or ossified loose bodies w/ well-defined borders.

A

SOM

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29
Q

What is a slow growing benign, and locally invasive tumor/metaplasia of the synovium?

30
Q

What deformity is associated w/ PVNS?

A

“Apple core” deformity at femoral neck

31
Q

What are the 4 more common locations of PVNS?

A

Knee, hip, ankle, elbow

32
Q

If you suspect a patient has OA of hip, what are 5 indicators?

A
  • -Loss of joint space in superior compartment
  • -Osteophytes
  • -Subchondral cysts
  • -Sclerosis
  • -Buttressing of medial femoral neck
33
Q

What is the MC pathology associated w/ neurotrophic arthropathy?

34
Q

What are 6 visual indicators of neuropathic arthropathy?

A
  • -Distended joints
  • -Density increase
  • -Debris
  • -Dislocation
  • -Disorganization
  • -Destruction
35
Q

What arthritic pathology would indicate a complete bone resorption of the ends of affected bone?

A

Atrophic neurotrophic

36
Q

What is the radiographic indicator of an atrophic neurotrophic?

A

Licked candy cane appearance

37
Q

What are the impacted locations of the following degenerative diseases of the spine?

  • -DJD
  • -DDD
  • -Facet arthrosis
  • -Uncinate arthrosis
A
  • -DJD = synovial articulation
  • -DDD = IVD
  • -Facet arthrosis = facets
  • -Uncinate arthrosis = uncinates
38
Q

What are the 4 radiographic indicators of DDD?

A
  • -Decreased disc height
  • -Osteophyte formation
  • -Endplate sclerosis
  • -Vacuum
39
Q

What are the 2 categories of DDD?

A

–Spondylosis Deformans = outer annular fibers

–Intervertebral chondrosis = inner annular fibers

40
Q

Which category of DDD, produces large osteophytes w/ minimal loss of disc height?

A

Spondylosis deformans

41
Q

What DDD category, has a loss of disc height w/ severe endplate sclerosis?

A

Intervertebral chondrosis

42
Q

What is the radiolucent collection of nitrogen gas w/in annular fissures?

A

Knutson’s vacuum phenomenon

43
Q

An intercalary ossicle is a result of what?

A

Annulus degeneration

44
Q

This pathology has at least 3 contiguous vertebra w/ wedging of 5* or more, disc space narrowing, and endplate irregularity.

A

Scheuermann’s

45
Q

What are 3 indicators of cervical spine degeneration?

A

Height loss, osteophytes, sclerosis

46
Q

What is the most reliable sign of Cervical Spine Degeneration?

A

DDD, height loss

47
Q

If you suspect Cervical stenosis, what would the canal measurement be?

48
Q

Where is Uncinate arthrosis most commonly found?

A

Lower segments C5/C6

49
Q

What does uncinate arthrosis present as on lateral view?

A

Pseudofracture appearance

50
Q

How does Thoracic OA most commonly present?

A

Mostly anterior and right sided osteophytes w/ disc narrowing

51
Q

How does Lumbar OA generally present?

A

Non-uniform loss of joint space

52
Q

What populations are at risk for degenerative Spondyloslisthesis?

A
  • -4th Lumbar
  • -over 40
  • -female
53
Q

What condition is characterized by ligamentous ossification/hyperostosis of the ALL?

54
Q

What populations are at risk for DISH?

A

Males over 50

55
Q

DISH produces what 2 radiographic appearances?

A
  • -Flowing ossification along anterolateral aspect of multiple vertebral bodies
  • -Disc height preservation
56
Q

DISH involves what aspect of the cervicals and lumbars?

A
  • -Lower cervicals

- -Upper lumbars

57
Q

OPLL is most common in what area of the spine?

A

Cervical spine

58
Q

OPLL is most common w/ what population?

A

Japanese males

59
Q

What symptoms present w/ OPLL?

A

Myelopathy

60
Q

What is the most common complaint of patients w/ disc herniations?

61
Q

What is the most serious complication of IVD herniation?

A

Claudia equine syndrome

62
Q

What will be the symptomatology of the following cervical spine herniations?

  • -Midline herniation
  • -Lateral herniation
A

Midline = myelopathies

Lateral = nerve root below

63
Q

What will be the symptomatology of the following Lumbar spine herniations?

  • -Midline herniation
  • -Foraminal herniation
A

Midline = nerve root below

Foraminal = nerve root at same level

64
Q

What are the 4 types of disc herniations?

A

–Bulge

–Protrusion

–Extrusion

–Sequestration

65
Q

How would you describe a bulge herniation?

A

Annular fibers beyond edges of disc space

66
Q

How would you describe a protrusion herniation?

A

Incomplete disruption of annulus

67
Q

How would you describe a extrusion herniation?

A

Herniations; focal lesion with complete disruption of annulus

68
Q

How would you describe a sequestration herniation?

A

Disc tissue that has been displaced from disc space of origin

69
Q

What are the spinal canal measurements if stenosis is suspected in the cervicals or lumbars?

A

Cervicals < 12 mm

Lumbars < 15 mm

70
Q

A High Intensity Zone is an area of high signal intensity on ___-weighted MRI of the disc.

A

T2-weighted

71
Q

A High Intensity Zone usually reflects fissures/tears of what structure?

Diagnostic Imaging COPY 515 (6 decks)

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