AQP Flashcards
Dry ice limit.
5700
Cat III mins
Alert Height 100ft
RVR 300ft/75m
Equipment:
3 Hydraulic systems
Autothrottles
Auto land on both PFD
On a CAT III approach, to continue below AH, what must be met.
No auto throttle faults, LAND 3 must be annunciated on the FMA. (GOM 5-155)
Where is the DOD Flight Information Publication (FLIP) DVD stored on the aircraft?
In the cabinets behind the supernumerary seating.
Can a flight be released to an airport without an available TAF?
Yes.
- METAR must indicate current weather conditions are at or above minimums, METAR history shows **REASONABLE TREND of weather conditions at or above the minimums required. **(one METAR showing above mins does not establish a reasonable trend)
- Must ensure a takeoff, approach and landing can be accomplished prior to issuance of the next regularly scheduled METAR report. (GOM 5-79)
The First Officer is PF and has yet to complete consolidation. ATIS is reporting the visibility as 1100 meters. What must be considered?
If the FO has less than 100 hours, the PIC must make the landing, 1100 meters is below 4000 RVR. (GOM 4-18)
PIC must also make all takeoffs and landings under the following:
All special Airports. Visibility is below 3/4 SM (1200 meters) or RVR is below 4000’ (1000 meters). Runway is contaminated with water, snow, ice or slush. Braking action less than good. Crosswind component exceeds 15 knots. Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport. Horse charter. PIC deems it to be prudent.
If the Director of Operations delegates the functions for initiating, continuing, diverting, and terminating flights to flight following personnel, does flight following also bear the responsibility of those functions?
The DO cannot delegate the responsibility.
A list of Flight Followers authorized to perform these delegated functions is contained in the Bulletins section of the GOM. (GOM 5-1)
What are the required documents in the trip envelope at the completion of a trip?
SHLLFF —CPPS LEG
Security search/DHL Aircraft Security Report (DHL-ASR) Hazmat (NOTOC) Logpage (pink and yellow) Loadsheet (W&B) Fuel Receipts (or other, not hotels) Flight Release and supporting documents( ATIS, CLNC, OCEANIC CLNC, R/R)
AND POSSIBLY:
Comat form Plotting chart (more than 725 NM beyond service volume of ground based nav aids) Permit to proceed SAFA (orginal and a copy)
Livestock form Event Log Government Bill of Lading (GOM 5-158)
Minimum required fuel calculations are based on what 4 factors? DAAR
Destination fuel to conduct one approach, and possible missed approach. Alternate. Additional fuel displayed as “EXTRA” by NAVBLUE. Reserve fuel. (GOM 5-83)
What minimum climb gradient must be maintained when conducting a departure procedure designed under TERPS criteria when no gradient is specified?
200 FPNM (GOM 6-33)
When determining that the aircraft gross weight is suitable for takeoff, which 3 weight limits must be considered?
Max Structural TOGW. Max Structural TOGW limited by takeoff performance. TOGW considering PLANNED fuel burn to permit a landing at, or below the maximum gross landing weight, limited by performance or structural. (GOM 5-112)
When is a new TLR required prior to departure?
TEMP TEMP WT WT QNH/MEL/CLUTTER/AI
Takeoff:
OAT is more than 10 degrees below POAT. OAT is greater than the MT for the takeofff runway. More than 10,000 lbs below the PTOW More than the PTOW PLUS weight for the takeoff runway. Actual QNH is more than .10’” (3.4hPa) below PQNH. Performance limiting MEL/CDL not shown in RMKS section. Clutter/ANTI-ICE not shown in the RMKS section. More than 12 hrs (AOM VOL I SP-29/30 and PERF-29)
Landing:
OAT is more than 10 degrees below POAT. OAT falls outside the OAT range listed in the normal landing section. When landing weight is greater than the highest landing weight shown in the landing distance section. When landing weight is greater than the normal section, once corrections are applied. Actual QNH is more than .10’” (3.4hPa) below PQNH. Performance limiting MEL/CDL not shown in RMKS section. Clutter not shown in the RMKS section. If the TLR is valid for takeoff, it is valid for landing. (AOM VOL I SP31/32 and PERF-29)
When requesting a “Live” calculation, what must be provided to flight following?
FRRATZ
Fuel RWY RWY condition ATIS TO CG ZFW (AOM VOL I PERF-21)
What does IC mean on the TAKEOFF REPORT LAYOUT? What does the N below it mean?
Improved Climb. N is for NO, if not used, Y is for YES if used for Planned Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (PMRTW).
If yes, V2 is increased to allow an increased 2nd segment climb for the PMRTW. (AOM VOL I PERF-20)
Your TLR has a notation “SLUSH-LEVEL 2” in the remarks section. What depth of slush has been planned by the flight follower?
More than 1/8” up to 1/4” (3 to 6 mm)
AOM VOL I PERF-11
After entering the Thrust Limit from Aerodata, there are dashed lines present on the Takeoff Page. What do you do?
Check the following entries in the FMC:
Zero Fuel Weight Flaps Thrust
Presence of dashes on the V-Speeds is an indication that the FMC cannot generate speeds based on the above items.
A performance solution is not possible, or Takeoff Runway not entered.
This must be resolved before flight. All performance entries must be stopped.
(AOM VOL I SP-31)
Who may perform the Exterior Safety check?
First Officer, or first crewmember to arrive at the aircraft. IRP for Standard or Double Crew.
If crews arrived separately, the first will conduct the exterior safety check, interior safety check, establish power, and conduct the preliminary preflight .
CLAAF
Chocks in place Landing gear door position APU control panel on the nose gear, check for APU FIRE, or Bottle discharge lights, unless running. APU exhaust area clear. Flight Controls- check position and condition. (AOM VOL I NP-10)
When is the exterior safety check accomplished?
Every flight before entering the aircraft to ascertain that no obviously unsafe condition exists.
(AOM VOL I NP-10)
What is the minimum amount of brake wear pin that can be visible when conducting the Exterior Inspection?
If the parking brake is set, the brake wear indicator must extend out of the guides.
( AOM VOL I NP-16/17
When conducting an exterior inspection, must a flashlight be carried during daylight hours?
YES
Use of an adequate flashlight, regardless of the time of the day, is essential for checking latch alignment marks on the lower lobe cargo doors. If any door, panel or cowling was observed not in the proper (flight) position during initial preflight, their position must be confirmed ready for flight prior to departure.
For DHL flight ONLY, the loadmaster will assume responsibility for accomplishing the final walk around to ensure all of the cargo doors are closed, secured, and no damage occurred during fueling or loading, or that may not have been visible during the initial walkaround.
Lower Lobe Cargo Doors: Verify that the latch alignment marks are visible through the viewports along the bottom of the lower lobe cargo doors. Confirm the door operating switch covers are closed and the vent doors are in the closed/flush position. Aft Bulk Cargo Door: Verify that the door is secured and flush with the fuselage. Main Cargo Door: Check the main cargo door is secured and flush with the fuselage. Confirm the door operating switch cover is closed and the vent doors are in the closed/flush position.
(AOM VOL I NP-37)
For DHL flights, who assumes responsibility for accomplishing the final walk- around?
Loadmaster
AOM VOL I NP-37
What are the Memory Items for ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND?
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) …………………………………. CUTOFF
DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE SHUTDOWN HAS OCCURED.
If FIRE indication persists after engine shutdown:
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ………………………………………………… Pull
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ……………………………………………. Rotate
After a momentary delay: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ……………………… Rotate (to other bottle)
x Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications.
What are the memory items for a multiple engine failure in flight?
Dual Eng Fail/Stall
Condition: Engine speed for both engines is below idle.
1 FUEL CONTROL switches (both) ……………. CUTOFF, then RUN
2 RAM AIR TURBINE switch ………… Push and hold for 1 second
You have arrived on stand. Parking brake is set, the left engine is shut down, and the right engine is running as you await the connection of ground power. Suddenly, the marshaller gives you the signal for a fire on the right engine. With no master fire warning illuminated, what recall items should be accomplished?
ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) …………………………………. CUTOFF
DO NOT PROCEED UNTIL ENGINE SHUTDOWN HAS OCCURED.
If FIRE indication persists after engine shutdown:
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ………………………………………………… Pull
Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ……………………………………………. Rotate
After a momentary delay: Engine Fire switch (affected engine) ……………………… Rotate (to other bottle)
x Discharge the second fire bottle regardless of fire indications.
QRH BC-1)
If an engine fire warning light is not illuminated, but a fire indication exists or a fire is reported in or near an engine, discharge both available fire bottles into the affected engine.
(FCTM 8-9)
A hung start occurs after starter cutout, as indicated by the engine failing to accelerate 90 seconds after fuel control switch placed to run. What recall item should be accomplished?
Aborted Engine Start L, R
Condition: On the ground, an aborted engine start is needed.
1 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ……………………… CUTOFF
An engine has failed in flight. N1 rotation and oil pressure are indicated. The EICAS message ENG FAIL L/R appears. What recall items should be accomplished?
There are no associated memory items for ENG FAIL L/R. Call for the ENG FAIL L/R checklist.
(QRH 7-8)
What are the Memory Items for EICAS message “ENG AUTOSTART L/R”?
ENG AUTOSTART L, R
Condition: During a ground start, one of these occurs: x Autostart did not start the engine x Fuel control switch is in RUN at low engine RPM with the autostart switch OFF
1 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) …………………….. CUTOFF
What are the Memory Items for the Engine Limit/Surge/Stall condition?
Condition: One or more of these occur:
x Engine indications are abnormal
x Engine indications are quickly nearing or show an ex-ceedance
x Abnormal engine noises are heard, possibly with air-frame vibration
x There is no response to thrust lever movement or the response is abnormal
x Flames in the engine inlet or exhaust are reported
1 A/T ARM switch (affected side) ………… Confirm ……….. CUTOFF
2 Thrust Lever (affected side) …………. Confirm ………… Retard until engine indications stay within limits or the thrust lever is at idle
Memory items for Aborted Engine Start?
Condition: On the ground, an aborted engine start is needed.
1 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ……………………… CUTOFF
What are the memory items for CABIN ALTITUDE?
Condition: Cabin altitude is excessive.
1 Don the oxygen masks.
2 Establish crew communications.
3 Check the cabin altitude and rate.
4 If the cabin altitude is uncontrollable:
` SUPRNMRY OXYGEN switch ……………….. Push to ON and hold for 1 second
Without delay, descend to the lowest safe altitude or 10,000 feet, whichever is higher.
To descend:
` Move the thrust levers to idle
` Extend the speedbrakes
` If structural integrity is in doubt, limit airspeed and avoid high maneuvering loads.
` Descend at Vmo/Mmo
What are the memory items for AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE?
Condition: The airspeed or Mach indications are suspected to be un-reliable. (Items which may indicate Airspeed Unreliable are listed in the Additional Information section.)
Objective: To identify a reliable airspeed indication, if possible, or to continue the flight using the Unreliable Airspeed table in the Performance Inflight QRH chapter.
1 Autopilot disengage switch ……………………………………….. Push
2 A/T ARM switch ……………………………………………………… OFF
3 F/D switches (both) …………………………………………………… OFF
4 Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
` Flaps Extended ……………………………….. 10° and 85% N1
` Flaps up ……………………………………………. 4° and 70% N1
What are the memory items for FIRE ENG L,R?
Condition: Fire is detected in the engine.
1 A/T ARM switch (affected side) ………………………. Confirm ……………………….. OFF
2 Thrust lever (affected side) ………………………. Confirm ………………………… Idle
3 FUEL CONTROL switch (affected side) ………………………. Confirm ………………….. CUTOFF
4 Engine fire switch (affected side) ………………………. Confirm ………………………. PULL
5 If the FIRE ENG message stays shown:
` Engine fire switch (affected side)…. Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second
If after 30 seconds, the FIRE ENG message stays shown:
` Engine fire switch (affected side)…. Rotate to the other stop and hold for 1 second
What are the memory items for ENG SVR DAMAGE/SEPARATION L/R?
Condition: One or more of these occur:
x Airframe vibrations with abnormal engine indications
x Engine separation
1 A/T ARM switch (affected side) ………………………. Confirm ……………………….. OFF
2 Thrust lever (affected side) ………………………. Confirm ………………………… Idle
3 FUEL CONTROL switches (affected side) ……………………… Confirm ………………….. CUTOFF
4 Engine fire switch (affected side) ……………………… Confirm ………………………… Pull
What are the memory items for STABILIZER?
Condition: One of these occurs:
x Stabilizer movement without a signal to trim
x The stabilizer is failed
1 STAB cutout switches (both) ……………………………………………. CUTOUT
2 Do not exceed the current airspeed.
What are the memory items for LOWER CARGO FIRE ON THE GROUND?
CARGO FIRE ARM switch (affected compartment) ……………………………. Push
CARGO FIRE DISCH switch ………………………. Push and hold for 1 second
What are the memory items for ENGINE FAILURE ON THE GROUND?
FUEL CONTROL switch (affected engine) …………………………………. CUTOFF
x Do not re-start the engine.
Who is responsible for notifying the FAA when a PIC utilizes his emergency authority?
The Director of Operations is responsible for submitting a written report (separate from the event log) to the FAA within 10 days after the flight is completed.
(GOM 5-2)
What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of urgency?
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
GOM 2-26, 8-5
What is the correct radio phrase to indicate a condition of distress?
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
GOM 8-5
What are some indications that you have encountered volcanic ash in flight?
Odor
Haze
Changing:
- Engine Indications
- Airspeed
- Pressurization
- Static Discharges
- Smoky or Acrid odor, may smell like electrical smoke, burned dust or sulfur.
- Haze, dust.
- Engine surging, torching from the tailpipe or flameouts. White glow can appear in inlets.
- Decrease or fluctuating indicated airspeed.
- St. Elmo’s fire, or glow
- Landing lights will cast sharp, distinct shadows.
(GOM 8-24) ︎︎︎ ︎︎︎︎︎︎︎
What must a person consider before using a Halon fire extinguisher in an enclosed area?︎︎︎︎ ︎︎︎︎︎
A PBE should be donned when in a confined space.
GOM 8-64
What is the time of useful consciousness at 35,000 feet without using supplemental oxygen?
30-60 seconds
30-60 seconds
TIME OF USEFUL CONSCIOUSNESS (TUC):
This is the amount of time in which a person is able to effectively or adequately perform flight duties with an insufficient supply of oxygen.
At altitudes below 30,000 feet the TUC may differ considerably from the time of total consciousness. Above 35,000 feet, the times may grow closer together and eventually coincide.
The average TUC for flying personnel without supplemental oxygen is:
The TUC is generally never less than 18 seconds because this is the shortest time required for oxygen-starved blood from the lungs to reach the brain and depress brain functions. Recovery after administering oxygen requires nearly the same length of time.
ALTITUDE TUC
40,000 feet 15 to 20 seconds 35,000 feet 30 to 60 seconds 30,000 feet 1 to 2 minutes 28,000 feet 2 ½ to 3 minutes 25,000 feet 3 to 5 minutes 22,000 feet 5 to 10 minutes 20,000 feet 30 minutes or more
What must be entered into the logbook following an overweight landing?
- Total weight at touchdown.
- Rate of descent.
- Notify maintenance control.
(GOM 8-34)
Should supernumerary oxygen be deployed for smoke in the cabin?
NO. Supernumeraries should be instructed to breathe air from the area near the cabin floor, where the smoke will be less dense. Majority of the air breathed through the mask is from the cabin, and could be heavily contaminated.
(GOM 8-47)
You have been assigned to a basic crew twice within a particular 30-day period. What is the maximum number of hours that you may fly in that 30- day period?
100 hours
FAR 121.503 (d) 121.525c)
To whom can the Director of Operations delegate his responsibility for initiation, operation, diversion and termination of a flight?
He can only delegate the “authority” for operational control to initiate, continuation, diversion and termination of a flight to the flight followers as listed on the bulletins of the GOM.
(GOM 3-9)
When operating outside of the United States, International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standard procedures apply, except where a country files a Statement of Differences with the ICAO. Where can these differences be found?
Jeppesen, Airway Manual for the region, Air Traffic Control/State Rules and Procedures
What are B-44 fuel requirements?
Fly and land at airport to which it was released,
10% of the time from R/R point to R/R airport,
Land at the destination airport,
Most distant alternate airport,
30 mins at holding speed, 1500’ under ISA
GOM (5-88)
What are B-43 fuel requirements?
Destination 10% of Class II
Most distant alternate
45 mins at normal cruising speed
(GOM 5-86)
May a flight be released under the rules for No Suitable Alternate if there is an alternate available within two hours that is unusable because of weather forecast?
NO. Kalitta Air does not utilize the fuel provision of FAR 121.645(c)
(GOM 5-87)
Under B43 and B44, what deviations from flight plan must be reported to flight following?
ETA exceeds 15 mins from planned ETA, or Cruise Altitude varies by 4000’ or more from planned cruise altitude, or Deviate more than 100 NM from planned route.
If any of the above conditions are met, the PIC or representative and flight follower shall jointly review the fuel requirements and fuel operations for the remainder of the flight. A diversion may be necessary.
(GOM 5-87)
When are you considered “established” on course?
RNAV- within 1 times the RNP for the segment being flown. (GOM 2-11)
ILS/VOR- 1/2 full scale deflection. (GOM 6-66)
NDB- +/- 5 degrees of the required bearing. (GOM 6-66)
Who is responsible for determining the entry requirements for a particular country?
PIC
GOM 6-3
Where can the entry requirements (required permits, customs and immigration procedures, etc.) for a particular host country be found?
Entry section of the appropriate airway manual. More detailed information may be obtained from OCC.
(GOM 6-3)
When do you need a permit to proceed?
Tech stop to refuel, crew change etc at a US airport without meeting the full inspection requirements. Minimum of 4 copies needed.
(GOM 5-63)
How must a flight crew determine the appropriate holding speeds for a given country?
Appropriate airway manual for the region, Air Traffic Control, State Rules and Procedures.
(GOM 5-45)
When operating outside the U.S., and cleared to a point with no routing specified, what action must be taken by the flight crew?
Specific phraseology indicating: “Cleared present position direct to ________”
(GOM 6-15)
When verifying routing on a flight plan consisting of Class II segments, what specific check is required in addition to the checks performed on all international flights?
- Class II segments, flight release coordinates agree with coordinates on Jepp/NAT track message.
- Check flight release times, distances and fuel for reasonableness by dividing the fuel burn by the flight time and verify the average fuel burn is reasonable.
- Check release winds to charted winds.
(GOM 6-30)
List three examples of observed or encountered phenomena requiring a special air report to ATS.
Pilots shall make Special Air Reports whenever any of the following phenomena are observed or occur:
- Moderate/Severe Turbulence
- Moderate/Severe Icing
- Severe mountain wave
- Thunderstorms with or without hail
- Heavy dust or sandstorm
- Volcanic ash cloud, pre-eruption activity, or volcanic eruption
(GOM 6-62)
When would you NOT use CMV (converted meteorological visibility)?
- Calculating Takeoff Minimums
- When reported RVR is available
- For other RVR minima less than 800 meters
(QRH AP-1)
The conversion is for “inflight” only. (GOM 5-76)
What does the term “NOSIG” mean when found in a METAR?
No significant change expected change expected to the reported conditions within the next 2 hours.
Can a flight be released based on a METAR?
Yes. When weather conditions forecast in a TAF prevent the release of a flight, but a METAR indicates current weather conditions are at or above minimums, a flight may be released provided the METAR history shows a reasonable trend of weather conditions at or above the minimums required.
One METAR reporting weather above minimums does not establish a “reasonable trend”.
All preparations must be accomplished to allow for a takeoff, approach and landing prior to the next normally scheduled METAR report.
(GOM 5-79)
You are unable to see the required visual cues at decision height on an approach. Are you obligated to proceed to your filed alternate?
NO. This is a requirement for meeting dispatch fuel requirements. Does not limit the PIC on his emergency authority.
(GOM 5)
You have used CPDLC to request a weather deviation and have yet to receive an ATC response. Based on analysis of the radar returns you elect to deviate 20 miles south of track. What do you do?
SAND (South Ascend, North, descend)
NAT:
Once beyond 5 NM of track, climb 300’.
All other areas:
Once beyond 10 NM of track, climb 300’.
Be at the assigned FL when within 5 or 10 NM of assigned route as appropriate, when deviation is completed.
(GOM 8-29)
You are unable to maintain your altitude while in oceanic airspace and cannot obtain a clearance for a lower altitude. What do you do?
NAT:
- Turn at least 30 degrees
- Offset 5 NM
- Reference TCAS
- Turn on lights
- SSR 7700
- Contact ATC (voice or CPDLC), advise deviation from clearance, and PAN PAN or MAYDAY
- 121.5 or backup of 123.45, and frequency in use, broadcast aircraft ID, nature of distress, intentions, position (ATS route or track code) and FL
- Descend below 290 and establish a 500’ vertical offset from those flight levels normally used until an ATC clearance can be obtained.
Other areas:
- Turn at least 45 degrees
- Offset 15 NM
- Reference TCAS
- Turn on lights
- Contact ATC (voice or CPDLC), advise deviation from clearance, and PAN PAN or MAYDAY
- 121.5 or backup of 123.45, and frequency in use, broadcast aircraft ID, nature of distress, intentions, position (ATS route or track code) and FL
- Descend below 290 and establish a 500’ vertical offset from those flight levels normally used until an ATC clearance can be obtained.
(GOM 8-26 to 8-28)
You are at your re-release point and you were unable to communicate with the company to coordinate your re-release when dispatched under B044, what do you do?
It is mandatory to proceed to the released airport after coordinating with ATC.
(GOM 5-24)
In the event a missed approach is initiated prior to arriving at the missed approach point, what is expected of the pilot in regards to vertical and lateral maneuvering?
A climb may be initiated, but a turn may not be commenced prior to the MAP.
(GOM 5-145)
Unless otherwise listed on the chart, the maximum speed for IFR turning departures is ____, with a minimum bank angle of ____°
290 knots, 15 degrees.
GOM 6-33
Whenever a clearance is received en-route during non-radar operations, what flight plan annotations must be made by the flight crew?
Write down the clearance, time and frequency on the master.
Cross out old waypoints, and enter the new ones.
(GOM 6-43)
Certain locations in the world have been identified by IATA as having less than reliable air traffic control services. Is there any additional procedure required?
Monitor 126.9 and broadcast:
- Position 2. Altitude 3. Direction/route of flight
Area of applicability is portions of Africa.
(GOM 6-19)
Describe the check required after passing a waypoint in Class II airspace. What is being determined by this check?
10 minutes after passing a waypoint, the position is plotted to determine the proper coordinates were entered into the FMC for the next waypoint and the aircraft is tracking to that position. This allows time to determine if a significant error was made when programming the FMC.
(GOM 6-30)
In several areas, such as over the Andes in South America, the MEAs for en-route segments may be well above the engine out capabilities of the particular aircraft and weight. Is Kalitta Air authorized to traverse such route? If so, are there any special provisions that must be met? Explain.
Yes. Must be able to maintain a NET flight path 1000’ above obstacles within 5 miles on each side of the route, or the aircraft can continue to an airport where a landing can be made while clearing all terrain by 2000’. (121.191)
You must be able to drift down beyond obstacles or have diversion routes available. Possibly turning around prior to terrain, or drifting down beyond the terrain.
(GOM 6-48)
While flying in less developed areas, and after receiving a “direct via” off airway routing, what altitude should be consulted on the enroute chart to ensure obstacle clearance requirements can be met? What type of terrain clearance does that altitude afford?
GRID MORA. Provides a minimum of 1000’ obstacle clearance or 2000’ in designated mountainous terrain.
(GOM 6-48)
What is the Engine Failure Procedure in VMC if an engine fails after V1?
BELOW 1000’ AFE:
Climb straight ahead to 1000’ AFE. Return to land visually or IMC procedure.
1000’ to 3000’ AFE:
Return to land visually or IMC procedure.
Above 3000’ AFE:
Proceed on course, as applicable.
(VOL I PERF-6)
Often the transition level is shown on Jeppesen Approach Charts as “by ATC”. Although the controller should announce the transition level in these circumstances, often they do not. What are some indicators that a flight has been cleared through a transition level?
- Cleared to maintain an altitude. 2. Given an altimeter setting when cleared through the transition level.
(GOM 6-23)
When conducting a course reversal procedure outside of the United States, what must be done to assure obstruction clearance?
Strict adherence to the directions and timing specified. Flown as depicted.
(GOM 6-65)
Generally speaking, to which altitudes should the altitude correction procedures of GOM Ch. 6 be applied? What altitudes should not be corrected?
Correct for:
Using the “all segments method” for:
- At 2. At or above 3. At or below
When the reported temperature is at or below the published temperature restriction on the plate for US airports and below -30C for International airports.
Pilots should not correct altimeter barometric reference settings.
(GOM 5-36)
According to GOM Ch. 6, what are some of the effects of operating at the high-than- normal true airspeeds associated with high-altitude airport operations?
- Higher true airspeed (about 20%)
- Greater turn radius
- Higher takeoff and landing speeds
- Hot brakes
- Missed approach climb limitations
- Possible “sink rate” from GPWS due to higher rates of descent
(GOM 6-25)
What is the minimum fuel temperature and what should be done if the fuel temperature decreases below the limit?
Not less than -40, or 3 degrees above the fuel freeze point, whichever is higher. -37 for JET A (AOM VOL I L-6)
Increase speed, Change altitude, or deviate to a warmer air mass, or all 3 to achieve a TAT equal to or higher than the fuel temp limit.
How do you identify the Fuel Freeze point for the type of fuel being used?
Fuel temperature limits table in the limitations section of the AOM.
(AOM VOL I L-8)
Describe the ICAO ground-handling signal for a brake fire.
Rapid horizontal figure 8 motion with either arm pointing at the source of the fire.
(GOM 6)
If the SELCAL does not test on initial contact, what steps shall the flight crew take prior to initiating a constant listening watch?
- Verify proper SECAL code
- Verify transmit selector set to HF 1 or 2
- Increase the gain to max
- Request a new test
(GOM 6)
In regard to communicating with controllers outside of the U.S., what four recommendations should be used by crew members in order to avoid miscommunications?
- Speak slowly and clearly
- Make request brief and specific
- Use ICAO phraseology
- Listen to the complete transmission 5. Use higher frequencies when the sun is higher and vice versa.
(GOM 6-26)
After receipt of a “Conditional Clearance” the PM should?
- Print the uplink and place where both pilots can see it until the clearance has been complied with.
- Leave the uplink page displayed until the clearance has been complied with.
What is the correct response to a “Cleared Route Clearance” uplink?
- Send “standby” downlink message.
- Print the uplink message
- After a review of the message, accept or reject the clearance and load the FMC if accepted.
Except on the North Atlantic, what is required at the ASTU boundary when using ADS-C?
Manually send one ATC position report at the boundary to initiate ADC-C services.
Under what condition would you select ADS OFF?
Only if ATC requests to do so
GOM 5-33
When reporting by ADS-C only, can flight crews remove non-compulsory ATC waypoints?
NO
What does ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependant Surveillance-Broadcast
How do you turn ADS-B off?
Select the transponder to SDBY
What must supernumeraries be briefed on, and who must brief them?
- Smoking
- Seat belt use
- Passenger signs
- Seat backs upright for takeoff and landing
- Portable electronic devices
- Emergency procedures
- Sterile cockpit
- Oxygen use
- Carry on items and equipment
Captain is responsible to brief prior to taxi.
(GOM 5-16)
When does automatic operation of the Emergency Lights occur?
Automatic operation occurs if *DC power fails or is turned off when the system is armed. The emergency lighting system can also be controlled by the EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch at door 1L.
When the EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch in the flight deck is armed, and the door mode select lever is in the armed position, moving the door handle to the open position will cause the exterior fuselage light and the interior emergency lights at that door to illuminate.
*L/R Main DC busses fail. 15 mins.
(AOM VOL II 1-42)
What does the EICAS message CREW OXYGEN LOW mean?
Crew oxygen pressure is low.
QRH 1-1
What types of fire is the Halon Fire Extinguisher best used?
Flammable liquids and electrical fires.
GOM 8-64
How many ELT are on board and where are they located?
2 ADT 406S. Transmit on 406.028, located in the supernumerary area in the stowage box forward of 1R.
Triggered manually, or by sense of water.
(AOM VOL II 1-45)
Rounded up to the nearest foot or meter, what is the width and length of the B777F?
W: 213 L: 207
Width: 212’7” (64.9M) Length: 206’6” (63.73M)
(AOM VOL II 1-1)
Rounded up to the nearest foot or meter, what is the minimum width of pavement required for a 180° turn?
158’
157’4” (48M)
(AOM VOL II 1-2)
If a Cargo Heat Bulk EICAS message displays after dispatch, what would you do?
There is no Cargo Heat Bulk EICAS. If it is CARGO HEAT AFT EICAS message, verify the temperature selector is not OFF. Beyond that, there is no crew action required.
(QRH 2-11)
What paper manuals are required on board the aircraft?
- DOT Emergency Response Guidebook
- ICAO Emergency Response for DG
- MEL/CDL/APP-A
- QRH
(GOM 5-57)
Describe the passenger entry door flight lock?
The flight lock automatically engages at speeds greater than 80 kts.
- Allows limited travel of the handle to open the vent panel.
- Prevents the door from opening.
- Flight lock releases when below 80 kts.
(AOM VOL II 1-73)
How is Maximum Range Cruise speed selected?
Enter a cost index of zero.
AOM VOL II 11-27
What is LRC in relation to Maximum Range Cruise?
LRC is the speed to maximize range. (AOM VOL II 11-39) Maximum Range Cruise is the minimum fuel speed. (AOM VOL II 11-27)
How do you correct an overspeed in flight if the Autothrottle system is unable to react quickly enough?
Partially deploy the speed brakes slowly until below VMO/MMO, then retract them slowly.
(FCTM 8-25)
What is the correct adjustment to approach speed when the autothrottle is not in use.
1/2 steady headwind component + full gust above the steady wind to the reference speed. Should not exceed VREF + 15 kts.
(FCTM 1-12)
What is the severe turbulence penetration speed at FL260?
280kts or .82, whichever is lower at 25,000 and above. Must maintain a minimum speed of 15 kts above the minimum maneuvering speed at all attitudes when airspeed is below .82.
270 kts below 25,000.
(AOM VOL I L-2)
What are the Dimensions of the B777-300ER?
Width: 212’7” (64.8M)
Length: 242’4” (73.86M)
Height: 61’10” (18.85M)
(Boeing AOM VOL II 1.10.4)
What are the dimensions of the B-777F?
Width: 212’7” (64.8M)
Length: 209’1” (63.73M)
Height: 62’4” (18.99M)
(AOM VOL II 1-1)
What is the minimum runway needed for a 180° turn?
157’4” (48M)
AOM VOL II 1-2
Do not attempt a turn within how many feet from wing tip and nose?
Wing tip: 15’ (4.6M)
Nose: 55’ (16.8M)
(AOM VOL II 1-2)
There is an emergency light switch by door 1L. In what position does the cockpit emergency light switch have to be for this switch to work?
ARMED.
AOM VOL II 1-42
When will masks deploy automatically?
The supernumerary masks will drop at a cabin altitude exceeds approximately 13,500’.
(AOM VOL II 1-44)
How do you restore normal communications when the mask is removed?
- Close the left oxygen panel door, and
- Pushing and releasing the TEST/RESET switch.
This shuts off the oxygen to the mask. Flow can be restored by opening the left door again.
(AOM VOL II 1-44)
With switch in AUTO, when will SEAT BELTS signs illuminate?
- Gear not up and locked, or
- Flap lever not up, or
- Airplane altitude below 10,000’, or
- Supernumerary Oxygen on.
(AOM VOL II 1-42)
What lighting is controlled by the Master Brightness control?
Panel and display lights:
- PFD’S
- MFD’S
- EICAS
- CDU’S
- Clocks
- Standby Instruments
- Standby compass
- Digital displays
- Overhead panel
- Glareshield panel
- Forward panels (left, center and right)
- Aisle stand panels (forward and aft)
(AOM VOL II 1-41)
On the ECL, what is a “Closed Loop” item?
Closed loop items are continuously monitored. Automatically sensed and turns green, moves down to the next incomplete items on the checklist.
(AOM VOL II 10-111)
Which checklist items have priority?
On the ground, with both fuel control switches to CUTOFF, and both engine start selectors in NORM, the priority is:
- Checklists for EICAS warning messages
- Normal checklists (incomplete or not yet opened)
On the ground with on or both fuel control switches in RUN, one or both engine start selectors in start, or in the air, the priority is:
- Checklists for any EICAS alert messages that have icons.
- Incomplete unannunciated checklists.
- Normal checklists.
(AOM VOL II 10-115)
What normal checklist would follow a G/A?
Shutdown checklist.
AOM VOL II 10-115
A Closed loop item is not responding. How can this checklist be completed?
Item override.
If the action has been done, but the closed-loop sensing does not show the action item complete, the crew can override the action item.
Conditional line items (open or closed) cannot be overridden. Action items indented below a conditional line item can be overridden.
(AOM VOL II 10-119)
How can the EFIS Displays be controlled after an EFIC control panel failure?
If an EFIS control panel fails, the displays can be controlled through the related CDU. This CDU capability is available at all times, but inhibits inputs from the respective EFIS control panel.
(AOM VOL II 10-56)
How many CDU’s can be used for DSP control at a time?
ONE
Display select panel control is also available through any CDU. This capability is available at all times. Once display select panel control is selected on one CDU, it cannot be selected on the other two CDUs.
(AOM VOL II 10-56)
When is selection of the inboard MFD no longer available?
If an outboard display unit fails, the PFD moves to the inboard display unit. The inboard display selector and the display select panel no longer have any control over that inboard display unit.
(AOM VOL II 10-59)
Which synoptic displays can be compacted is EICAS is on an inboard MFD?
ENG, FUEL and AIR displays only.
AOM VOL II 10-33
When is the DSPL CTRL Switch used?
If automatic selection of display channels for outboard and inboard pairs does not occur. Pushing the switch will display ALTN, and an alternate display channel is selected.
If there is an undetected source failure (a display is missing or parts of a display appear faulty), the non– normal (ALTN or CDU) position provides the capability for manual selection of PFD and ND sources.
Undetected display source failures, such as missing/faulty display information or intermittent display blanking, may not result in automatic switching. The CDU position of the NAV switch or the ALTN position of the DSPL CTRL or AIR DATA/ATT switches provide the capability to manually select PFD and ND sources.
A center display control source switch is provided for the center displays.
(AOM VOL II 10-57)
What is the implication of STATUS Messages?
Status messages indicate equipment faults requiring MEL reference for dispatch.
(AOM VOL II 15-18)
Can COMM messages be cancelled?
NO
EICAS communications messages are displayed in white below EICAS alert messages. Communication messages can not be cancelled by pushing the CANC/RCL switch. They remain displayed until crew action is initiated.
There are 3 levels of communication alerts: High (not used), Medium and Low.
- MEDIUM
- LOW
(AOM VOL II 15-20, Boeing CBT)
Where are EICAS MEMO Messages displayed?
They are a reminder of selected state of controls or systems cannot be canceled by pushing the CANC/RCL switch.
EICAS alert messages have display priority over memo messages; some or all memo messages not displayed on current EICAS message page if insufficient message lines are available below alert messages.
MEMO messages are displayed below communication alerts.
(AOM VOL II 15-2)
How are messages prioritized?
WARNING
CAUTION
ADVISORY (Indented one character)
- COMMUNICATION ALERT (MEDIUM)
- COMMUNICATION ALERT (LOW)
MEMO
The most recent EICAS alert message is displayed at the top of its priority group and all messages move down one display line. If a message is no longer displayed because the respective system non-normal condition no longer exists, all messages previously displayed move up one display line.
(AOM VOL II 15-21)
When should you use M/D High Flow Mode?
High flow mode is intended for carrying live animals or perishable cargo. During High flow mode, all six shut-off valves are open.
(AOM VOL II 2-15)
What additional fuel burn should you expect as a result of High Flow Mode?
In High Flow mode the cruise fuel burn increase is expected to be an additional 0.2% to 0.5%.
(AOM VOL II 2-15)
What does PACK MODE Left mean?
The pack is in the standby cooling mode.
For certain internal malfunctions, pack control automatically uses standby cooling mode as a backup to normal mode. In standby cooling mode, the EICAS advisory message PACK MODE (L, R) is displayed, and STBY COOLING is displayed in amber on the AIR synoptic.
If one pack is in standby cooling and the other pack is operating normally, the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures when ambient conditions do not permit standby cooling. The pack restarts automatically when altitude and outside air temperatures are suitable for standby cooling.
If both packs are in standby cooling mode, or if one pack is inoperative and the other pack is in standby cooling mode, the packs or pack operates continuously to maintain cabin pressurization, regardless of altitude or outside air temperature.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
What is the function of the ALTN VENT switch?
The alternate ventilation system provides air flow into the flight deck and supernumerary cabin when both air conditioning packs are inoperative.
If the airplane is not pressurized normally and the ALTN VENT switch is ON, air is drawn from the aft outflow valve and provided to the flight deck and supernumerary cabin.
When the airplane is pressurized normally and the ALTN VENT switch is ON, there is no air flow through the alternate ventilation system.
(AOM VOL II 2-14)
At what altitude is the APU bleed available?
Bleed air is available at or below 22,000 feet.
AOM VOL II 7-34
What determines the PACK outlet temperature?
The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature controls the pack outlet temperature.
If the FLT DECK TEMP or MAIN DECK CARGO TEMP selector setting is unavailable to the pack temperature controller, the pack outlet temperature is regulated to achieve either the last temperature set or an average flight deck temperature of 75°F (24°C).
(AOM VOL II 2-14)
What does the “OFF” light represent in the PACK switch?
OFF illuminated (amber) – Pack flow control valve is closed. The valve is commanded closed and the OFF light is illuminated when:
- Pack valve is failed closed, or
- A pack or compressor outlet high temperature has occurred, or
- Bleed air pressure is inadequate, or
- R PACK valve is closed during APU to Pack Takeoff procedure, or
- PACK switch is pushed off.
(AOM VOL II 2-2)
What has happened when the EQUIP COOLING switch shows OVRD?
OVRD (override) illuminated (amber) – equipment cooling override valve is open. The override valve opens and the equipment cooling system configures to override mode when:
- Both equipment cooling supply fans are failed, or
- Smoke is detected in the equipment cooling system, or
- Low air flow in flight
- EQUIPMENT COOLING switch is off, or
- CARGO FIRE ARM FWD/AFT switch is in ARMED 6. Standby power operation
(AOM VOL II 2-1)
What is the external indication that the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative?
On the ground, the EICAS advisory message EQUIP COOLING is displayed and the ground crew call horn in the NOSE wheel well sounds if the forward equipment cooling system is inoperative.
(AOM VOL II 2-18)
What does “FAULT” represent on the TRIM AIR Switch?
FAULT illuminated (amber) – 1. Trim air valve is failed closed, or 2. Trim air valve is commanded closed because a zone supply duct overheat has occurred, or 3. TRIM AIR switch is off.
(AOM VOL II 2-2)
What occurred if the “CLOSED” light illuminated in the ISLN Switches?
CLOSED illuminated (amber) –
- Valve is closed because a duct leak or bleed loss has occurred, or 2. Valve is failed closed, or 3. Switch is off
(AOM VOL II 2-7)
“OFF” illuminated in the APU Bleed switch means?
- Closed because a duct leak
- Valve failed closed
- Switch is off
- APU fire switch is pulled out
(AOM VOL II 2-7)
“OFF” illuminated in the ENG Bleed switch means?
The engine bleed valve is closed.
The engine bleed valve is commanded closed and the OFF light is illuminated when:
- Engine not running, or
- Bleed overheat, overpressure, bleed control system failure, or
- Valve failed closed, or
- The L ENG bleed valve is closed during APU to pack takeoff, or
- The ENG fire switch is pulled out, or
- The switch is off.
(AOM VOL II 2-7)
Up to what altitude is APU bleed air available?
22,000’
Electrical power is available throughout the airplane operating envelope. Bleed air is available at or below 22,000 feet.
(AOM VOL II 7-34)
What does the Air Conditioning Reset (AIR COND RESET) Switch do?
- Attempts to reset any closed pack valve flow control valve or trim air valve held closed because an overheat, control failure, or valve failure has occurred.
- Attempts to reset a failed recirculation fan
- Resets fault protection
Pack control, fault detection, and overheat protection are all automatic. If an overheat or other significant pack fault is detected, the pack shuts down automatically. An attempt to restore pack operation may be made by pressing the AIR COND RESET switch.
(AOM VOL II 2-2)
How would you recognize when the packs are in the Standby Cooling Mode?
In standby cooling mode, the EICAS advisory message PACK MODE (L, R) is displayed, and STBY COOLING is displayed in amber on the AIR synoptic.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
How is PACK control achieved after a failure of the PACK controller?
Each pack is controlled by two redundant channels in one of two separate controllers. If one channel fails in a controller, control of the respective pack is continued automatically by the redundant channel in that controller.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
How is cooling achieved during standby cooling mode?
The remaining pack, or
If both packs are in standby cooling mode, or if one pack is inoperative and the other pack is in standby cooling mode, the packs or pack operates continuously to maintain cabin pressurization, regardless of altitude or outside air temperature.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
What would cause a single pack in STBY mode to shut down?
If one pack is in standby cooling and the other pack is operating normally, the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures when ambient conditions do not permit standby cooling. The pack restarts automatically when altitude and outside air temperatures are suitable for standby cooling.
(AOM VOL II 2-13)
What controls the PACK outlet temp?
The temperature zone requiring the coolest temperature controls the pack outlet temperature.
(AOM VOL II 2-14)
What is the default temp if control is lost?
If the FLT DECK TEMP or MAIN DECK CARGO TEMP selector setting is unavailable to the pack temperature controller, the pack outlet temperature is regulated to achieve either the last temperature set or an average flight deck temperature of 75°F (24°C).
(AOM VOL II 2-14)
Which two cargo compartments are heated with bleed air?
MAIN DECK, LWR AFT/BULK
AOM VOL II 2-15/2-16
When are the engine bleed valves automatically closed?
- Source loss
- Overtemperature/overpressure
- Bleed duct leak
- Engine fire switch is pulled
- When a ground cart is supplying air
(AOM VOL II 2-22)
What air is used for EAI?
The engine anti-icing valves are opened by engine bleed air pressure. When an engine anti-icing valve is open, EAI is displayed on the primary EICAS display.
(AOM VOL II 3-4)
Without accurate FMC cruise altitude data, what is the assumed cruise altitude?
If cruise altitude is unavailable from the FMC in AUTO, the cabin altitude controllers assume a cruise altitude of 39,000 feet.
(AOM VOL II 2-19)
What is the max cabin altitude?
In cabin altitude controller cruise mode, maximum cabin altitude is 8,000 feet. When the takeoff field elevation is higher than 8,000 feet, the cabin descends to the cabin cruise altitude while the airplane is climBing.
When the destination airport elevation is greater than 8,000 feet, cabin altitude controller cruise mode maintains a cabin altitude of 8,000 feet.
The cabin altitude limiter closes both outflow valves if cabin altitude exceeds 15,000 feet.
(AOM VOL II 2-19)
Where does the landing altitude barometric pressure correction come from?
The captain’s altimeter setting provides landing altitude barometric pressure correction.
Landing elevation limits are 1,000 feet below sea level to 14,000 feet above sea level.
(AOM VOL II 2-19)
What two manual operations will provide pressurization data on EICAS
- Manually operating the outflow valves.
- Pulling out the LANDING ALTITUDE selector.
(AOM VOL II 2-20)
When would the ON BAT light illuminate?
WHEN IT IS BEING POWERED BY THE HOT BATTERY BUS
If electrical power is subsequently removed from the airplane and the Battery switch is switched OFF, the hot battery bus continues to supply electrical power to the ADIRU.
The ON BAT light illuminates, and the horn in the landing gear wheel well sounds to alert maintenance personnel the ADIRU is on battery power.
The ON BAT light illuminates when the ADIRU switch is selected ON and ground power or primary power is subsequently removed or fails (battery power only remains).
Can only be turned off on the ground, and GS less than 30 kts.
(AOM VOL II 11-7)
(AOM VOL II 11-13)
What does the “OFF” light represent in the ADIRU Switch?
Speed is less than 30 kts, and the ADIRU switch has been selected off.
(AOM VOL II 11-7)
What kind of information does the ADIRU provide?
- Primary flight data
- Inertial Reference
- Air Data
(AOM VOL II 11-13)
What PFD or ND flags might appear with an ADIRU failure or malfunction?
HDG (after 3 mins), LNAV, VNAV, LOC, TO/GA, GS, FPA, TRK HOLD/SEL
NO WIND ARROW, ND to TRACK UP.
More items are lost as listed in the QRH 11-5 to 11-6.
(AOM VOL II 11-14)
How is alignment achieved?
Airplane latitude/longitude position must be entered on the CDU POS INIT page. The airplane should not move until alignment is complete.
On initial power up the ADIRU enters align mode.
A position update is recommended if the total time in the navigation mode is expected to exceed 24 hours.
(AOM VOL II 11-13)
If the entered position is not within 6NM of the FMC origin airport position, the scratchpad message INERTIAL/ORIGIN DISAGREE displays.
(AOM VOL II 11-81)
How long does ADIRU alignment take?
6-15 minutes.
Depends on latitude.
6 minutes at the equator, 10 minutes on average.
(AOM VOL I SP-27)
Is the ADIRU required for GPS navigation?
NO
If the ADIRU becomes inoperative during flight, the EICAS displays the message NAV ADIRU INERTIAL and the FMC uses only GPS data to navigate.
(AOM VOL II 11-11)
What bus is required to turn on the ADIRU?
HOT BATTERY BUS (BATTERY BUS)
AOM VOL II 11-13
When can the ADIRU switch be used to turn off the ADIRU?
On the ground, speed less than 30 kts.
AOM VOL II 11-7
What will provide pilots air data after failure of the ADIRU
SAARU
AOM VOL II 11-14
What can the SAARU supply after an ADIRU failure?
- ATTITUDE
- HEADING
- AIR DATA
(AOM VOL II 11-14)
How long does the SAARU supply backup heading for?
3 MINS
AOM VOL II 11-14
When selected to AUTO will the Engine Anti-Ice work automatically in the air or on the ground?
In flight, when an ENGINE ANTI–ICE selector is in AUTO and engine icing conditions exist, the respective engine anti-icing valve is commanded open.
(AOM VOL II 3-4)
Is the aircraft certified for flight in icing conditions with Wing Anti-Ice inoperative?
NO.
(MEL 30-11-1) Known or forecasted icing conditions not allowed.
The airplane is capable of continued safe flight and landing in icing conditions in the event of an in-flight failure of the wing anti-ice system.
(AOM VOL I SP-41)
When is an engine static run up required prior to takeoff in icing conditions?
OAT is 3 degrees and below
50% N1 for approximately 1 second, at intervals no greater than 60 mins.
Ensure engine vibration indications are below 4 units before the start of the takeoff roll.
(AOM VOL I SP-37)
Is takeoff allowed on a contaminated runway with reduced thrust using assumed temperature method?
NO
AOM VOL I SP-35
