Ap Biology master test Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
a) the ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systems
b) the universality of the genetic code
c) the structure of the nucleus
d) the structure of cilia
e) the structure of chloroplasts

A

b)

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which Darwin’s theory of natural selection is based?
    A) Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
    B) There is heritable variation among individuals.
    C) Because of overproduction of offspring, there is competition for limited resources.
    D) Individuals whose inherited characteristics best fit them to the environment will generally produce more offspring.
    e. A population can become adapted to its environment.
A

A

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3
Q

About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
A) carbon, sodium, chlorine, nitrogen
B) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
C) oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
E) Carbon, oxygen, sulfur, calcium

A

D

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4
Q

An atom with an atomic number of 9 and a mass number of 19 would have an atomic mass of approximately
A) 9 daltons
B) 9 grams
C) 10 daltons
D) 20 grams
C) 19 daltons

A

E

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5
Q

How many electrons does phosphorus have in its valance shell (atomic number 15)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5

A

E

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6
Q

Which of the following is not considered to be a weak molecular interaction?
A) covalent bond
B) Van Der Waals interaction
C) ionic bond in the presence of water
D) hydrogen bond
E) A and B only

A

A

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7
Q

Which of the following describes any reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium?
A) The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
B) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
C) All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
D) All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
E) Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on the concentration of the reactants and the products.

A

B

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8
Q

What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the products?
C6H12O6 —> __C2H6O + __CO2

A

2:2

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9
Q

Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?
A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
B) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.
C) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
D) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
E) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.

A

B

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10
Q

One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H) than 1 L of a solution of pH
6?
A) 4 times more
B) 400 times more
C) 4,000 times more
D) 10,000 times more
E) 100,000 times more

A

D

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11
Q

We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their
A) mass in daltons
B) mass in grams
C) number of molecules
D) number of atoms
E) volume

A

c

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12
Q

On food packages, to what does the term “insoluble fiber” refer?
A) cellulose
B) polypeptides
C) starch
D) amylopectin
E) chitin

A

A

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13
Q

Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
A) 101
B) 100
C) 99
D) 98
E) 97

A

C

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14
Q

Enzymes are
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids

A

C

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15
Q

(Refer to the molecule chart)
Which of the following molecules is a purine type of nitrogenous base?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 12
E) 13

A

E

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16
Q

The peroxisome gets its name from its interaction with hydrogen peroxide. If a liver cell is detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, it does so by removal of hydrogen from the molecules.
What, then, do the enzymes of the peroxisome do?
A) combine the hydrogen with ATP
B) use the hydrogen to break down hydrogen peroxide
C) transfer the harmful substances to the mitochondria
D) transfer the hydrogen to oxygen molecules

A

D

17
Q

Cells can be described as having a cytoskeleton of internal structures that contribute to the shape, organization, and movement of the cell. Which of the following are part of the cytoskeleton?
A) the nuclear envelope
B) mitochondria
C) microfilaments
D) lysosomes
E) nucleoli

A

C

18
Q

All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells. Which of the following are distinct from the others in their composition?
A) microtubules
B) microfilaments
C) plant cell walls
D) intermediate filaments
E) nuclear lamina

A

C

19
Q

The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following?
A) gap junctions
B) the nucleus
C) DNA and RNA
D) integrins
E) plasmodesmata

A

D

20
Q

Which statement correctly characterizes bound ribosomes?
A) Bound ribosomes are enclosed in their own membrane.
B) Bound and free ribosomes are structurally different.
C) Bound ribosomes generally synthesize membrane proteins and secretory proteins.
D) The most common location for bound ribosomes is the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane.
E) All of the above.

A

C

21
Q

White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process?
A) exocytosis
B) phagocytosis
C) pinocytosis
D) osmosis
E) receptor-mediated exocytosis

A

B

22
Q

A chemical reaction that has a positive ?G is correctly described as
A) endergonic
B) endothermic
C) enthalpic
D) spontaneous
E) exothermic

A

A

23
Q

What tern is used to describe the transfer of free energy from catabolic pathways to anabolic pathways?
A) feedback regulation
B) bioenergetics
C) energy coupling
D) entropy
E) cooperatively

A

C

24
Q

Competitive inhibitors block the entry of substrate into the active site of an enzyme. On which of the following properties of an active site does this primarily depend?
A) the ability of an enzyme to form a template for holding and joining molecules
B) the enzyme’s ability to stretch reactants and move them toward a transition state
C) the enzyme providing an appropriate microenvironment conducive to a reaction’s occurrence
D) the enzyme forming covalent bonds with the reactants
E) the enzyme becoming too saturated because of the concentration of substrate

A

A

25
Q

If an enzyme is added to a solution where its substrate and product are in equilibrium, what would
оссuг?
A) Additional product would be formed.
B) Additional substrate would be formed.
C) The reaction would change from endergonic to exergonic.
D) The free energy of the system would change.
E) Nothing; the reaction would stay at equilibrium.

A

E

26
Q

An electron loses potential energy when it
A) shifts to a less electronegative atom.
B) shifts to a more electronegative atom.
C) increases its kinetic energy.
D) increases its activity as an oxidizing agent.
E) attaches itself to NAD+

A

E

27
Q

Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase?
A) It both splits molecules and assembles molecules.
B) It attaches and detaches phosphate groups.
C) It uses glucose and generates pyruvate.
D) It shifts molecules from cytosol to mitochondrion.
E) It uses stored ATP and then forms a net increase in ATP.

A

E

28
Q

cy the presence of oxygen, the three-carbon compound pyruvate can be catabolized in the citric acid oxidi. First, however, the pyruvate 1) loses a carbon, which is given off as a molecule of CO 2; 2) is oxidized to form a two-carbon compound called acetate, and 3) is bonded to coenzyme A.

Why is coenzyme A, a sulfur containing molecule derived from a B vitamin, added?
A) because sulfur is needed for the molecule to enter the mitochondrion
B) in order to utilize this portion of a B vitamin which would otherwise be a waste product from another pathway
C) to provide a relatively unstable molecule whose acetyl portion can readily bind to oxaloacetate
D) because it drives the reaction that regenerates NAD+
E) in order to remove one molecule of CO

A

C

29
Q

Where do the catabolic products of fatty acid breakdown enter into the citric acid cycle?
A) pyruvate
B) malware or furmarate
C) acetyl CoA
D) a- ketoglutarate
E) succinyl CoA

A

C

30
Q

shows the absorption spectrum for chlorophyll a and the action spectrum for photosynthesis. Why are they different?
A) Green and yellow wavelengths inhibit the absorption of red and blue wavelengths
B) Bright sunlight destroys photosynthetic pigments
C) Oxygen given off during photosynthesis interferes with the absorption of light.
D) Other pigments absorb light in addition to chlorophyll a.
E) Aerobic bacteria take up oxygen which changes the measurement of the rate of photosynthesis.

A

D

31
Q

What wavelength of light in the figure is most effective in driving photosynthesis?
A) 420 mm
B) 475 mm
C) 575 mm
D) 625 mm
E) 730 mm

A

A

32
Q

In a plant cell, where are the ATP synthase complexes located?
A) thylakoid membrane
B) plasma membrane
C) inner mitochondrial membrane
D) A and C
E) A, B, and C

A

D

33
Q

Reduction of NADP+ occurs during
A) photosynthesis
B) respiration
C) both photosynthesis and respiration
D) neither photosynthesis or respiration
E) photorespiration

A

C

34
Q

Which of the following types of species interaction is correctly paired with its effects on the densit of the two interacting populations?
A) predation: as one increases, the other increases
B) parasitism: both decrease
C) commensalism: as one increases the other stays the same
D) competition: both increase

A

C