Arrythmiass Flashcards

1
Q

What is arrhythmia?

A

A disturbance of normal rhythm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which node has the highest automaticity?

A

SA node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are subsidiary pacemakers?

A

Other pacemakers that take over when the SA node cannot generate impulses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the main difference between fast and slow response action potentials?

A

Fast response action potentials have rapid depolarization, while slow response action potentials have gradual depolarization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fill in the blank: Phase 0 in fast response action potential is characterized by _______.

A

rapid depolarization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fill in the blank: Class III anti-arrhythmic drugs delay _______ repolarization.

A

Phase 3.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the effect of Class I anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A

Slow Phase 0 depolarization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do Class II agents target?

A

Beta-blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the primary action of Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A

Calcium channel blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs based on Vaughan-Williams classification?

A

Class I, Class II, Class III, Class IV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

List the Class I anti-arrhythmic drugs.

A
  • Class IA: Procainamide, Quinidine
  • Class IB: Lidocaine, Mexiletine, Phenytoin
  • Class IC: Flecainide, Propafenone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Procainamide?

A

Blocks sodium channels and has Class III activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the adverse effects of Procainamide?

A
  • Hypotension
  • Lupus erythematosus-like syndrome
  • Nausea
  • Diarrhea
  • Rash
  • Fever
  • Agranulocytosis (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the primary use of Quinidine?

A

To treat ventricular and supraventricular tachyarrhythmias.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What adverse effects are associated with Quinidine?

A
  • QT prolongation
  • Tachycardia
  • Hypotension
  • Diarrhea
  • Cinchonism
  • Thrombocytopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the effect of Lidocaine on action potential duration?

A

Shortens action potential duration and decreases QT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False: Class IA drugs can have an anti-muscarinic effect.

A

True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Class II anti-arrhythmic agents?

A

Reduce slope of spontaneous Phase 4 depolarization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What effect do Class IV anti-arrhythmic drugs have on Phase 2?

A

Prolong Phase 2 repolarization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Fill in the blank: Class II anti-arrhythmic drugs primarily act on _______ nodes.

A

SA and AV.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the main consequence of using Class III drugs?

A

Prolonged refractory period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the effect of calcium channel blockers on conduction velocity?

A

Slows conduction velocity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does a ‘use-dependent’ blockade refer to?

A

The blockade of sodium channels that are active in highly active cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the metabolism route for Quinidine?

A

Hepatic metabolism by CYP3A4.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fill in the blank: The dominant mode of action of Procainamide is due to _______ and _______ channel block.

A

Na+ and K+.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a key characteristic of Class IB anti-arrhythmic drugs?

A

They have a weak effect on action potential duration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of Lidocaine?

A

Blocks sodium channels, affecting both open activated and inactivated states

Greater effect on ventricular cells due to longer action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the cardiac effects of Lidocaine?

A

Increases threshold for excitability, decreases automaticity, shortens Phase 3 repolarization, APD, ERP, and QT

Can prevent arrhythmias post-myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the preferred route of administration for Lidocaine?

A

Parenteral (IV) route

Oral route is avoided due to extensive first-pass metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List the common neurologic adverse effects of Lidocaine.

A
  • Paresthesia
  • Tremor
  • Nausea
  • Lightheadedness
  • Hearing disturbances
  • Slurred speech
  • Convulsions

These effects are more common in the elderly or during rapid IV administration

31
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Mexiletine?

A

Analogue of Lidocaine with similar mechanisms and anti-arrhythmic actions

Used primarily for ventricular arrhythmias

32
Q

What are the adverse effects of Phenytoin?

A
  • Acute: Nystagmus, diplopia, ataxia
  • Chronic: Gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism

Commonly used as an anti-epileptic drug with Class IB activity

33
Q

What distinguishes Class IC agents like Flecainide?

A

Potently blocks sodium channels, slows Phase 0 depolarization and conduction velocity, minimal effect on APD, ERP, and QT

Reduces automaticity by raising the threshold potential

34
Q

What is the major use of Propafenone?

A

Supraventricular arrhythmias

Has structural similarity to propranolol and includes beta-blocker activity

35
Q

What are the effects of Class II beta-blockers?

A

Block adrenergic effects on SA and AV nodes, reduce heart rate and contractility

More effective in arrhythmias due to sympathetic stimulation

36
Q

Which beta-blocker is most commonly used for treating arrhythmias?

A

Metoprolol

It is a selective beta-blocker

37
Q

What are the contraindications for beta-blockers?

A
  • Bronchospasm in respiratory diseases
  • Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome
  • SA nodal disease or AV block

Can precipitate arrhythmias

38
Q

What are the mechanisms of action for Amiodarone?

A
  • Potassium channel blocker
  • Sodium channel blocker (inactivated channels)
  • Adrenergic and calcium channel blockade

Leads to reduced SA node automaticity and marked ERP prolongation

39
Q

List the key advantages of Amiodarone.

A
  • Broad spectrum of actions
  • High efficacy
  • Low incidence of torsades de pointes despite QT prolongation

Accumulates in various tissues leading to unique side effects

40
Q

What are the common adverse effects of Dronedarone?

A
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Diarrhea
  • Liver failure (hepatotoxicity)

Benzofuran derivative of amiodarone with fewer adverse effects

41
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Dofetilide?

A

Selective Class III activity, pure K+ channel blocker

Prolongs ERP and QT interval; pro-arrhythmogenic properties require hospital initiation

42
Q

What distinguishes Ibutilide from Dofetilide?

A

Ibutilide has mixed Class III and IA actions

Indicated for chemical conversion of atrial flutter

43
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Sotalol?

A

Combination of beta-blocking and K+ channel blocking properties

Prolongs Phase 3 repolarization and ERP

44
Q

What are the main uses of Sotalol?

A

Treats atrial, supraventricular, and ventricular tachyarrhythmias

Effective on both SA/AV nodes and ventricular muscle

45
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Class IV calcium channel blockers?

A

Prolong Phase 2 repolarization and slow conduction

Also reduce slope of spontaneous Phase 4 depolarization in SA and AV nodes

46
Q

What are Class IV agents in cardiology?

A

Calcium channel blockers (CCBs)

47
Q

What is the primary effect of non-dihydropyridine CCBs?

A

They have Class IV anti-arrhythmic properties

48
Q

Which two drugs are examples of non-dihydropyridine CCBs?

A
  • Verapamil
  • Diltiazem
49
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Verapamil?

A

Blocks both activated and inactivated L-type calcium channels

50
Q

In which conditions are non-dihydropyridine CCBs more useful?

A

Atrial and supraventricular tachycardia

51
Q

How do CCBs affect Phase 2 of the cardiac action potential?

A

Prolong Phase 2 repolarization

52
Q

What effect do CCBs have on automaticity and heart rate?

A

Reduce automaticity and decrease heart rate

53
Q

What is the effect of CCBs on the effective refractory period (ERP)?

A

Increases the effective refractory period

54
Q

What is the metabolism pathway for Verapamil and Diltiazem?

A

Both are metabolized by CYP3A4

55
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with CCBs?

A
  • Reduced force of contraction
  • Heart failure
  • Constipation
  • Lassitude
  • Nervousness
  • Peripheral edema
56
Q

What are the contraindications for using CCBs?

A
  • SA nodal or AV nodal disease
  • Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
57
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Digoxin?

A

Enhances vagal tone at the AV node and inhibits Ca2+ influx

58
Q

What are the adverse effects of Digoxin?

A
  • Induces arrhythmias
  • Ectopic ventricular beats
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Yellow vision
59
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Adenosine?

A

Binds to A1 adenosine receptors, promoting K+ influx and inhibiting Ca2+ influx

60
Q

What is the duration of action of Adenosine?

A

Ultra-short acting, ~10-15 seconds

61
Q

What are the uses of Magnesium in cardiology?

A
  • Treatment of digitalis-induced arrhythmias
  • Treatment of Torsades de pointes
62
Q

What is the role of potassium in arrhythmias?

A

Alterations in serum potassium levels can cause arrhythmias

63
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Vernakalant?

A

Targets specific K+ channels in the atria, prolonging atrial refractoriness

64
Q

What are the side effects of Vernakalant?

A
  • Taste disturbance
  • Sneezing
  • Paraesthesia
65
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Atropine?

A

Non-selective muscarinic receptor antagonist that increases heart rate

66
Q

What are the drugs used in the management of bradycardia?

A
  • Atropine
  • Dopamine
  • Epinephrine
  • Glucagon
  • Isoproterenol
67
Q

What defines ectopic foci in cardiac physiology?

A

Abnormal impulse generation that can lead to arrhythmias

68
Q

What phases are part of the cardiac action potential?

A
  • Phase 0: Rapid depolarization
  • Phase 1: Early repolarization
  • Phase 2: Plateau phase
  • Phase 3: Rapid repolarization
  • Phase 4: Resting phase
69
Q

What is the primary action of Class III anti-arrhythmic agents?

A

Delay Phase 3 repolarization and prolong refractory period

70
Q

How do Class II agents affect cardiac function?

A

Reduce slope of spontaneous Phase 4 depolarization, reducing automaticity

71
Q

What is the effect of hypokalemia in cardiac function?

A

Increases the risk of triggered activity after depolarizations

72
Q

What does the PR interval represent in an ECG?

A

Time taken for atrial impulses to reach the ventricle

73
Q

What is the consequence of high calcium levels in cardiac cells?

A

Can lead to triggered activity due to delayed after depolarizations (DADs)