AOMI 4 Supplementary Flashcards

1
Q

selecting ECS OFF commands the ENG BLEED to OFF until the first

A

500 ft AGL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ECS off - the ENG BLEED valves will remain closed and the APU BLEED valve will supply bleed air for PACKS operation during takeoff until 500 ft AGL. If APU BLEED is unavailable

A

the PACKS will remain OFF until 500 ft AGL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Packs Logic During Engine Start (E1 Only) - When REF ECS is selected ON in the MCDU T/O DATASET MENU page, the caution EICAS message

A

ENG REF ECS DISAG may be temporarily displayed after both engines have started and are stabilized at idle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

During approach after passing the FAP / FAF or if configured for landing, all go-around procedures begin

A

by pressing either TO/GA button

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The TO/GA button engages the AFCS (3 things)

A

Go-Around (GA) mode, sequences the FMS to the MISSED APRCH display, and changes the HGS display mode back to FULL.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Go around - VNAV is planned to engage according to the

A

GO AROUND LIMIT page settings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Go around - If the approach has been flown manually, rotate smoothly to a

A

8° pitch attitude and then follow flight director commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Go around - For all engines operating the speed target will be

A

Vref+20 and for one engine inoperative the speed target will be Vac. The GA roll mode maintains existing ground track.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The GA roll mode maintains existing

A

ground track.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If a turning missed approach procedure is required, accomplish the missed approach procedure through gear up before

A

initiating the turn. Delay further flap retraction until initial maneuvering is complete and a safe altitude and appropriate speed are attained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Go around - At 1000 ft. AFE, accelerate to flap retraction speed by selecting

A

FLCH and VFS. As the airspeed increases, retract flaps on schedule, and complete the After Takeoff checklist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Whenever a discontinued approach is necessary, the pilot calls out “Discontinued Approach” and the following actions should be taken:

A

— Adjust or verify ALT Preselector — Select the most appropriate vertical mode (VS, or FLCH) — Select FMS if it is not the navigation source and select HDG / NAV to comply with ATC instructions or to follow the missed approach profile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Go around - at 1,000 AFE PF: Check Vertical Mode, FMS Speed engaged and call

A

“FLCH, FMS speed, VFS”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

for a rejected landing initiated after touchdown. Attention must be given to the intended flight path as the published missed approach procedure may n

A

Auto spoilers will retract and autobrake will disarm as thrust levers are advanced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rejected landing - rotate the airplane at

A

Vap. If flight director off, rotate toward 8° pitch attitude, then follow Flight Director commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

After reverse thrust is initiated, a full stop landing must be made. Factors dictating this are:

A

(1) five seconds are required for a reverser to stow in the forward thrust position and (2), the possibility exists a reverser may not stow in the forward thrust position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

During an emergency parking brake, the following protections are not available:

A

Locked Wheel Protection;

• Antiskid Protection; and

• Touchdown Protection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

NADP 1 - This procedure involves a thrust reduction at 1.000 ft (above aerodrome elevation), delay of flaps/slats retraction and speed

A

V2+10 until the prescribed maximum altitude is attained. At the prescribed maximum altitude 3.000 ft (above aerodrome elevation), the aircraft is accelerated and the flaps/slats are retracted on schedule while maintaining a positive rate of climb, to complete the transition to normal climb speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

NADP2 - This procedure involves a thrust reduction and initiation of flaps/slats retraction at 1.000 ft (above aerodrome elevation). The flaps/slats are to be retract on schedule while maintaining a positive rate of climb accelerating to

A

Vfs. At the prescribed maximum altitude 3.000 ft (above aerodrome elevation), the aircraft is accelerated to normal climb speed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The INCREASE DESCENT command is inhibited at altitudes below

A

1450 ft AGL during descent, or below 1650 ft AGL during climb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The DESCENT command is inhibited at altitudes below

A

1000 ft AGL during descent, or below 1200 ft AGL during climb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The TCAS automatically reverts to TA ONLY mode and inhibits RAs for altitudes below

A

900 ft AGL during descent, or below 1000 ft during climb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The TAs are inhibited for airplanes at altitudes below

A

380 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

All TCAS aural advisories are inhibited when the present position altitude is below

A

400 ft AGL during descent, or 600 ft AGL during climb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

No Climb commands or Increased Climb commands are issues at or above

A

34000 ft MSL. No other inhibits are implemented for the Climb or Increased Climb functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lateral profile of the missed approach is not loaded automatically without TOGA button press. It is necessary to use the missed approach prompt displayed on the flight plan pages (Missed Approach). This prompt appears after the

A

IAF (Initial Approach Fix) and allows missed approach lateral profile to be activated without pressing the TOGA button.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The E-Jet satisfies Stage

A

III noise abatement regulations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The E-Jets’s windshear recovery guidance mode is provided by the

A

flight director

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Windshear PF actions:

A

Thrust: Set MAX thrust, Press TO/GA button, Autothrottles - disconnect, Roll, Autopilot - disconnect , Roll wings level, Pitch- Follow FD commands or If EGPWS inoperative, rotate (3°/sec.) toward 20° pitch or PLI (Pitch Limit Indicator), whichever is lower, Increase beyond 20º, if required, to ensure acceptable flight path, Respect stick shaker/buffet, If on takeoff roll, rotate no later than 600m remaining , Configuration- Speedbrakes - retract, Do not alter gear/flap configuration until terrain clearance is assured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

After Windshear Recovery

A

Set Thrust Levers to TOGA or Below, TOGA Button - Press, Retract gear/flaps as required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The windshear recovery maneuver should be performed whenever the following happens:

A
  • A warning windshear is annunciated during approach or after lift-off, HGS: Boxed WSHEAR.

• PFD: WSHEAR (red).

• Voice message: “WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR, WINDSHEAR”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A caution windshear is annunciated during approach and the crew decides to perform the windshear recovery maneuver:

A

HGS: Unboxed WSHEAR.

• PFD: WSHEAR (amber).

• Voice message: “CAUTION WINDSHEAR”.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

After windshear, To complete the maneuver, select

A

HDG or NAV, FLCH as required, engage AP/ AT and retract flaps on schedule.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Unusual attitudes: Excessive use of pitch trim, or rudder, may aggravate an upset situation, or may result in

A

loss of control and/or high structural loads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A nose high unusual attitude is recognized by:

A

— high pitch attitude; — high rate of climb; — increasing altitude; and — decreasing airspeed.

36
Q

Nose High Recovery Actions and Callouts:

A

Thrust Apply thrust proportional to airspeed degradation Roll Autopilot - disconnect Increase or introduce banka to aid in lowering pitch Pitch Reduce pitch- Reduce pitch, Configuration • Speedbrakes - retract, Roll to wings-level when approaching the horizon, Check airspeed and adjust thrust • Establish pitch attitude

37
Q

A nose-low unusual attitude is recognized by:

A

— low pitch attitude; — high rate of descent; — increasing airspeed; and — possibly excessive bank angle.

38
Q

Nose Low Recovery Actions and Callouts:

A

Thrust Reduce thrust and consider extending speedbrakes Roll Autopilot -disconnect, Roll in the shortest direction toward wings-level attitude, Pitch Apply back pressure when bank has been reduced to wings-level and raise nose to horizon, Check airspeed and adjust thrust, Establish pitch attitude, Retract speedbrakes (if used)

39
Q

Wake Turbulence- An encounter with wake vortices is associated with

A

abrupt roll and aerodynamic loads similar to turbulence encounters. Prompt initiation of recovery procedures is necessary to preclude an unusual attitude.

40
Q

Wake Turbulence Recovery Actions and Callouts

A

Thrust Add thrust as necessary - Roll Autopilot - disconnect - Apply ailerons and rudder to recover wings-level attitude - Pitch Adjust pitch to horizon

41
Q

After Wake Turbulence Recovery

A

Check airspeed and adjust thrust
Establish pitch attitude
Initiate go-around if on approach with probability of further encounter

42
Q

To sustain a lifting force on the wing, the pilot must ensure the surface is flown at an angle below

A

the stall angle.

43
Q

The lift force generated on a surface is a result of its

A

angle of attack (AOA), the dynamic pressure of the air moving around it, which is a function of the airspeed and air density, and the size and shape of the surface. As the AOA increases, lift increases proportionally.

44
Q

the angle of attack is the angle between the

A

relative wind and the chord line of the airfoil

45
Q

You can also check an impending stall via the

A

LSA (Low Speed Awareness) and PLI (Pitch Limit Indicator) indication and the proper color code of the symbology.

46
Q

The emphasis of the stall recovery maneuver is to effectively

A

reduce the AOA by putting the airplane in a nose down attitude.

47
Q

the crew must initiate the stall recovery procedure immediately upon:

A

recognizing a stall condition, stick shaker activation or feeling the stall buffeting

48
Q

Speed and altitude will affect the stall as follows: as altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which low speed buffet occurs

A

increases; as altitude increases, high speed buffet speed decreases.

49
Q

The aerodynamic stall, especially at high speed, is characterized by

A

buffeting, combined or not with some loss of lateral control.

50
Q

Stick shaker activation will cause the automatic disengage of the autopilot. Beware that, in icing, the autopilot may mask

A

heavy or asymmetric control forces due to airframe icing. The autopilot may even disconnect earlier because of excessive roll rates, roll angles or excessive pitch.

51
Q

Stall Recovery - If Terrain Contact is a Factor

A

At the first indication of a stall (buffet or stick shaker), disconnect the autopilot, advance the thrust levers to MAX thrust while leveling the wings. Control pitch as smoothly as possible. As the engines accelerate, the aircraft nose will pitch up. To assist in pitch control, add more nose down trim as the thrust increases.

52
Q

Stall Recovery Actions & Callouts - STALL” (Pilot first noticing the stall situation):

A

Disconnect Autothrottle.

— Applies nose down and levels the wings until out of stall.

— Applies thrust as required.

— Accelerates the airplane to a safe speed.

— Retracts speed brakes.

— After recovery, return to the normal flight path.

53
Q

EGPWS - When a terrain awareness caution occurs, verify the aircraft flight path and correct it if required. If in doubt, perform a climb until

A

the caution alert ceases.

54
Q

EGPWS Escape Maneuver Actions & Callouts

A

Thrust Set MAX thrust

Press TO/GA button

Autothrottles - disconnect

Pitch Autopilot - disconnect

Roll wings level

Initially rotate to 20° pitch

Increase pitch as necessary, respecting PLI, stick shaker, and buffet

Configuration Speedbrakes - retract

Do not alter gear / flap configuration until terrain clearance is assured

Climb to safe altitude

55
Q

After EGPWS Recovery

A

Resume normal flight

56
Q

Low visibility- Apply this procedure when visibility is less than

A

400m
MGO: Operações com baixa visibilidade são as definidas abaixo: - Operações de aproximação com RVR inferior a 550 metros ou com uma altura de decisão inferior a 200 pés; ou - Operações de decolagem com RVR inferior a 400 metros
Stop bar 350m (GRU, CWB AIP acordo operacional)

57
Q

Low visibility - Flight Plan: Takeoff alternate required within

A

280 NM

58
Q

Additional Procedures for visibility below 400m:

A

Two Engines taxi required.

Accomplish all flows and checklists through Before Takeoff (To The Line) prior to taxi.

TO-1 takeoff required (FLEX TO allowed)

59
Q

For CAT II, PF will be

A

The Captain will be the PF for the approach, the First Officer will be the PM.

60
Q

Cat II - Both pilots must monitor the Auto Pilot performance during approach and ensure that the Auto Pilot system:

A

• Maintain Pitch Angle between -5° and +5°;

• Command a maximum Roll Angle of 25°;

• Follow the FD cues to correct any excessive deviation warning until 200 ft RA;

• Do not allow the occurrence of any excessive deviation warning below 200 ft RA.

61
Q

If any of the following warnings occur and the approach cannot be continued under visual conditions, a go-around must be performed:

A

• APPR 1 ONLY annunciated on the FMA;

• APPR 2 NOT AVAIL annunciated on EICAS;

• RALT FAIL annunciated on EICAS;

• Any Amber Flag on PFD (RA, GS, LOC, PIT, HDG, CAS, FPA).

62
Q

Contaminated RWY - Stopping distance depends, among other things, on the depth of the runway contaminant. In some cases, stopping distances will

A

decrease as contamination depth increases; however, the risk of hydroplaning is significantly greater and longer distances normally result. In either situation the aircraft could experience directional control difficulties

63
Q

The intensity and duration of reverse thrust used at low speeds should be

A

minimized

64
Q

Ice - kind of acceptable ice, provided all vents and ports are clear and not obstructed

A

Light rime or thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage

65
Q

Under Cold Weather Operation the ______________ shall perform the Exterior Inspection.

A

Captain

66
Q

All surfaces have to be free of frost, ice, slush and snow as well as water accumulations with the following exceptions:

A

— Take-off with light coatings of frost up to 3 mm in thickness on lower wing sur-face due to cold fuel is permissible; — A thin coating of hoar frost is acceptable on the surface of the fuselage (body) only, provided all vents or ports are clear.

67
Q

if these surfaces are not free of ice.

A

Do not operate slats / flaps, flight control surfaces and trims

68
Q

If an aircraft is covered by ice or snow of an extreme thickness, ice or snow may adhere to the fixed leading edge below the slats. In this case aircraft shall be de-iced in the following sequence.

A

First de-/anti-ice with slats / flaps up, then extend slats/flaps into take-off position and de-/anti-ice wing leading edge

69
Q

Clear ice must be mostly suspected when:

A

1) Wing temperatures remain well below 0°C during turnaround / transit,

2) Outside air temperatures are between - 2°C and + 15°C,

3) Ambient humidity is high and/or precipitation occurs during turnaround/transit,

4) Frost or ice is present on lower wing surfaces.

70
Q

For take-off in icing conditions, it is recommended that take-off power be set to approximately

A

54 % N1 and held at that thrust level for 30 seconds just before or in conjunction with the final take-off power setting. Apply brakes and advance the thrust levers. If the aircraft starts to creep or slide during engine power check, release the brakes and begin the take-off roll. Anticipate a lag in nose wheel steering response and possible nose wheel skidding. Apply corrections as necessary.

71
Q

Remember that radar detects only

A

liquid droplets, not the cloud itself.

72
Q

If possible, circumnavigate the detected thundercloud or area by (x miles)

A

25 miles or more when traffic conditions permit.

73
Q

slight difference between the navigation information portrayed on the chart and the FMS coded procedure (up to)

A

74
Q

RVSM operation reduces minimum vertical separation from 2000 ft. to 1000 ft. at altitudes between

A

FL 290 and FL 410.

75
Q

RVSM The two primary altimeters must agree within xxft

A

200 ft. at all times within RVSM.

76
Q

RVSM When changing flight levels, do not overshoot or undershoot the CRFL by more than

A

150 ft

77
Q

RVSM Stabilize the altitude within +/- 50 ft. and the airspeed within +/- 5 Kt. Maintain straight and level flight for a minimum of 15 seconds and compare the difference between altitudes using the following table: altitude 20,000 to 41,000:

A

180ft

78
Q

RVSM - When you encounter severe turbulence, you must contact

A

ATC and report the situation. Until you report clear of severe turbulence encounter, the controller will apply merging target vectors to one or both passing aircraft to prevent targets from merging.

79
Q

HF COMMS Foemat:

A

— Identification — Position (name of compulsory reporting point) / Time (Z) / Altitude — Estimate Position (next compulsory reporting point) / ETA over fix (Z) — Next Position (succeeding compulsory reporting point) — Fuel Remaining in pounds

80
Q

HF LOSS OF COMMS

A

Maintain last assigned altitude. — Attempt to establish contact with other aircraft on 123.45 or 121.50 and utilize relay services for position reporting with ARINC. — Maintain the appropriate ARINC frequency in the HF even if the radio appears to have failed since in most cases a SELCAL will work and alert you that ARINC requires some type of communication. — Utilize extra vigilance and maintain an appropriate scan of TCAS indications. — Reestablish communication once in VHF range. — Once at your destination, a log book write-up is required indicating that the failure occurred after entry

81
Q

HF area In-flight Contingency Procedures for Subsonic Aircraft Requiring Rapid Descent, Turn-back or Diversion Initial action:

A

If unable to obtain a revised ATC clearance, the aircraft should leave its assigned route or track by turning 90° right or left whenever this is possible. The direction of the turn should be determined by the position of the aircraft relative to any organized route or track system (for example, whether the aircraft is outside, at the edge of, or within the system). Other factors to consider are terrain clearance and the levels allocated to adjacent routes or tracks.

82
Q

HF area In-flight Contingency Procedures for Subsonic Aircraft Requiring Rapid Descent, Turn-back or Diversion If Able to Maintain Level Flight:

A

An aircraft able to maintain its assigned level should acquire and maintain in either direction a track laterally separated by 15 NM from its assigned route or track. Once established on the offset track, climb or descend 500 ft. for deconfliction and identification purposes.

83
Q

HF area For deviations of greater than 10 NM, when the aircraft is approximately 10 NM from track, initiate a level change based on the following criteria:

A

East (000-179 magnetic)

LEFT DESCEND 300 ft. RIGHT CLIMB 300 ft

West (180-359 magnetic) the opposite

84
Q

Turbulence Maintain control of the airplane with the elevators. After establishing the trim setting for penetration speed,

A

do not change pitch trim.

85
Q

Maximum recommended turbulent air penetration speed - Below 10000 ft

A

250 KIAS

86
Q

Maximum recommended turbulent air penetration speed - Above 10000 ft

A

270 KIAS/0.76 M, whichever is lower