App Deployment Flashcards
Which of the following components cannot be deployed using Change Sets in Salesforce?
A) Custom Objects
B) Apex Classes
C) Profiles
D) Permission Sets
D) Permission Sets
Which Salesforce deployment tool would you use to deploy a collection of metadata components that have been manually selected and organized into a zip file?
A) Change Sets
B) Salesforce CLI
C) ANT Migration Tool
D) Deployment Manager
C) ANT Migration Tool
What is a “Deployment Connection” in Salesforce?
A) A link between Salesforce production and an external system for data synchronization.
B) A pre-configured connection between Salesforce environments to facilitate metadata deployment.
C) A tool that allows the Salesforce admin to configure deployment settings for custom objects.
D) A communication channel between Salesforce and an integration partner for sending API requests.
B) A pre-configured connection between Salesforce environments to facilitate metadata deployment.
Which feature allows Salesforce users to monitor and track the status of metadata deployments between environments (e.g., from sandbox to production)?
A) Salesforce CLI
B) Deployment Status page in Setup
C) Change Set Validation page
D) Metadata API logs
B) Deployment Status page in Setup
When deploying a new version of a Visualforce page, which of the following is a best practice for ensuring that there is no disruption in service for users during deployment?
A) Use a sandbox environment to test the Visualforce page before deployment.
B) Perform the deployment during off-peak hours to minimize user impact.
C) Validate the Visualforce page in production and deploy directly from the live environment.
D) Deactivate the Visualforce page in production before deployment.
B) Perform the deployment during off-peak hours to minimize user impact.
Which of the following metadata components can be deployed only using Salesforce CLI or the ANT Migration Tool, and not via Change Sets?
A) Custom Objects
B) Apex Triggers
C) Lightning Pages
D) External Data Sources
D) External Data Sources
Which of the following tools can be used to deploy metadata and handle the deployment of nested metadata components such as custom fields within custom objects?
A) Data Loader
B) ANT Migration Tool
C) Change Sets
D) Salesforce Data Import Wizard
B) ANT Migration Tool
In Salesforce, what is the purpose of a “Deployment Validation” before an actual deployment?
A) To check whether the deployment is completed successfully without making any changes to the target environment.
B) To verify whether the target environment contains the correct metadata components and configurations.
C) To simulate a rollback scenario in case of deployment failure.
D) To test the functionality of deployed features in a sandbox environment before full production deployment.
A) To check whether the deployment is completed successfully without making any changes to the target environment.
Which of the following can cause a deployment to fail in Salesforce?
A) Deploying custom objects without ensuring the related fields are present in the target environment.
B) Using the same deployment connection for sandbox-to-sandbox deployments.
C) Deploying without creating profiles in both source and target environments.
D) Deactivating the user permissions before running a deployment.
A) Deploying custom objects without ensuring the related fields are present in the target environment.
When deploying metadata using Change Sets, which of the following is required before a successful deployment?
A) The components must be in the “Pending” state in the source organization.
B) The components must be manually validated in the target organization.
C) The components must be tested in a development environment before deployment.
D) The target environment must have corresponding records or data before the deployment.
B) The components must be manually validated in the target organization.
Which of the following deployment strategies is best for a large organization with a complex Salesforce implementation that needs to handle frequent updates across multiple Salesforce environments?
A) Deploy changes directly from sandbox to production with minimal testing.
B) Use Change Sets exclusively and deploy manually between environments.
C) Implement a Continuous Integration (CI) and Continuous Deployment (CD) pipeline using Salesforce CLI and automated testing.
D) Use manual deployment with backups and rollback procedures for all changes.
C) Implement a Continuous Integration (CI) and Continuous Deployment (CD) pipeline using Salesforce CLI and automated testing.
Which of the following is a limitation of using the “Metadata API” for deployments?
A) It only supports the deployment of metadata, not data.
B) It cannot deploy components related to Apex code.
C) It requires a custom development environment to set up and manage deployments.
D) It does not support rollback of metadata changes after a deployment is completed.
A) It only supports the deployment of metadata, not data.
When migrating Salesforce metadata using the ANT Migration Tool, which of the following actions should be performed to ensure a successful migration of components between environments?
A) Deploy components in batches, each containing fewer than 10 components to avoid hitting deployment limits.
B) Ensure the target environment has the same set of profiles and permission sets as the source environment.
C) Use the “retrieve” command to pull all metadata from the source org and deploy it directly to the target org.
D) Always validate the metadata in the target environment before running the actual deployment.
D) Always validate the metadata in the target environment before running the actual deployment.
Which of the following is true about a “Full Sandbox” in Salesforce?
A) It includes a copy of all the metadata and a subset of production data.
B) It includes a complete copy of production data, including all records, fields, and configurations.
C) It allows only limited data replication and does not include any records.
D) It can be used for integration testing but does not allow the deployment of custom code.
B) It includes a complete copy of production data, including all records, fields, and configurations.
Which of the following actions is NOT possible when working with a “Developer Sandbox”?
A) It allows the creation of custom objects and fields.
B) It can be refreshed only once every 30 days.
C) It includes a full copy of production data, including all records and customizations.
D) It is primarily used for coding and testing without using production data.
C) It includes a full copy of production data, including all records and customizations.
When refreshing a “Partial Copy Sandbox,” which of the following is true?
A) It can only be refreshed once every 6 months.
B) It does not allow the inclusion of custom metadata records.
C) You can specify which subsets of data to include (e.g., records from a specific object).
D) It automatically refreshes all data every time it is refreshed.
: C) You can specify which subsets of data to include (e.g., records from a specific object).
You are working in a Developer Sandbox, and you need to test an integration with external systems. However, the sandbox does not contain the full set of data from your production environment. Which of the following is the best option for handling this situation?
A) Use a Full Sandbox to replicate all production data and test the integration there.
B) Use a Partial Copy Sandbox and select the required data objects for testing.
C) Work with a Developer Pro Sandbox and manually upload the necessary test data.
D) Use a Developer Sandbox, but the integration testing cannot be done unless all production data is included.
B) Use a Partial Copy Sandbox and select the required data objects for testing.
Which of the following is a limitation of the “Developer Pro Sandbox” compared to other sandbox types?
A) It includes a limited amount of production data (up to 1GB).
B) It can be refreshed only once every 60 days.
C) It does not allow any customizations or development work.
D) It is not suited for testing large datasets and integration scenarios.
A) It includes a limited amount of production data (up to 1GB).
