Anxiety disorders Flashcards

1
Q

1) How is anxiety often first recognised?
2) Who is more commonly affected by anxiety disorders?
3) Name the 4 categories of aetiology for anxiety.

A

1) Anxiety is often first recognised by its physical symptoms.
2) Anxiety disorders tend to affect women roughly twice as much as men.
3) Genetics, early experiences and life events, neurochemical theories and behavioural and cognitive theories.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

1) People with high neuroticism scores are more likely to experience what feelings?
2) What have twin studies of anxiety shown overlap between?
3) What childhood experiences can predispose to anxiety?
4) What types of life events are especially prone to being a predisposition to anxiety?
5) With regards to genetics, who have higher rates of anxiety disorders?

A

1) Anxiety, guilt, depression, anger and feelings of being easily overwhelmed by minor frustrations.
2) Depression and GAD.
3) Childhood adversity.
4) Life events can trigger anxiety disorders, especially if they are experienced as threatening (e.g. possible redundancy).
5) Relatives of people with anxiety disorders have higher rates of these disorders than the general population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

1) Which 3 neurotransmitters are thought to be dysregulated in anxiety disorders?
2) Why are these neurotransmitters thought to be implicated in the cause of anxiety disorders?
3) Which 3 classes of drugs can be used for anxiety symptoms?

A

1) Serotonin, NA and GABA.
2) Because they are the target of drugs that can successfully combat anxiety symptoms.
3) SSRIs (serotonin), TCAs (NA) and BDZs (GABA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 4 behavioural and cognitive theories of anxiety disorders.

A

1) Classical conditioning: repeated pairing of a neutral stimulus with frightening one results in a fear reaction to the neutral stimulus.
2) Negative reinforcement: behaviours that relieve anxiety are repeated. This prevents habituation, so escaping a fearful stimulus maintains the fear response.
3) Cognitive theories: worrying thoughts are repeated in an automatic way which both induces and maintains the anxiety response.
4) Attachment theory: The quality of attachment between children and parents affects their confidence as adults (insecurely attached children become anxious adults).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1) Briefly describe the basis of generalised anxiety disorder.
2) How long do GAD symptoms need to be present before a diagnosis can be made?
3) Describe the basis of phobic anxiety disorders.
4) What do severe cases of GAD also have?

A

1) Anxiety is not triggered by a specific stimulus but instead is continuous and free-floating. Life is a worry where past mistakes and future imagined catastrophes occupy the mind ceaselessly.
2) Symptoms must be present for at least 6 months, although the intensity may fluctuate.
3) Intermittent anxiety occurs in specific but quite ordinary circumstances.
4) Severe cases have panic attacks as well.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name 7 differential diagnoses for generalised anxiety disorders.

A

1) Hyperthyroidism: look for goitre, tremor, tachycardia, weight loss, arrhythmia and exophthalmos.
2) Substance misuse: intoxication (amphetamines) and withdrawal (BDZs/ alcohol).
3) Excess caffeine.
4) Depression: anxiety is a common feature of depression and depression complicates anxiety.
5) Anxious (avoidant) personality disorder: from late adolescence onwards, the patient describes themselves as an anxious person, with no major recent increase in anxiety levels.
6) Dementia: anxiety may be an early feature of this.
7) Schizophrenia: anxiety may occur before delusions and hallucinations are evident.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

1) What do patients with phobic anxiety disorder characteristically do?
2) What is agoraphobia?
3) State 3 common problem situations for agoraphobics.
4) Describe the onset of agoraphobia.
5) If full blown depression and GAD are present, what would you diagnose?
6) What would you diagnose if there are low level depressive and anxiety symptoms present equally together, neither of which justify diagnosis alone?

A

1) Avoid feared situations.
2) Fear of being unable to easily escape to a safe place. It is fear of open spaces and fear of situations that are confined and difficult to leave without attracting attention.
3) travelling on trains, planes or buses/ queuing/ supermarkets/ large crowds/ parks/ sitting in the middle row of the cinema.
4) Onset is commonly in the 20’s or mid-thirties and may be gradual or precipitated by a sudden panic attack.
5) Diagnose them both.
6) Mixed anxiety and depressive disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List 4 differential diagnoses for agoraphobia.

A

1) Depression: can cause social withdrawal and is commonly co-morbid with agoraphobia.
2) Social phobia: the fear here is of scrutiny of humiliation.
3) OCD: time-consuming rituals can confine people to their home.
4) Schizophrenia: patients may stay at home because of social withdrawal or as a way of avoiding perceived persecutors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

1) What is social phobia?
2) Describe the onset of social phobia.
3) What is a main difference between social phobia and agoraphobia?
4) What do patients with social phobia complain about the most?

A

1) The core fear in social phobia is of being scrutinised or criticised by other people and patients often worry that they will embarrass themselves in public.
2) Onset is normally in the late teens, with men and women affected equally.
3) Patients with social phobia will tolerate an anonymous crowd, unlike agoraphobic patients, but find small groups very intimidating. In social phobia, there are sometimes specific worries such as eating in public.
4) Embarrassing symptoms such as blushing, trembling, sweating and urinary frequency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Give 6 differential diagnoses for social phobia.

A

1) Shyness: some people are naturally shy and and feel uncomfortable in social situations. In social phobia, there is overt fear.
2) Agoraphobia: the need to get somewhere safe is greater than the fear of scrutiny.
3) Anxious (avoidant) personality disorder: there is a lifelong history of disabling shyness and anxiety.
4) Poor social skills/ autism spectrum disorder: people who are socially awkward will not show good social skills when relaxed - they remain awkward.
5) Benign essential tremor: familial and worse in social situations and responds to BDZs and alcohol. No other features of anxiety.
6) Schizophrenia/ psychosis: patients may avoid social situations because of paranoia or because they have delusions that they are being watched. Patients with social phobia will recognise that their fears are exaggerated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

1) What are specific phobias?
2) When do specific phobias often develop?
3) What do specific phobias result in?
4) What can blood, needle and injury phobias cause?
5) What should you do with needle phobic patients before commencing venipuncture?

A

1) These are phobias which are restricted to a single, specific situation.
2) They often develop during childhood but can sometimes begin later, usually after a frightening experience.
3) Avoidance and in severe cases, disability.
4) A strong vasovagal reaction leading to bradycardia and low BP.
5) Lay patients flat before taking blood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

1) What is panic disorder also known as?
2) Describe what happens during panic disorder.
3) What is a panic attack?

A

1) Episodic paroxysmal anxiety.
2) Anxiety is intermittent and without an obvious trigger - it comes ‘out of the blue’.
3) A sudden attack of extreme (100%) anxiety with accompanying physical symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

List 5 symptoms that patients suffering a panic attack might experience.

A

1) Breathing difficulties/ choking feelings.
2) Chest discomfort/ tightness.
3) Palpitations
4) Tingling or numbess in the hands/ feet/ around the mouth.
5) Depersonalisation/ derealisation.
6) Shaking
7) Dizziness/ faints
8) Sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1) What does a patient suffering a panic attack commonly feel?
2) What are safety behaviours?
3) How long do panic attacks usually last for?
4) What needs to occur in order for panic disorder to be diagnosed?

A

1) They commonly fear that they will die, lose control, become incontinent, or go mad.
2) Actions that are adopted to avert catastrophe that a patient may engage in to provide reassurance.
3) They are self-limiting and usually last no more than 30 minutes.
4) There must be recurrent panic attacks (preferably several within a month) and in between episodes, the patient should be relatively free of anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What 4 investigations will you need to carry out in a patient with suspected anxiety?

A

1) Good Hx and physical examination will establish whether an organic cause is likely and may prompt further investigations.
2) Rating scales: Beck anxiety inventory and the HADS. These can assess severity and provide baseline scores against which to measure treatment response.
3) Social and occupational assessments for effects of quality of life.
4) Collateral Hx.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name 5 management strategies used in the initial help phase of management for patients with anxiety.

A

1) Advice and reassurance: might be enough to prevent early or mild symptoms from worsening. Psychoeducation helps patients to understand their illness.
2) Basic counselling: addresses the patient’s worries.
3) A problem solving approach: can help to identify and deal with stressors.
4) Self-help material: CBT based books and computer programmes. Encourage people to rely on their natural supports such as friends, family and faith groups.
5) Relaxation techniques and breathing exercises: taught in person or using manuals/ tapes and must be mastered whilst calm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

1) What is the idea behind relaxation techniques and breathing exercises?
2) What is the aim of CBT in treating anxiety disorders?
3) How does CBT often begin in patients with anxiety?
4) What do subsequent CBT sessions for anxiety then focus on?
5) What happens over time with CBT for anxiety patients?

A

1) Reciprocal inhibition as it is not possible to both panic and relax at the same time, so practised relaxation can negate panic.
2) CBT aims to reduce the patients expectation of threat and the behaviours that maintain threat-related beliefs.
3) Therapy often starts with education about the physiology of anxiety and techniques for managing arousal, such as relaxation and controlled breathing.
4) They explore the actual likelihood and impact of the anticipated catastrophe.
5) More adaptive coping mechanisms are learnt which replace the u helpful behaviours which once maintained the anxiety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

1) Name the 2 psychological therapies used to treat patients with anxiety disorders.
2) What is the main feature of GAD?
3) Give 2 responses to the worry experienced in GAD.
4) What does CBT for GAD consist of?

A

1) CBT and exposure therapy.
2) Worry
3) Behavioural responses to worry include avoidance and reassurance seeking.
4) Testing predictions of worry with behavioural experiments and looking at errors in thinking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1) What might panic disorder be triggered by?
2) What maintains the problem in panic disorder?
3) What does CBT do for patients with panic disorder?

A

1) Misinterpretation of physical anxiety symptoms as signs of major catastrophe.
2) Safety behaviours are adopted which merely reinforce beliefs. Since no catastrophe occurs, the conclusion is that the remedial behaviour prevented it, maintaining the problem.
3) Educates the patient on the true meaning of their symptoms. It helps them test whether their behaviours really keep them safe and whether their beliefs are true or misinterpretations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

1) When is exposure therapy used as part of the CBT approach?
2) What is habituation?
3) In the absence of actual harm, how long can the body remain extremely anxious for?
4) How is exposure therapy usually delivered?
5) What do repeated attempts at activities in exposure therapy cause?

A

1) When there are strong elements of avoidance and escape, for example, with phobias.
2) Habituation is ‘getting used to a fear’, so that anxiety decreased until the fear dies out (extinction).
3) A relatively short time (about 45 minutes).
4) Through a gradual approach called ‘desensitisation’. A hierarchy of feared situations is developed, and the patient tackles each step as weekly homework starting with the easiest and working upwards.
5) They cause the anxiety to decrease more quickly each time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

1) In social phobias, what does the patient engage in?

2) What does therapy for social phobias involve?

A

1) Safety behaviours and excessive self-monitoring to reduce the risk of embarrassment.
2) Dropping ‘safety behaviours’ whilst exposing the patient to social situations in order to challenge their assumptions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name 5 classes of drugs that can be used as pharmacological treatment for anxiety.

A

1) SSRIs: Fluoxetine and Paroxetine which treat many anxiety disorders and may be combined with CBT.
2) TCAs: Clompiramine and Imipramine.
3) Buspirone: Serotonin partial agonist.
4) BDZs.
5) Beta blockers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

1) Describe the doses of SSRIs used for anxiety disorders.
2) When can tricyclic antidepressants be used for anxiety disorders?
3) What class of drug is Buspirone?
4) Why is busiprone not very popular to use for anxiety disorders?

A

1) Therapeutic doses for anxiety are generally higher than those for depression, and response takes longer (6-8 weeks).
2) They can be used if patients don’t tolerate or respond to SSRIs.
3) Serotonin partial agonist.
4) Although it is non-dependency forming, it is not very popular because if its delayed action and dysphoric side effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

1) What type of pharmacological treatment are BDZs used for?
2) What is a main negative of use of BDZs in anxiety disorders?
3) What is the maximum time that BDZs can be used for anxiety?
4) GABA transmission in the brain interacts with which receptor?
5) Give the main 3 side effects of BDZs.

A

1) BDZs can be useful for short-term anxiety treatments.
2) Tolerance builds rapidly and patients become quickly dependent.
3) 2-4 weeks.
4) The GABA-A receptor which is a ligand-gated chloride ion channel.
5) Amnesia, ataxia and respiratory depression, especially in elderly patients with pre-existing respiratory disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

1) What can beta blockers be used for in anxiety disorders?
2) Why must you take caution when prescribing beta blockers for anxiety?
3) Why is there little use for medications in specific phobias?
4) What is a better prognosis for anxiety disorders associated with?

A

1) They are sometimes used to treat the adrenergic symptoms that social phobia patients find so disturbing.
2) Because there are many contraindications to beta-blockade.
3) Because there are usually intermittent problems.
4) Early diagnosis and treatment are essential, as the shorter the duration of symptoms, the better the prognosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe the rule of thirds for prognosis in anxiety disorders.

A

1) 1/3 recover completely.
2) 1/3 improve partially
3) 1/3 fare poorly, suffering considerable disability and poor quality of life.

27
Q

1) What can patients with OCD not ignore?
2) What may delay presentation of patients with OCD?
3) In any year, what percentage of the population are affected by OCD?
4) Who is affected most by OCD?

A

1) They cannot ignore anxiety-producing thoughts and may try to relieve them with rituals (compulsions).
2) Because people with OCD are often ashamed of their illness.
3) OCD affects 1% of the population in any year.
4) OCD affects men and women equally.

28
Q

1) Who is at a 3 fold increased risk of developing OCD?
2) What personality disorder traits do a quarter of patients with OCD have premorbidly?
3) What is a main precipitant of OCD?
4) Which part of the brain is particularly implicated in OCD and why is this thought to be?

A

1) Relatives of patients with OCD, but means of transmission is unknown.
2) Anankastic personality traits (rigidity/ orderliness).
3) Stress may precipitate symptoms of OCD.
4) The basal ganglia are implicated, since they are affected by illnesses in which the risk of OCD is increased: Sydenham’s chorea, encephalitis lethargic and Tourette’s syndrome.

29
Q

1) What have been demonstrated in people who develop OCD following a streptococcal throat infection?
2) Neuro-imaging studies have linked OCD with a deficit in what?
2a) What does this suggest?

A

1) Anti-basal ganglia antibodies have been demonstrated in people who develop OCD following a streptococcal throat infection (streptococcal infection also causes Sydenham’s chorea).
2) They have linked OCD with a deficit in frontal-lobe inhibition.
2a) This suggests that intrusive or ritualistic thoughts might be harder to suppress in OCD.

30
Q

1) What are obsessions?
2) In OCD, the thoughts are unpleasant, but what does the patient recognise them as?
3) How do obsessions make the patient feel?
4) How is the tension or discomfort often ‘undone’ or neutralised in OCD?

A

1) Recurrent unwanted intrusive thoughts, images or impulses that enter the patient’s mind, despite attempts to resist them.
2) The patient recognises the thoughts to be irrational and their own (unlike delusions or thought insertion).
3) Acutely uncomfortable or anxious, and sometimes they feel responsible for the damage that their thoughts might do.
4) By a compulsion.

31
Q

Name 4 themes that obsessions are often concerned with in OCD.

A

1) Contamination
2) Aggression (thoughts of harming self or others)
3) Infection
4) Morality (commonly sex/ religion).

32
Q

1) What are compulsions?
2) Name 4 common compulsions.
3) What percentage of patients with OCD will experience depressive symptoms?

A

1) Repeated, stereotyped and seemingly purposeful rituals that the patient feels compelled to carry out, even though they are irrational and may lack any obvious link to the obsession.
2) Cleaning, counting, checking and ordering objects.
3) Up to 50% patients with OCD experience depressive symptoms.

33
Q

Give 5 differential diagnoses for OCD.

A

1) Anxiety disorders: obsessional symptoms are less prominent than other anxiety symptoms.
2) Depression: Obsessions can occur within depression. If an episode meets the criteria for depression, this takes priority.
3) Anankastic personality disorder: a lifelong personality of rigidity, often with very high standards or orderliness and hygiene. The pattern of obsessions and compulsions is absent unless OCD is superimposed.
4) Schizophrenia: beliefs are delusional, not obsessional.
5) Organic causes: rare (e.g. Sydenham’s chorea).

34
Q

Describe 4 aspects of management for patients with OCD.

A

1) Education
2) Self-help
3) CBT: exposure and response prevention.
4) SSRIs are effective in OCD as is Clomipramine.

35
Q

1) What is the aim of CBT in patients with OCD?
2) What is used for patients with CBT in exposure therapy?
3) As well as SSRIs, what other drug is useful in OCD?

A

1) CBT aims to prevent compulsive behaviour, allowing the tolerated anxiety to habituate.
2) A hierarchy of feared situations is used, as in exposure therapy. This therapy is effective with well-motivated patients.
3) Clomipramine.

36
Q

Describe the prognosis of OCD.

A

1) Tends to run a chronic course.
2) Symptoms tend to worsen at times of stress.
3) Often disabling and commonly comorbid with depression.

37
Q

1) What is an acute stress reaction regarded as?
2) Describe the course of the acute stress reaction.
3) Describe a typical patient with an acute stress reaction.

A

1) An understandable ‘state of shock’ that can follow traumatic events.
2) The state is transient, starting within minutes of the trauma and resolving spontaneously within hours (1-3 days maximum).
3) Person is usually anxious, but may seem dazed and ‘in a dream world’. They may experience amnesia for the event as well as depersonalisation and derealisation. Patients are often disorientated, agitated, irritable, panicky or even aggressive.

38
Q

1) What can be used to alleviate extreme short term distress in acute stress reaction?
2) What might increase the likelihood of later PTSD.
3) What does PTSD often follow?

A

1) BDZs, but they do not prevent later PTSD.
2) More formal, immediate and psychological ‘debriefing’ (being required to describe the trauma and your emotional response to it) may increase the likelihood of later PTSD.
3) A traumatic event that is often experienced as ‘life-threatening’.

39
Q

What must the event suffered or witnessed by a patient be in order to diagnose PTSD?

A

The event suffered or witnessed by the patient must be ‘an event of an exceptionally threatening or catastrophic nature likely to cause pervasive stress in anyone’.

40
Q

1) What is the 1 year prevalence of PTSD?
2) What is the lifetime prevalence of PTSD?
3) In civilian life, who is at a higher risk of developing PTSD?
4) Give 3 factors that increase the risk of experiencing PTSD.
5) What percentage of people who experience extreme trauma develop PTSD?

A

1) 3.5%
2) 6.8%.
3) Women.
4) Aspects that increase the risk of PTSD incline the degree of exposure, proximity and human design.
5) 10%.

41
Q

1) What do twin studies show about PTSD?
2) Name 4 risk factors for PTSD.
3) Give 3 factors which can perpetuate PTSD.
4) Describe what happens to the amygdala in PTSD.
5) Describe what happens to the hippocampus in PTSD.

A

1) That around a third of the variance in susceptibility is genetic.
2) neurotic traits, a personal or family history of psychiatric problems, childhood abuse and poor early attachment.
3) ‘Survivor’s guilt’ and continual exposure to the trauma or other stressors can perpetuate symptoms.
4) Responsible for emotional processing and is hyperactive in PTSD.
5) Responsible for memory storage and is atrophied in PTSD.

42
Q

1) When does PTSD usually begin following a trauma?

2) What are the 3 classic groups of symptoms in a patient with PTSD?

A

1) PTSD usually begins within 6 months following the trauma.

2) Re-experiencing, avoidance and hyperarousal.

43
Q

Describe the 3 symptoms in the ‘re-experiencing’ category of PTSD.

A

1) Flashbacks: vividly reliving the trauma and feeling as though it is ‘happening all over again’.
2) Nightmares.
3) Intrusive memories: being unable to keep the mind clear of memories of what happened.

44
Q

1) Despite fragmented recollections in PTSD, what might the patient have difficulties with?
2) Give 2 differential diagnoses for PTSD.
3) Why is it important to be flexible and sensitive when working with PTSD patients?

A

1) Remembering the entire episode voluntarily.
2) Depression/ anxiety disorder (both common responses to severe stress) and adjustment disorder.
3) Because they can be ‘re-traumatised’ through their interactions with services.

45
Q

Describe the factors implicated in the ‘avoidance’ category of PTSD.

A

1) Avoiding reminders of the event (these often trigger flashbacks and increase anxiety).
2) People often try avoiding thinking about the trauma.

46
Q

List the 6 symptoms implicated in the ‘hyperarousal’ category in PTSD.

A

1) Persistent inability to relax.
2) Hypervigilence: the patient feels as thought they are always on ‘red alert’
3) Enhanced startle reflex (exaggerated reaction to the unexpected).
4) Insomnia
5) Poor concentration
6) Irritability.

47
Q

Aside from the main 3 categories of symptoms, give 3 other signs/ symptoms of PTSD.

A

1) Emotional detachment (‘numbness’)
2) Decreased interest in activities.
3) Powerful emotions including anger, loss of control, shame and uncontrollable crying.

48
Q

Name the 2 psychological treatments that can be used for PTSD.

A

1) CBT

2) EMDR

49
Q

1) What is an important aspect of CBT in treating a patient with PTSD?
2) What happens in EMDR therapy for patients with PTSD?
3) What is EMDR thought to aid in recovery from PTSD?

A

1) Exposure therapy is an important aspect of CBT, supporting the patient to work through their memories.
2) The original trauma is deliberately re-experienced in as much detail as possible. While doing this, they fix their eyes on the therapists finger as it quickly passes from side to side in front of them. Eye movements can be replaced by an alternating left and right stimulus.
3) It is thought to aid in memory processing.

50
Q

1) What is first line pharmacological treatment for patients with PTSD?
2) Preferably, what should pharmacological treatment be used in combination with when treating patients with PTSD?
3) What can chronicity of PTSD lead to?
4) When can symptoms of PTSD tend to re-surface?
5) Briefly describe the overall prognosis of PTSD.

A

1) SSRIs.
2) Psychological therapies.
3) Enduring personality change.
4) At anniversaries associated with the trauma.
5) The majority of patients recover, although some suffer for many years.

51
Q

What happens in adjustment disorders?

A

The person’s reaction is deemed greater than usually expected for the situation, but not severe enough to diagnose an anxiety or depressive disorder.

52
Q

When do symptoms of adjustment disorders tend go start and end?

A

Symptoms start within a month of the stressor and resolve within 6 months.

53
Q

What 3 things are often needed to manage a patient with adjustment disorder?

A

Support, reassurance and problem-solving are often all that are needed to manage adjustment disorder.

54
Q

Name 3 psychological symptoms of anxiety.

A

1) Fears/worries
2) Poor concentration
3) Irritability
4) Depersonalisation/ derealisation
5) Insomnia
6) Night terrors

55
Q

Name 3 motor symptoms of anxiety.

A

1) Restlessness
2) Fidgeting
3) Feeling ‘on edge’/ unable to relax

56
Q

Name 3 neuromuscular symptoms of anxiety.

A

1) Trembling/ tremor
2) Headache (tension)
3) Muscle aches (especially neck and back)
4) Feeling dizzy, light-headed or unsteady
5) Tinnitus

57
Q

Name 3 GI symptoms of anxiety.

A

1) Dry mouth
2) Difficulty swallowing
3) Nausea
4) Indigestion/ stomach pains
5) Butterflies
6) Flatulence
7) Frequent or loose motions

58
Q

Name 2 cardiovascular symptoms of anxiety.

A

1) Chest discomfort

2) Palpitations/ feeling heart ‘pound’.

59
Q

Name 2 respiratory symptoms of anxiety.

A

1) Difficulty inhaling

2) ‘Tight’ constricted chest

60
Q

Name 3 genitourinary symptoms of anxiety.

A

1) Urinary frequency
2) Erectile dysfunction
3) Amenorrhoea

61
Q

Give 3 organic causes of anxiety that cause a continuous anxiety pattern.

A

1) Hyperthyroidism
2) Caffeine
3) Alcohol

62
Q

Name 6 organic causes of anxiety that produce an episodic anxiety pattern.

A

1) Caffeine
2) Alcohol
3) Drugs
4) Arrhythmia
5) Hypoglycaemia
6) Phaeochromocytoma

63
Q

State what investigations you would do to confirm/ exclude the following organic causes of anxiety:

1) Hyperthyroidism
2) Alcohol
3) Drugs
4) Arrhythmia
5) Hypoglycaemia
6) Phaeochromocytoma

A

1) TFTs
2) LFTs/ Gamma-GT/ MCV
3) UDS
4) ECG/ 24-hour ECG
5) Glucose (while anxious)
6) 24 hour urine for VMA