AOM Flashcards

1
Q

If you’re landing with a tail wind beyond 10 kts up to a max of 20 kt, what are the limitations ?

A
FLAP 35/ 1020 
Nose-wheel steering is operative
Anti Skid is Operative 
NO contaminated Runway  
NO CAT II 
Bleeds OFF Prior landing
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2
Q

What Is the definition of a WET Runway ?

A

When there is enough moisture to cause the surface to appear reflective. If there is 3mm of water or more then the surface must be considered contaminated.

RVERSE IS PROHIBITED IN OPERATIONS WITH WATER EQUIVALENT DEPTHS OF 3mm or more !

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3
Q

Min Operating Temperature in flight ?

A

-54 C

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4
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight

A

65,200 lb

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5
Q

Minimum Runway Width

A

98 ft

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6
Q

When making altitude calls, when should the call be made ?

Example : 220 for 210

A

Using the altimeter NOT the altitude alerter.

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7
Q

Emergency Briefing (Take Off)

A

“in the event of a rejected take off before V1, i will call reject AND :

“Select Disc, apply max break”
“Stop the Aircraft”

Once Stopped, I will:

“Select Emergency Break”
“command the checklist”
“Advise the Flight Attendants and Passengers”

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8
Q

Lets say you’re flying an LPV approach and the LOS has been degraded when you have crossed the FAF, what must be and briefed in terms of the LOS ?

A

You must brief and set the higher level of Service. For example the LNV/VNAV LOS

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9
Q

Are wind gusts included for crosswind limitations ?

For example: wind is 240/29 Gusting 37.

Are we able to accept a take off or landing ?

A

NO

The gusts must be taken into consideration and must not exceed any limits.

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10
Q

Max Crosswind limitation for Dry or Wet runways for both takeoff and landing

A

32 kt

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11
Q

What is the minimum break pressure needed to start engine # 1

A

1000 psi

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12
Q

VLO Speed ?

The safe speed to extend and retract the gear

A

200 kt

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13
Q

The safety Check is to be done :

A

first flight of the day
crew change
aircraft change
maintencance action

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14
Q

When is a runway contaminated by compact snow ?

A

When 100% of the required length and width is covered by compact snow.

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15
Q

Max Dif Taxi, Takeoff and Landing

A

0.5 psi

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16
Q

How do you complete a long GPWS test ?

A

Hold the GPWS test switch for longer then 3 seconds

In order to complete the test properly the following must be configured;

1 # 1 Vor tuned and operative 
2 FMS # 1 initialized 
3 Flap 0 
4 GPWS off and guarded 
5 GPWS caution light out
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17
Q

What are the 3 types of landings in non normal/ emergency situation ?

A

Normal landing- standard call “FA BE SEATED”

Example ; “ We will be returning to Calgary due to a navigation malfunction . We will be landing in 20 Minutes

Non Normal Landing - Higher state of awareness

Evacuation is unlikely

Example “ WE WILL BE RETURNING TO LAND AT CALGARY DUE TO AN ENGINE PROBLEM. THIS IS A NON NORMAL LANDING REQUIRING A HIGHER LEVEL OF ALERTNESS. ADVISE THE FA AND CHECK BACK WITH. THEN I WILL ADIVSE THE PAX

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18
Q

Alternate gear Extension speed ?

A

185 kt

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19
Q

If you get a caution light before 80 kts and the decision is made to continue the take off when should the caution light be verbalized ?

A

After gear UP

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20
Q

Maximum Altitude where its safe to extend the gear ?

A

15,000 ft

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21
Q

RTO before 80 kts ?

A

For any caution light, or any other reason affecting safety.

Best judgment should be made to continue a take off beyond 80 kts

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22
Q

LAHSO limitations

A

Wet or contaminated runway

Wind Shear or TBs within 20 miles

Tail wind greater then 3 kts
Crosswind greater then 15 kts

Any MEL/CDL that limits aircraft Performance

Must have an ILS PAPIS or VASIS

In the USA at night must have hold short lighting

MUST not accept a LAHSO clearance below 1000 feet

Weather Minimums

ILS with PAPIS or VASIS - 3sm, 1000 ft
ILS with no PAPIS or VASIS 5sm, 1500 ft

Not allowed with Airports above 6000 in elevation

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23
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight

A

58,000 lb

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24
Q

Turning Radius

A

85 ft

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25
Q

Emergency Briefing ( Engine Failure After V1)

A

” In the event of an engine failure or fire aftert V1, I will continue the takeoff , and rotate normally at Vr.

I will call “ gear Up”

  • Climb at V2 to Flap to Retraction Altitude
  • Call for the QRC at a safe altitude
  • Retract the Flap on Schedule
  • Climb at Vclimb to 1500 Feet
  • Call for the QRH reference item
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26
Q

If you arrive at the aircraft on the first flight of the day abd notice that all the screens are already on, What should you do ?

A

Turn them Off then On

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27
Q

Maximum Fuel imbalance

A

600 lb

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28
Q

What must we consider when taking Off or landing at MAX Weight in terms of wheel break and cooling charts ?

A

Make sure that break energy and minimum turnaround times are not exceeded.

use the charts!

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29
Q

When is a runway considered contaminated by ICE ?

A

When 25% or more of the required length and width is covered by Wet ice and breaking is expected to be poor.

If the CRFI is .4 or better then you can use “compact snow” performance data.

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30
Q

If a turn is required for the single engine out procedure, when do you make the turn ?

A

After you level OFF, make the turn and accelerate to Vfri then retract the Flaps.

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31
Q

If landing in icing conditions with the ref speed ON, what is minimum altitude that you can turn Off the increase switch ?

A

800 feet

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32
Q

VLE speed.

A

215 kt

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33
Q

Max Operating Temperature in flight ?

A

50 C or ISA +35, whichever is lower

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34
Q

When do we use FLUIDS data ?

A

Type I ( 100% ) IF it’s diluted to 50/50 you don’t need fluid data
Type II
Type IV

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35
Q

Where is the temperature corrected charts for the O2 pressure ?

A

supplemented documents binder

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36
Q

Once the start has been initiated, the FADEC controls the starting sequence in the following manner:

A

When the STARTER/GENERATOR has increased NH speed to 8%, the FADEC commands ignition on and schedules fuel flow as a function of NH, ambient temperature and ambient pressure.

  • Only one of the two ignitors is turned on (this is to identify any failures in the dual channel ignition system). If the engine does not light-off within 8 seconds of fuel flow being selected on, the FADEC turns on both ignitors, and starts a count towards logging a fault against the faulty igninition. Light-off is defined as an increase of 20°C in ITT.
  • When NH is greater than 50%, the ignitor(s) is automatically turned off.
  • The FADEC controls engine run-up to the requested NH speed or power.
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37
Q

What lights do not illuminate during the advisory lights check ?

A

Engine SELECT
Engine START
Pressurizasion FAULT on CPC
Alternate wiper ON light

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38
Q

When must you call the runway in sight for landing, if you have briefed a visual approach ?

A

Prior to the FAF.

If the call “Runway in sight, landing “ has not been called, then the PM must continue With instrument approach calls regardless of visual conditions

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39
Q

Icing Phraseology “ Standard”

A

Pitot-on
windshield heat - off or norm
bypass doors-open or closed

non icing conditions

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40
Q

Maximum Tail wind Component without the supplement

A

10 kt in all conditions

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41
Q

You get to the AC and on the MFD you notice that the GPU is putting out less then 27.5 Volts. What should you do ?

A

Turn Off the batteries

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42
Q

Where are the circuit breaker collars ?

A

In the pouch located in the aircrafts library

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43
Q

Parking break must be left on when;

A

Wind is present or forecasted to be greater then 35kts

NO Chocks

When the plane will be parked overnight and the temp will be less then 0

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44
Q

What are the weather minimums in which an IMC approach must be briefed if planing a Visual Approach ?

A

1000 feet or less then the procedure turn or if no procedure turn then 1000 or less then the FAF altitude,

VIS 5 miles or less

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45
Q

With an engine out , what is the minimum altitude that the autopilot must be disengaged on approach ?

A

1000 ft

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46
Q

Maximum Cabin Differential ?

A

5.95 psi

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47
Q

What is the minimum hydraulic quantity level for dispatch ?

A

40 %

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48
Q

Maximum Ramp Weight

A

65,400 lb

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49
Q

When does the autopilot have to be disengaged in normal operations on an appproach ?

A

200 ft

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50
Q

CAT II Limitations

A

PMA, captain flys the approach with AP

Must have Duel FD before 1100 feet

Flap 15/ 1020

Must be configured for landing prior to FAF

XW 18 kt
TW 10 kt
HW 24 kt

MAX glideslpoe 2.5 degrees

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51
Q

Icing Phraseology “ ON “

A

everything on with the boots

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52
Q

Landing With bleeds on are prohibited when :

A

Tailwind exceeds 10 kt

And performance numbers dictate bleeds off for landing

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53
Q

Circle to land weather minimums

A circle manoeuvre is required when the approach has 30 degrees or more angle from the final approach coarse of the landing runway.

A

Ceiling at or above the MDA for circling but not less then 1000 feet AFE

VIS is at or above the minimum VIS but not less then 3 miles

NO circling below 1000 AFE !!!!!

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54
Q

What is another method that that gear is locked and down other then the Alternate Gear Indication system ?

A

Run the ANTI SKID Test

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55
Q

If you shut down the APU in temperatures below - 35, what must be done before can restart that APU ?

A

You must have it pre heated in accordance with a Maintennace procedure.

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56
Q

What is the definition of a contaminated runway ?

A

When 25% or more of the runway is covered by standing water ( 3mm or more ) slush, wet or loose snow for the required width and length.

Isolated or not!!!

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57
Q

Normal Cabin Differential

A

5.46 psi ( + - 0.1 )

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58
Q

APU stater cranking limits

A

1 min ON - 5 min OFF

1 min ON - 30 min OFF

Maintenance action is required before a third attempt is made to start the APU

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59
Q

Maximum cabin altitude pressurized in flight.

A

8,000 ft

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60
Q

Max Contaminated Depth

A

6cm (2.4 in)

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61
Q

You show up to the aircraft and notice an uncommon caution light on the caution panel. What should you do ?

A

Call maintenance right away and do not try and trouble shoot.

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62
Q

Maximum field elevation for take off and landings.

A

10,000 ft

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63
Q

What is the minimum break pressure to start engine # 2

A

500 psi

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64
Q

Maximum Aircraft Operating Altitude

A

25,000 ft

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65
Q

The Originating before start checks shall be completed prior to :

A

first flight of the day
crew change
aircraft change
maintencance action

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66
Q

After take off and or in a go around, what is the minimum altitude that the auto pilot can be engaged ?

A

1000 ft

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67
Q

How long do we wait after APU RUN light iluminates do we turn the APU bleed on ?

A

3-5 minutes

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68
Q

RTO call to the FAs PAXs once the aircraft has come to a full stop ?

A

“PASSENGERS REMIAN SEATED, STANDBY FOR FURTHER INSTRUCTIONS, LEAD FLGHT ATTENDANT CONTACT THE FLIGHT DECK”

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69
Q

Rough Air Speed

A

210 kt

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70
Q

What is the procedure for inadvertent encounter of Sever Icing

A

AP - Disconnect
Conditioner levers MAX
Min speed 190
Exit icing conditions ASAP

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71
Q

Take Off Procedure 0 - 50 feet

A

No turns !

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72
Q

Max Operating temperature Limit for the APU

A

Same as the engines.

Abu must not be turned on after shutdown in temp -35

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73
Q

VA Speed

A

204 kt

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74
Q

Max Crosswind on Contaminated Runway or both Takeoff/Landing when no CRFI is reported

A

14 kt

75
Q

O2 Pressure and masks limits for dispatch

A

2 crew 1050 psi

3 crew 1450 psi

76
Q

In general, when faced with an emergency, the order of sequence should be the following,

A

1 Fly the plane

2 Action the QRC

3 Declare MAYDY or PAN PAN

4 Complete the QRH

5 ATC ( make a plan )

6 Back ( communicate with FA’s and PAx )

7 Company ( If able contact dispatch and Maintennace )

8 Load the approach

9 Brief the approach

10 Decent approach checklist

77
Q

Take Off Procedure 400-1000 feet

A

No turns between 400-1000 feet if in ceilings less then 1000 feet and 3miles vis

78
Q

What is the definition of stabilized approach as per the AOM

A

When the aircraft is on a constant rate of decent along the GS/VNPATH/PAPIS/VASIS, constant speed and power setting.

Lateral limits within the track line or the Localizer and or the centreline if landing visual

Normal sink rate of 500-800 ft per min

1000 feet in IMC
500 feet in VMC

79
Q

In addition, the FADEC will automatically abort the start, and shutdown the engine if any one of the following conditions occur:

A

if the engine does not light within 16 seconds of fuel flow being selected on,
• the ITT limit of 920°C is exceeded;
•NH does not reach 50% within 70 seconds (i.e. hung or slow start).

80
Q

When testing the caution and advisory lights check that ?

A

All caution and master warning lights illuminate

caution lights and #1 ENG OIL PRESS and #2 ENG OIL PRESS illuminate steady

All other warning lights stay flashing

Press Caution light and check light extinguished

Press Warning light and check light extinguished and warning lights stay steady.

Fuselage door waring light will not flash if the baggage door or the passenger door is open

81
Q

Icing Phraseology “standard plus”

A

pitot
windshield
prop deice
bypass doors

icing conditions with no ice accumulations

82
Q

PMA Approaches must be conducted when the following conditions exist;

A

Non Precision VNAV when the VIS is below the minimum on the approach chart

CAT 1 When the RVR is below 2600 ft or if VIS less the 1/2 mile

CAT II

83
Q

Take Off Procedure 50-400 feet

A

No turns

unless theres a specific departure procedure.

84
Q

What is the Crosswind limit on a runway contaminated by Compact Snow

A

20 kt

85
Q

Approach category for the Q400, single engine?

A

Category D

86
Q

Icing Condition Definition

A

Ground SAT 10 c and below
Air SAT 5 C and below

visible moisture and or VIS less a mile

Ice accretion is not considered to exist at temperatures -40 C

87
Q

Approach category for the Q400, straight in?

A

Category C

88
Q

Planned QNH

A

Cannot be .10 lower then the planned QNH

Example. Planned 29.92, then If the altimeter Is 29.82 you must get an OFP revision.

89
Q

When can we for certain consider the airplane is aerodynamically clean ?

A

When all the ice has been removed from the “visible” leading edges of the wing.

The Ice Detect message is not the primary means of detecting ice on the wings.

90
Q

Aerodata will default to Flap 5 for all departures unless weight restricted, then Flap 10 or 15 will be analyzed for departure.

We can consider reduced take off power as standard operating procedures, however.

Reduced Np Takeoff Power is Prohibited if :

“First Tail Wins Contest Aunti”

A
  • First flight of the day
  • Tailwind Exceeds 10 kt
  • Windshear is present
  • contaminated runway
  • Anti Skid Inop
91
Q

Describe the Autofeather test sequence

A

A/F select
A/F test in progress

Uptrim appears
ITT rises and power rating bugs increase
NTOP changes to MTOP

The reverse of the above happens followed by A/F test passed on the ED

92
Q

Maneuvering load Limit ( Flap Extended )

A

+2.0g

-0.0g

93
Q

Captain to Lead Flight Attendant Briefing during an emergency

” Land or water, put the airplane right “

A

1 Land or Water

2 Problem

3 Time

4 Announcements

5 Review the signals

94
Q

Takeoff with bleeds on are prohibited when :

A

Operations are done using maximum takeoff power and uptime is disabled

95
Q

Starter Cranking Limits

A

70 On - 2min Off
70 On - 2min Off
70 On - 30min Off

96
Q

Maximum Headwind component for CAT II

A

24 kt

97
Q

Take Off from contaminated runways are prohibited when the depths exceed;

A
  1. 7mm (.50 inch) Standing Water
  2. 7mm (.50 inch) Slush
  3. 0mm (.75 inch) Wet Snow
  4. 0mm (2.0 inch) Dry snow
98
Q

Responsibilities and Considerations for me following RTO ;

A

1 Evaluate

2 Communacte

3 Act

99
Q

CAT II Crosswind Limit

A

18 kt

100
Q

What are possible reasons to reject a take off ?

A

Engine Failure or Fire

Directional Control Issues

Tire failures

AF NOT Arming

Display failures

Take Off Warning Horn

Object On the Runway

101
Q

Usable Fuel

A

5,862 Ib

102
Q

Reduced Np Landings are prohibited if : (6)

“Ice Tails and 2 continue flight”

A
  • Landing with Vref (ice)
  • Tailwinds greater then 10 kt
  • Antiskid inop
  • CAT II
  • Contaminated Runways
  • Flight spoilers are in ground mode
103
Q

What is the Minimum Flap retraction Altitude

A

1000’ AFE, unless a specific procedure says other wise

104
Q

Maximum Landing Weight

A

62,000 lb

105
Q

Why do we not delete the NO LINK after and RNAV SID is programmed into the FMS ?

A

To prevent the FMS from auto sequencing to a waypoint that might not part of the last clearance limit.

106
Q

Can you enter the routing without having an ATC Clearance ?

For example at an uncontrolled airport and or ATC delays

A

Yes, however as soon as the clearance is received the routing must be verified as per the AOM

107
Q

What do we set the pressurization to for the destination airport ?

A

Field elevation plus 200’

108
Q

When would you count infant weights ?

A

When infants comprise more then 10% of the adults

109
Q

If you’re starting ENG #2 with the L1 Door open, for example If you’re using bridge power, what must you ensure in terms of doors and what is your call for the challenge and response to “ doors fuelling light “ ?

A

Ensure the fuelling light is out and the call is “ TO GO, LIGHTS OUT “

110
Q

What consideration must be taken into account if you have decided to delay ENG # 1 start and it’s snowing ?

A

If you’re taking off into known ICING, you must ensure that the engine temperatures have reached 55 degrees prior to departing into icing conditions.

111
Q

What considerations must you consider when selecting the NOSE steering switch to ON after engine starts ?

A

DO NOT select the switch to ON until you have positive verification the tow bar has been disconnected

112
Q

Let’s say you’re being pushed back with no headset and you need the tug to stop push, how do you signal them to stop ?

A

Continuous flashing of any light.

113
Q

What’s the temperature limitation for testing the windshield heat ?

A

20 Degrees and below.

114
Q

Can you test the prop heat when taxiing single engine ?

A

No you must have both engines running.

115
Q

When opening the engine Bypass doors, at what temperature may the HTR lights not illuminate ?

A

At temperatures above 15 degrees.

116
Q

How long does the WINSHIELD heat test take to complete ?

A

5 Min

117
Q

What and when do you set the ICE protection on the ground prior to departure

A

If icing conditions exist on the ground and or icing conditions exist below 1000 ‘ turn the Prop and Windshield heat ON

118
Q

What is the normal hydraulic pressure range for the # 1 and # 2 systems ?

A

2900-3100 psi

119
Q

What is the normal Hydraulic pressure range for the standby pressure ?

A

2800-3000psi

120
Q

What is the normal pressure for the # 3 hydraulic system ?

A

2400 - 3000 psi

The pressure is stored in an accumulator powered by a DC motor pump powered by the stand by battery.

121
Q

If there is forecast CBs or TCus along the route of flight the radar shall remain in what possession in the after starter flow ?

A

In Stand by and ON for the entire duration of the flight. Placing it on Stand will negate the need to wait 60 seconds for it to warm up.

It must never be ON on the ground

122
Q

When is Single Engine taxi Prohibited as per the AOM ?

A

It should only de done when time permits and reasonable distance to the take off runway will allow for sufficient time that will not create a delay for departure.

NOT ALLOWEd

When MELS

24 Electrical section
29 Hydraulic sections
32 Landing Gear

If landing 33s at Pearson, Not permitted.

123
Q

What is normal taxi speed ?

A

20 kts

In turns of 30 degrees or more, avoid taxi speeds greater then 10 kts

124
Q

What is maximum taxi speed in slush and icing on taxiways and ramps ?

A

10 kts

Excessive speeds during slush covered taxiways can result in slush contaminating the gear bays.

125
Q

What are the Procedures for for the last minute runway changes.

A

If a runway change or an intersection change that requires changing the flap setting, then considerations must be made to advise ATC of stopping the taxi and reviewing the appropriate speed, flap and power setting.

Reviewing numbers while taxing should be avoided.

126
Q

When will the TA ONLY switch to TA/RA after selecting the transponder to ON ALT ?

A

At 1100 AGL

127
Q

During the take off roll at approximately what speeds does the rudder become affective and what speed should the tiller steering be avoided ?

A

40-60 kts

Tiller use should be avoided at speeds above 20kts

128
Q

Describe the proper technique used to control the aircraft If it begins to side slip on a contaminated runway on take off and or during a rejected take off.

A

If using reverse, bring the power levers back into disc and release the breaks. This allows the tire cornering force to be used for alignment back onto the centreline of the runway. Maintain break pressure and allow the Anti skid to do its job. It will modulate the amount of pressure needed

Do not pump the breaks as this will prevent the Anti Skid properly

129
Q

Describe the proper technique used during crosswind take offs.

A

Firmly hold the control wheel. Use rudder to maintain centreline control.

Do no apply ailerons into wind as this will activate the spoilers and increase drag. After V1, you can gently apply ailerons into wind.

130
Q

Tail wind Take off are permitted up to 20 kts provided ?

Supplement 3

A
No contaminated runway in use
No Icing conditions
Appropriate take off data is varied and confirmed
Norm Np 
Flap 10 - 15 
Bleeds Off prior to Take Off
Nose wheel steering is operative 
Spoilers are operative in both ground and flight Mode 
Anti Skid operative 

NOTE: Take off rotation is less rapid then into wind takeoffs

131
Q

As Pilot monitoring, What parameters are you looking or when the Pilot Flying, calls “Set Power”

A

Verify power required matches within 1% of the actual output.
( this may take a few seconds after acceleration)

A/F Armed on ED

Spoiler Caution lights out and spoilers retraced on PFCS

132
Q

Describe the proper technique when rotating at V1

A

Pitch to 8 degrees to achieve lift off keeping in mind that excessive rotation to achieve pitch of 8 degrees can result in striking the tail

After rotation continue to a pitch of minimum of 10 degrees to achieve V2 +10 at 35’

133
Q

By what speeds should “ POWER SET” call out be made ?

A

Before 60 kts. This is a verification that all the take off parameters have been met and that the A/F has armed.

It is important to keep in mind that rejected take offs before 80 kts must take a careful consideration due to the high level of danger associated with hight speed rejected take offs.

134
Q

When do you call V1 ?

A

Slightly prior to reaching V1. This ensures completion of the call out by the time you reach V1, and take into account the reaction time needed to initiate the rejected take off prior to V1.

135
Q

Is Normal take off power always 90% ?

A

Not necessarily, Aerodata Will calculate the actual take off power required based and weight, altitude and temperature.

Your take off power setting for the first flight of the day may be higher in airports located in high elevations such as Calgary then say Toronto which is closer to sea level.

136
Q

How does Aerodata calculate V1 ?

A

Aerodata will consider a reduced V1 speed when calculating the direct coroation between weight and runway condition.

Dry, Wet or Contaminated runway- Max V1 may be reduced by a maximum payload.

In other words if, taking off on a short runway when its either wet and or contaminated, may be limited to a maximum weight for take off.

137
Q

What is your take off performance data based on ?

How is ASDA calculated ?

A

Power levers in the detent no later then 50 KIAS

A/F armed no later the 50% torque

An engine failure 1 second prior to V1, and recognizing it at V1

ASDA is calculated at 2 seconds after V1, then 1 second to execute the rejected take off ( disc and max breaking ) and stoping within the ASDA

Accelerate go and continue the take off and cross the departure end no later then 35’AAE or higher if required by an obstacle clearance limitations.

138
Q

How is your climb segments performance calculated ?

A

REF Zero - 35’ AAE or higher If limited by an obstacle

1st Segment- REF ZERO until gear up

2nd Segment- Gear up to acceleration/Flap retraction Alt

2.4 % climb gradient, with gear up flaps down and engine dead and feathered

3rd Segment- Level off retract flaps

4rd Segment- Vclimb with flaps up to 1500’ or higher

1.2 % Climb gradient with gear up flaps up and and MCP on the good engine

Obstacle clearance is based on the net take off path clearing all obstacles by 35’

Net take off path is the gross take off path ( what the plane will actual do ) reduced by 0.8 %

THE AIRPLANE MUST MEET ALL OF THESE CRITERIA BASED ON EXISTING ENVIRONMENTAL CONDITIONS

139
Q

What is the minimum speed to be flown during taking off in icing conditions before selecting the REF speed switch to ON ?

Describe the differences between FRA at 1000’ and FRA at altitudes above 1000’ in icing conditions.

A

Maintain a V2 +10 minimum after take off

Accelerate to Vclimb ice ( Vclimb + 20 ) until FRA then select the REF speed switch to ON. On initial detection of ice turn the ice protection to ON as required ( slow or fast )

If FRA is above 1000’

Maintain V2+10 on after take off

At 1000’ allow the aircrafts to accelerate V2+20 minimum before sleeting the REF speed switch ON. On initial detection of ice turn on the ice protection as required ( slow or fast )

Continue the climb to FRA and make sure airspeed is at or above Vfri +20, “FLAPS 0, BLEEDS ON, SET CLIMB POWER’

Airspeed continue climbing at minimum Vlimb+20

140
Q

What might be a good consideration with regards to the Prop setting when taking off lets say in moderate icing and or if you encounter severe icing after take off ?

A

Consider leaving the props at max ( 1020 ) rpm and do not engage the auto pilot if you encounter severe icing !

Be very careful when briefing non standard manipulations or settings with prop configurations as this may cause the PM to inadvertently bring the condition levers to start feather.

KEY LAW at porter !!

141
Q

What range should be set on at least on the MFD’s with respect to the limitations of TCAS and range limitations ?

A

At least one MFD should be set 40. This is the limit of the TCAS target display.

The range will automatically switch in the event of a TA to RA alert

142
Q

What is the minimum speed at which you can slow to at cruise ?

A

Vref + 25

143
Q

During decent you’re having a hard time slowing the aircraft. What is an acceptable way you can slow down ?

A

Condition levers to MAX

144
Q

Descent speeds ?

A

Normal decent speed should be Vmo -10 unless in turbulence than Vmo -15

145
Q

What speed do you fly on approach ?

A

Target Vref +5 plus and reduce to Vref on landing. In gusty conditions and 1/2 the gust factor up to a minimum of 10KIAS.

146
Q

How do we bug Icing Numbers when Icing Conditions below 800 AGL or Not Aerodynamically Clean

A

Bug all Icing Numbers

147
Q

How do we bug Icing Conditions when the Aircraft is Anticipated to be Aerodynamically Clean ?

A

Hybrid Icing Number

It is acceptable that when the aircraft is configured in the “Standard Plus” configuration and the aircraft is aerodynamically clean, the REF SPEEDS switch can be selected OFF. Normally, the decision to turn off this REF INCR SWITCH would be made prior to 800 FT AGL to ensure that AOM Stabilized Approach Criteria is adhered to. Very few situations require this procedure to be used and in most cases it will be preferable to leave the REF INCR SWITCH on until after touchdown.

Target VREF ICE to start and if the REF Speed switch is selected off then target VREF +5 KTS o The stabilized approach criteria must be followed.

The decision to select the Ref Speed Incr switch OFF on approach must be made early enough to allow the speed to decrease to the new target speed prior to 1000ft when in IMC.

148
Q

Delayed Flap Extension

A

In IMC gear down and flap 15 shall be be extended no later then FAF crossing.

In either case, IMC and or VMC the stabilized approach criteria must be adhered to.

149
Q

Close in runway changes

SIDE STEPS

A

If ATC request a last minute runway change in close vicinity of the airport, consider tuning in the nav aid and use in inbound course and glide path information.

150
Q

When do you set the missed approach altitude on approach ?

A

Either at Glide slope capture and no later then 1000’ AFE

151
Q

How do you prevent false LOC captures ?

A

Ensure you’re within 18 miles from the airport on the ILS and within 8 miles from

If using NAV to intercept track, wait until you’re within 1.5 miles from the track.

152
Q

If you’re flying a non precision LOC approach do you have to monitor the underlying navigational AID ?

A

NO

153
Q

RNP Approaches

A

Coming soon !!

154
Q

What are the SCDA limitations?

A

SCDA are not authorized at airports with remote altimeter setting

Final Approach course must be within 15 degrees of the runway centreline.

Decent angle is not less then 2.9 degrees and no greater then 4 degrees.

For decent angles greater then 3.5 degrees the approach ban limit increases to 75%

155
Q

What is the minimum equipment required for

A
  1. Barometric altimeter
  2. Radio Altimeter

EGPWS must be operational

156
Q

When do you add 50’ to DA when flying a SCDA approach ?

A

One engine inoperative

If weight limited by the landing wight in the go around climb performance

Anytime in the USA flying VNAV ( LOC approach or an NDB )
LPV you do not have to

157
Q

Describe the proper technique when landing on a contaminated runway.

A

Retard to idle then disc

Promptly bring the nose down

NO NOT pump the breaks. Let the Anti Skid do its job . Applying pressure allows the Anti Skid to moditor the onset of tire skidding and modulate the amount of break pressure.

If you start slipping down wind on the runway bring the power levers to idle, reduce break pressure , correct back to centreline then apply disc and and break again

158
Q

What is considered a low energy state in terms of landing and what are the hazards associate with go around attempts in this regime ?

A

Flaps and Gear down
Descending
Powers Levers light Idle
Below 50’

When an aircraft is in this low energy state, it can be said the decision to land has been made

Attempting to go around in this state should be the last option. Consider that something has gone wrong and the aircraft had likely become unstable prior and therefore it it always safer to initiate a go around before this state.

In extreme cases that a go around is initiated in the low energy state follow this technique to avoid a tail strike, however the chance of striking the tail remains high.

“Go around, Go around power, flaps___”
DO NOT pitch to 10 degrees
Arrest the decent rate and pitch to 5 degrees
Once stabilized in the go around increase pitch in the climb out.

159
Q

Go around/Bulk Landings must be initiated if the required visual reference is not established an or maintained when”

A

Reaching DH, MDA,MAP

After descending below minimums

Inside the FAF and LOC or G/S deviation by 1 DOT

LNAV or VNAV path is lost

Inside the FAF and a Master Caution light that is not a result of a previous existing condition

For example: HYD 2 failure, ROLL SPLR OUTBD will illuminate below 165 and SPLR OUTBD will illuminate below 150, and ROLL SPLR OUTBD GRND and ROLL SPLR INBD GRND will illuminate on landing

160
Q

The visual reference required for landing include;

A

Runway or Runway markings

TDZ markings

Approach lights

Approach slope indicator

(RILS)

Threshold and runway edge lights

Runway Centreline

161
Q

An Immediate go around must be initiated when;

A

The approach is not stabilized durning instrument approaches by 1000’ HAA or 500’ in VMC approaches

Landing cannot be made within the touchdown zone ( Target Zone )

Wherever either Pilot determines it’s necessary to do so ( If you don’t like something, CALL the go around )

Any system failure or master caution where the possible effect on landing cannot be assured without referencing a checklist

”"”WHEN EITHER PILOT CALLS A GO AROUND THE PROCEDURE MUST BE EXECUTED”””

162
Q

What are the recommended guidelines for executing a missed approach during a circle to and manoeuvre ?

A

There is no standard procedures for when this happens so it recommended that you;

Initiate a climb

Turn towards the field

And attempt to fly the published missed approach as closely as a safely possible

163
Q

Describe the proper use of HDG SEL vs LNAV during a missed approach and the “go around calls”

A

If flying an ILS, set HDG SEL first than switch to LNAV.

If flying an RNAV approach then select LNAV.

“Positive rate”

“Set HDG, ALT SEL, CHECK MISSED APPROACH ALTITUDE”

‘SET LNAV,ALT SEL, CHECK MISSED APPROACH ALTITUDE “

164
Q

Standard MAY DAY

A

Souls on board
Fuel on board
Dangerous Goods

165
Q

What would you consider good causes to reject prior to V1

A

Master Warning

Engine failures or fires ( including abnormal engine indications )

Directional control issues

Primary Flight instrument failures

Auto-feather not Arming

166
Q

Rejected Take Off after 80 knots

A

Serious considerations should be taken when deciding to reject after 80 knots. Master Caution lights after 80 knots, its safer to continue even though you’re still before V1

Before 80 kts, you should reject for the following;

Caution warning of System Failures ( cascading ) example HYD failures

Unusual noises
Tire failures
Or anything that seems unsafe

167
Q

So can we reject after V1 ?

A

In highly and unusual and extreme situations yes you can. However, in the overwhelming majority of cases, a rejected take off above V1 will put the aircraft in much greater danger then continuing the take off and coming back to land.

Interesting facts

1% of rejected take offs happened near V1, but 50% of accidents in the past 30 years involving rejected take offs happened when the decision was made to reject after V1. ( More runway is not always the safest consideration)

25% of those incidents involved loss of engine thrust and 25% incidents involved tire failures.

80% incidents/accidents were preventable had proper procedures been flying.

168
Q

Do all rejected take off require commanding for the on ground emergencies QRC ?

A

Only call for the on ground emergency if there’s an engine fire or engine failure, fire or smoke and possibly a loss of controllability on the take off roll. Or anything where the integrity of the aircraft and passenger safety is compromised.

For example; let’s say the fuselage master warning light. Stop the aircraft and call for the QRH, get red one to check the the aircraft and taxi off.

If you suspect that an evacuation will be required then likely you will be calling for the on ground emergency QRC.

Consider the following when making decisions after rejected take offs

Wheel plugs melting
Clearing the runway
Rapid deplaning VS an evacuation
Crash fire rescue

169
Q

Describe the proper technique for controlling the aircraft with engine malfunctions after V1 and lift off ( Vr )

A

Maintain directional control by smoothy applying rudder proportional with power loss.

At Vr rotate smoothly to achieve pitch 10 degrees but be cautious that excessive pith of 8 degrees can result in striking the tail.

170
Q

If the engine out procedure requires a turn at flap retraction altitude the FGCP shall be set in the following order;

A

1 Set ALT

2 Set heading

3 Retract the flap on schedules

171
Q

Describe the proper technique for engine failures in cruise

A

Maintain directional control ( fly the aircraft ) remember the affects of being being startled !!!

Set power as required
Set power lever on the good engine as required
Set condition lever on the good engine as required

172
Q

Suspected tire failure during or after take off.

A

It is recommended that you carry on to the destination airport unless there is an indication that other damage has occurred. For example airplane vibrations and or Hydraulic failures

Continuing to the destination or a suitable airport, will allow sufficient time to properly plan for landing. In particular landing over weight

Considerations when selecting a suitable airport when landing with a tire failure

Runway length and width ( possibility of loss of control onlanding )
Altitude temperature ( high ground speed on landing )
Fire crash and rescue services

173
Q

Landing on a Flat Tire

A

Use normal flare landing technique but most importantly avoid landing overweight.

With a single main tire failure ( towing is not necessary ) but use best judgment

Use differential breaking to maintain control after touchdown.

174
Q

Let’s talk about the Startle affect, and what happens to us and how can we mitigate this threat when abnormalities happen while we’re flying ?

A

Cognitive impairment for up to 30 seconds

Psychomotor impairment for up to 10 seconds

Disorganized communication

With proper training, regularly briefing emergency scenarios and being well rehearses and prepared to face abnormalities we can mitigate this threat.

Suggest that when faced with an abnormality and or an emergency focus on the “basics” initially.

” what is my airspeed, altitude and power setting “ then say “ what’s the problem ?

STAY CALM !!!!!!

175
Q

Partial or Gear up Landing

What are some methods we can use to trouble shoot and confirm the gear is down and locked in the event that 3 gear down and locked are not observed.

A

The landing gear is extended and retracted via the normal Extension/Retraction system.

Run the caution and advisory lights and confirm 3 green lights
( this is in the event that a light bulb is burned out )

Run the Anti Skid test.
( ensure the INDB/OUTBD caution lights come on then off)

Use the alternate gear indication system to varying its down

Other possible reasons why the normal retraction system has failed is that;

Gear pins left on
Nose gear ground lock left out
Alternate release door open
Inhibit switch not in the normal position.

Once it has been determined that the normal gear and retraction has failed, then the alternate gear and extension procedure must be followed.

DO NOT CYCLE THE GEAR !!

As the landing gear anomaly is likely unknown, cycling of the gear may create a more difficult lading gear configuration that may have no procedural guidance.

176
Q

Alternate Gear Extension

A

The Q 400 was certified to to have an alternate means of extending the gear in the event that the normal system based on a standard set of common failures.

Multiple system failures, compounding failures, structural failures are not required for certification of the alternate gear extension.

177
Q

Do you have to do a fly by after an alternate gear Extension ?

A

A tower fly by can be performed if needed for confirmation of the position of the landing gear. You don’t need to if other methods are used to confirm the position of the gear.

For example you can not with any other methods determine for certain the position of the landing gear then it may be a good idea to perform a fly by If its safe and weather permits.

178
Q

Nose gear up and main gear down landings.

Let’s discuss some good techniques and overall considerations in this unlikely event.

A

There are situations that present themselves that have no procedural guidance in the AFM and or the QRH. After the normal and alternate gear Extension have failed to extend the gear and all troubleshooting methods have failed to confirm the position of the gear, then the crew must decide to either reset the alternate gear Extension system and re cycle the gear and or attempt a nose gear up landing.

Reduce landing weight by reducing fuel
Choose a suitable airport
Move pax to achieve an aft C of G
Flap 35
If centreline lighting, land offset of the centreline lights
Keep the nose up

It has been demonstrated that Q400 can land safely with the nose gear up and the main gears down and locked. The geometry of the aircraft is such that the propellers will not make contact with the runway.

179
Q

How do you reset the alternate landing gear system ?

A
  1. Make sure the No.2 HYD system is indicating normal pressure.

Select lever is amber
Nose gear red
Main gears green
Doors are all amber

Basically return everything to it’s normal position and ensure LND GEAR INOP light has extinguished then attempt to cycle the gear in order to achieve all three gear and locked

180
Q

All gear up landing, techniques and considerations.

A

It is possible to safely land the Q400 with all landing gear up. The geometry is so that the propellers should not come in contact with the runway.

The following are used as considerations

Reduce landing weight by burning fuel
Move pax from seats located near the propellers if able
Land with flap 35
Once the aircraft has stopped shut down and secure the engines

181
Q

One main gear unsafe and nose and opposite main down and locked.

A

In this situation the crew can decide to reset the the alternate gear extension

182
Q

Rapid depressurization techniques and considerations

A

The captain shall will assume control of the aircraft
The autopilot is recommended for the maneuver
Unless unable, continued flight should be conducted below 10K

ATC will normally provide a safe altitude, however the MFD will provide the highest and lowest pixilated obstacle within the selected range.

183
Q

Standard Engine Failure Takeoff Path
(Simple)

IMC
VMC

A

Below 1000’ AFE

IMC- Climb straight ahead to the 1000’ AFE, turn to the heading or Navaid then retract flap, continue at vlcimb to the safe altitude and or after 1000’ radar vectors may be accepted

VMC- Climb to 1000’ feet return for landing

After 1000’ AFE

IMC- Turn to the heading or Navaid , after 1000’ radar vectors may be accepted

VMC- Return for a visual circuit and or an IFR approach.

184
Q

Simple Special Engine Failure Procedures

A

The difference between the a standard engine failure vs a simple special is that a turn to a heading or navaid is required prior to reaching 1000’ AFE

IMC- Mandatory
VMC- Mandatory up until 1000 AFE

V2 - Only listed If different then standard engine failure profile

VIA- Only listed if the initial heading is different then the initial
Runway heading. VIA headings can be made after 50 ‘

Reaching. Upon reaching a DME point or when an altitude is stated, whichever comes first.