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PHRM 100 – APPP > APPP 24: Anatomy and Physiology of the Musculoskeletal System > Flashcards

APPP 24: Anatomy and Physiology of the Musculoskeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 2 main functions of the MSK system?

A
  • stability: shape, support, and protect
  • motility: movements
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2
Q

What are the 2 additional functions of the MSK system?

A
  • bone: blood production
  • storage of nutrients: minerals (calcium, phosphorous), glycogen (carbohydrates), and fat
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3
Q

What are the different types of bones? (5)

A
  • long
  • short
  • flat
  • irregular
  • sesamoid
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4
Q

What are the 5 functions of bones?

A
  • provide shape/structure to support soft tissues
  • protection (skull protects brain, ribs protect heart and lungs)
  • levers for muscle to exert force against
  • storage for calcium (99%), phosphorous (75%), and fat (yellow marrow)
  • sites of blood cell production (hematopoiesis in red marrow)
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5
Q

What is bone made of?

A

specialized connective tissue (mostly calcified, but living and growing)

  • extracellular bone matrix
  • three major cell types
  • also contains fibroblasts, nerves, blood and lymphatic vessels in mesenchymal regions
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6
Q

What are the 2 components of the extracellular bone matrix?

A
  • organic collagen (90%) and non-collagenous proteins (ie. proteoglycans 10%)
  • non-organic calcified extracellular material hydroxyapatite (calcium phosphate and a little calcium carbonate) – makes bone hard
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7
Q

What are the 3 major cell types of the bone?

A
  • osteocytes
  • osteoblasts
  • osteoclasts
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8
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

mature bone cells

  • contribute and maintain bone mass
  • cannot form new bone
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9
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

growing cells

  • synthesize and secrete osteoid organic components of the matrix and differentiate to osteocytes
  • generate new bone
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10
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

monocyte-derived multinucleated cells responsible for bone resorption and remodeling

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11
Q

What is the epiphysis?

A

end part of a long bone, initially growing separately from the central bone

  • bone grows from here
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12
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

shaft or central part

  • not growing
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13
Q

What is the periosteum?

A
  • fibrous covering that contains blood and lymphatic vessels, nerves
  • inner layer contains osteoblasts that form bone
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14
Q

What is hyaline cartilage (or articular cartilage)?

A

where joint forms

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15
Q

What is compact bone?

A

calcified bone layer

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16
Q

What is spongy (or cancellous) bone?

A

contains red marrow (blood cells)

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17
Q

What is the marrow cavity?

A

contains yellow marrow

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18
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

osteoclast layer in marrow cavity

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19
Q

What are osteons?

A

functional units of bone

  • cylindrical
  • concentric layers of bone called lamellae
  • central has blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves pass
  • osteocytes sit between small spaces around a central canal (lacunae)
  • canaliculi are microscopic canals connecting osteocytes?
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20
Q

What does bone growth and remodeling involve?

A

both continuous generation of new bone and continuous resorption of bone tissue

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21
Q

What is bone remodeling needed for?

A
  • maintain bone shape, while increasing its mass
  • deal with changes, stresses, and repairs
  • release of calcium in systemic circulation, as bone serves as a calcium storage
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22
Q

Describe the steps of bone remodeling.

A
  • resting bone
  • bone resorption by osteoclasts
  • bone resorption by mononuclear phagocytes
  • recruitment of osteoblast precursors
  • secretion of new matrix (brownish shading) by osteoblasts
  • continued secretion of matrix, with initiation of calcification
  • completion of mineralization of new matrix
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23
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

loss of old bone, creation of new bone does not keep

  • excessive loss of bone structure
  • natural loss of calcium from bones over time result in more fragile bones
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24
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A
  • sex: women > men
  • age: older > younger (over 40)
  • race: greater risk in white or Asian descent
  • family history
  • body frame size: greater risk in small body frames
  • hormone levels: lowered sex hormone, high thyroid
  • dietary factors: low calcium intake
  • medical conditions
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25
Q

What is cartilage?

A

tough, durable connective tissue

  • acts as cushion with mechanical and protective roles within the adult skeleton (joints) and other soft tissues such as lung, nose, ear, etc.
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26
Q

What are the 3 major forms of cartilage?

A
  • hyaline (glassy) cartilage – most common
  • elastic cartilage
  • fibrocartilage
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27
Q

Describe the structure and components of cartilage.

A
  • chondrocytes: produce collagen and proteoglycans (small % of mass)
  • extracellular matrix: collagen and abundant proteoglycans, which can bind a large amount of water
  • lack blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves
  • surrounded by perichondrium, which is provided with vessels
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28
Q

Describe the repair or replacement of injured cartilage.

A

very slow and ineffective, due in part to the tissue’s avascularity and low metabolic rate

29
Q

What are joints?

A

where bones meet/articulate

  • allows some bending/movements for bones
30
Q

What are the 2 functional types of joints?

A
  • synarthroses
  • diarthroses or synovial joints
31
Q

What are synarthroses joints?

A

no/very limited movement joints

  • no joint cavity
  • found in skull, invertebral discs
  • collagen loss or other degenerative changes can lead to a slipped disc
32
Q

What are diarthroses or synovial joints?

A
  • have joint cavity
  • found between most bone-to-bone contacts (ie. knee, elbow, knucles, etc.)
33
Q

What are synovial joints and their structure?

A

surrounded by the articular capsule (encloses the joint)

  • outer layer: fibrous layer of ligaments
  • inner layer: connective tissue called synovial membrane that secretes synovial fluid (clear, viscous liquid, lubricant)
34
Q

What is a joint cavity?

A

area surrounding bone ends that contain synovial fluid

35
Q

What is the synovial membrane?

A

special connective tissue

36
Q

What are the 2 main cell types in the synovial membrane?

A
  • macrophage-like type A cell
  • fibroblast-like type B cell
37
Q

What are macrophage-like type A cells?

A
  • derived from blood monocytes
  • remove wear and tear debris from synovial fluid
  • regulate inflammatory events within diarthrotic joints
38
Q

What are fibroblast-like type B cells?

A

produce synovial fluid containing hyaluronan and proteoglycans

39
Q

What is arthritis?

A

inflammation → thinning of synovial cartilage → swelling of one or more joints leading to joint pain, stiffness, and immobilization

40
Q

What is osteoarthritis (OA)?

A

most common form of arthritis

  • degenerative, progressive, and age-related joint disease
  • mainly joints in hands, hips, and knees
41
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis (RA)?

A

an autoimmune and inflammatory disease

  • early onset possible
  • involves tissue damage
  • mainly joints in hands, wrists, and knees
42
Q

What are ligaments?

A

fibrous tissue connecting bone to bone

  • stabilize joints
  • provide rotational stability to the knee
  • difficult healing, common site of injuries
43
Q

What are tendons?

A

strong and flexible collagen fibrous tissue connecting muscles to bones

  • transmit the mechanical force of muscle contraction to the bones to moving limbs
  • resist tensile forces
44
Q

What are the 3 major types of muscle?

A
  • skeletal (striated) muscle
  • cardiac muscle
  • smooth (visceral) muscle
45
Q

What are the 4 functions of muscles?

A
  • movements/postures
  • blood circulation
  • body heat
  • storage of carbohydrates (glycogen)
46
Q

What are skeletal (striated) muscle?

A
  • present in locomotor system
  • cells are cylindrical, striated, multi-nucleated
  • voluntary movements
  • connected to CNS
47
Q

What are cardiac muscles?

A
  • present in heart
  • cells are cylindrical, striated, multi-nucleated but thinner
  • involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic movements
  • innervated by PNS
48
Q

What are smooth (visceral) muscles?

A
  • present in organs
  • cells are spindle-like shape, striated (least striated of all muscle types), single nucleus
  • involuntary but slow movements
  • innervated by PNS
49
Q

Describe muscle anatomy from outer to inner layers.

A
  • epimysium: dense connective tissue
  • several fascicles – bundles of muscle fibres wrapped around by perimysium
  • each muscle fibre surrounded by endomysium
  • also have blood vessels and nerves

(note: each muscle fibre is a functional unit)

50
Q

Skeletal Muscle Fibre

What are t-tubules?

A

invaginations of sarcolemma

51
Q

Skeletal Muscle Fibre

What are the components of muscle cells/myofibres? (6)

A
  • sarcolemma (plasma membrane)
  • sarcoplasm
  • many nuclei
  • mitochondria
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum: storage of Ca2+
  • microfibrils: rod-like organelle containing thick and think myofilaments
52
Q

Skeletal Muscle Fibre

What are sarcomeres?

A

smallest and repeating functional unit of striated muscle tissue

53
Q

Skeletal Muscle Fibre

What are thick filaments?

A

myosin

  • moving using motor head along actin to contract sarcomere
54
Q

Skeletal Muscle Fibre

What are thin filaments?

A

actin

  • immobile
  • tropomyosin blocks myosin
  • tropomyosin shift with Ca2+
55
Q

Skeletal Muscle Fibre

What is the sliding theory of muscle contraction?

A
  1. depolarization of muscle membrane
  2. release of Ca2+ from internal stores (SR)
  3. binding of Ca2+ to actin
  4. sliding of myosin along actin
  • muscle contracts to generate tension
  • muscle only pulls and does not push
  • pull and relax
56
Q

Which nervous system does the musculoskeletal system work with?

A

central nervous system (CNS)

57
Q

What are the steps of AP generation in muscle fibres at the neuromuscular junction?

A
  1. transmission of motor neuron signal
  2. increased permeability of Ca2+ at neural ends of a synapse
  3. release of ACh from synaptic vesicles
  • binding of ACh to nicotinic receptors (on muscle ends of a synapse)
  1. Na+ influx
  2. change endplate potential and depolarization
  3. muscle fibre action
  4. propagation of signal, OR turn off signal (degradation of ACh by acetylcholinesterase)
58
Q

Describe the structure and functionse of nicotinic receptors as ion-channel linked receptors.

A

consists of a pentamer of protein subunits with two binding sites for ACh

  • when bound, receptor’s configuration is altered, resulting in the opening of the internal pore
  • pore allows Na+ ions to flow down their electrochemical gradients
59
Q

What is proprioception?

A

the sense through which we perceive out body’s position, movement, equilibrium/balance, and notion of force

60
Q

What are proprioceptors and their functions?

A

nerve fibres that coordinate position of joints, tension in tendons and ligaments, and the state of muscular contraction

61
Q

What are the 2 types of proprioceptors?

A
  • muscle spindle afferents
  • mechanoreceptors from skin and joints
62
Q

What contributes to coordination?

A

motor command and signals from CNS

63
Q

What is a reflex?

A

stereotypic reaction to a certain trigger

ie. patellar/knee jerk reflex

64
Q

What is the reflex arch?

A

functionally harmonize muscle movements (muscle agonist vs. antagonist)

65
Q

What are sensory neurons?

A

stretch receptors of the muscle that conveys changes in muscle length to CNS

66
Q

What do motor neurons do?

A

send signal from CNS to muscles

67
Q

What are neuromuscular diseases?

A

disorders affecting the function of muscles due to problems with nerves and muscles

  • most common sign is muscle weakness
68
Q

What is myasthenia gravis?

A

autoimmune disorder of neuromuscular transmission

  • produce antibodies against nicotinic ACh receptor (AChR)
  • abnormal immune response results in decreased activity and number of ACh receptors, causing failed nerve transmission at certain neuromuscular junctions
69
Q

What are the symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A
  • dropping of one or both eyelids (ptosis)
  • blurred or double vision (diplopia) due to weakness of the muscles that control eye movements
  • change in facial expression
  • difficulty swallowing
  • shortness of breath
  • impaired speech (dysarthria)
  • weakness in arms, hands, fingers, legs, and neck

PHRM 100 – APPP (23 decks)

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