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Antipsychotics Flashcards

1
Q

Schizophrenia is a disorder caused by:
a. Infections.
b. Nutritional deficiencies.
c. Inherent dysfunction of the brain.
d. Hormonal imbalances.

A

c. Inherent dysfunction of the brain.

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2
Q

Which of the following are symptoms of schizophrenia?
a. Increased appetite and weight gain
b. Improved cognitive function
c. Enhanced speech clarity
d. Delusions, hallucinations, and thinking or speech disturbances

A

d. Delusions, hallucinations, and thinking or speech disturbances

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3
Q

What percentage of the population has schizophrenia?
a. 0.5%
b. 2%
c. 1%
d. 5%

A

c. 1%

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4
Q

Schizophrenia typically affects people during:
a. Childhood
b. Late adolescence or early adulthood
c. Middle age
d. Old age

A

b. Late adolescence or early

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5
Q

The prevalence of schizophrenia is:
a. Higher in men
b. Higher in women
c. Equal in men and women
d. Unknown

A

c. Equal in men and women

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6
Q

Schizophrenia is considered a:
a. Temporary disorder
b. Mild disorder
c. Disabling disorder
d. Rare disorder

A

c. Disabling disorder

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7
Q

Schizophrenia has a strong:
a. Environmental component
b. Social component
c. Genetic component
d. Nutritional component

A

c. Genetic component

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8
Q

Schizophrenia may be due to dysfunction of which neuronal pathways?
a. Serotonergic
b. Noradrenergic
c. Mesolimbic or mesocortical dopaminergic
d. Cholinergic

A

c. Mesolimbic or mesocortical dopaminergic

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9
Q

Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
a. Blunted emotions
b. Anhedonia
c. Hallucinations
d. Lack of feeling

A

c. Hallucinations

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10
Q

Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following except:
a. Hallucinations
b. Lack of feeling
c. Delusions
d. Disorganized thought

A

b. Lack of feeling

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11
Q

Negative symptoms of schizophrenia are characterized by:
a. Hallucinations
b. Perception disturbances
c. Blunted emotions
d. Disorganized thought

A

c. Blunted emotions

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12
Q

A symptom of schizophrenia that affects cognition is:
a. Blunted emotions
b. New learning difficulties
c. Hallucinations
d. Social withdrawal

A

b. New learning difficulties

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13
Q

Mood symptoms in schizophrenia include:
a. Hallucinations
b. Delusions
c. Disorganized thought
d. Loss of motivation

A

d. Loss of motivation

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14
Q

Which of the following is not a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
a. Blunted emotions
b. Hallucinations
c. Anhedonia
d. Lack of feeling

A

b. Hallucinations

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15
Q

Symptoms of schizophrenia that involve perception disturbances are classified as:
a. Positive symptoms
b. Negative symptoms
c. Cognitive symptoms
d. Mood symptoms

A

a. Positive symptoms

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16
Q

Repeated administration of stimulants like amphetamines and cocaine, which enhance central dopaminergic neurotransmission, can cause:
a. Improved cognitive function
b. Psychosis that resembles the positive symptoms of schizophrenia
c. Increased emotional stability
d. Decreased motivation

A

b. Psychosis that resembles the positive symptoms of schizophrenia

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17
Q

Low doses of amphetamine can induce:
a. Hallucinations in healthy individuals
b. A psychotic reaction in schizophrenics in remission
c. Cognitive enhancement in patients
d. Increased social interaction

A

b. A psychotic reaction in schizophrenics in remission

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18
Q

Stress, a major predisposing factor in schizophrenia, can produce:
a. Increased appetite
b. Improved mood
c. Enhanced cognitive function
d. A psychotic state in recovered amphetamine addicts

A

d. A psychotic state in recovered amphetamine addicts

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19
Q

The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia suggests that:
a. Decreased dopaminergic activity is the primary cause
b. Only genetic factors contribute to schizophrenia
c. Enhanced central dopaminergic neurotransmission can lead to psychosis
d. Schizophrenia is unrelated to neurotransmitter activity

A

c. Enhanced central dopaminergic neurotransmission can lead to psychosis

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20
Q

Antipsychotics are also known as:
a. Neuroleptics
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antidepressants
d. Hypnotics

A

a. Neuroleptics

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21
Q

Antipsychotics are primarily used to treat:
a. Anxiety disorders
b. Bipolar disorder
c. Depression
d. Schizophrenia

A

d. Schizophrenia

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22
Q

Antipsychotics are:
a. Not curative and don’t eliminate the fundamental and chronic thoughts
b. Curative and eliminate all symptoms
c. Effective in curing schizophrenia completely
d. Used only for short-term treatment

A

a. Not curative and don’t eliminate the fundamental and chronic thoughts

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23
Q

The primary action of antipsychotics in treating schizophrenia is:
a. Increasing dopaminergic neurotransmission
b. Decreasing dopaminergic and/or serotonergic neurotransmission
c. Enhancing cognitive function
d. Increasing emotional stability

A

b. Decreasing dopaminergic and/or serotonergic neurotransmission

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24
Q

Antipsychotics help to decrease the intensity of:
a. Cognitive deficits
b. Hallucinations and delusions
c. Social interactions
d. Physical symptoms

A

b. Hallucinations and delusions

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25
Q

Antipsychotics represent several diverse:
a. Monocyclic structures
b. Linear structures
c. Simple structures
d. Heterocyclic structures with marked different potencies

A

d. Heterocyclic structures with marked different potencies

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26
Q

Antipsychotic drugs are divided into:
a. First- and second-generation agents
b. Short- and long-acting agents
c. Rapid- and slow-onset agents
d. Immediate- and delayed-release agents

A

a. First- and second-generation agents

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27
Q

First-generation antipsychotic drugs are further classified as:
a. Low potency or high potency
b. Short duration or long duration
c. Rapid onset or slow onset
d. Immediate release or delayed release

A

a. Low potency or high potency

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28
Q

The classification of antipsychotic drugs does NOT indicate:
a. Affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor
b. Clinical effectiveness of the drugs
c. Adverse effect profile
d. Generation of the drug

A

b. Clinical effectiveness of the drugs

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29
Q

Which of the following is a low potency first-generation antipsychotic?
a. Haloperidol (Haldol)
b. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
c. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
d. Pimozide (Orap)

A

b. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

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30
Q

A high potency first-generation antipsychotic is:
a. Thioridazine (Mellaril)
b. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
c. Haloperidol (Haldol)
d. Clozapine (Clozaril)

A

c. Haloperidol (Haldol)

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31
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics include:
a. Haloperidol (Haldol)
b. Thioridazine (Mellaril)
c. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
d. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

A

c. Aripiprazole (Abilify)

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32
Q

First-generation antipsychotics’ classification is based on:
a. Affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor
b. Clinical effectiveness
c. Duration of action
d. Onset of action

A

a. Affinity for the dopamine D2 receptor

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33
Q

Which antipsychotic is classified as a second-generation agent?
a. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
b. Thioridazine (Mellaril)
c. Risperidone (Risperdal)
d. Haloperidol (Haldol)

A

c. Risperidone (Risperdal)

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34
Q

Which antipsychotic is classified as a second-generation agent?
a. Haloperidol (Haldol)
b. Thioridazine (Mellaril)
c. Quetiapine (Seroquel)
d. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

A

c. Quetiapine (Seroquel)

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35
Q

Which antipsychotic is classified as a second-generation agent?
a. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
b. Pimozide (Orap)
c. Clozapine (Clozaril)
d. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

A

c. Clozapine (Clozaril)

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36
Q

Which antipsychotic is classified as a second-generation agent?
a. Thioridazine (Mellaril)
b. Fluphenazine (Prolixin)
c. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
d. Haloperidol (Haldol)

A

c. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)

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37
Q

First-generation antipsychotics work by:
a. Competitive blocking of D2 dopamine receptors
b. Enhancing serotonergic transmission
c. Blocking GABA receptors
d. Increasing norepinephrine levels

A

a. Competitive blocking of D2 dopamine receptors

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38
Q

First-generation antipsychotics are more likely to be associated with:
a. Weight gain
b. Sedation
c. Movement disorders
d. Increased appetite

A

c. Movement disorders

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39
Q

Which first-generation antipsychotic is more likely to cause movement disorders due to its tight binding to dopaminergic neuroreceptors?
a. Haloperidol
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Thioridazine
d. Fluphenazine

A

a. Haloperidol

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40
Q

First-generation antipsychotics that bind weakly to dopaminergic neuroreceptors, such as chlorpromazine, are:
a. More effective
b. Less likely to cause movement disorders
c. More likely to cause sedation
d. Less effective

A

b. Less likely to cause movement disorders

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41
Q

No one first-generation antipsychotic drug is:
a. More likely to cause weight gain
b. More likely to be sedative
c. Clinically more effective than another
d. Less likely to cause movement disorders

A

c. Clinically more effective than another

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42
Q

Second-generation antipsychotic drugs are also known as:
a. Atypical antipsychotics
b. Typical antipsychotics
c. Conventional antipsychotics
d. Standard antipsychotics

A

a. Atypical antipsychotics

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43
Q

Compared to first-generation antipsychotics, second-generation antipsychotics are associated with:
a. Fewer extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
b. Higher incidence of movement disorders
c. Increased dopamine receptor binding
d. Lower clinical effectiveness

A

a. Fewer extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

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44
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics have a higher risk of:
a. Improved cognitive function
b. Metabolic side effects, such as diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and weight gain
c. Decreased weight
d. Lower cholesterol levels

A

b. Metabolic side effects, such as diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and weight gain

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45
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of second-generation antipsychotics?
a. Higher incidence of EPS
b. Lower risk of metabolic side effects
c. Higher risk of metabolic side effects
d. Lower clinical effectiveness

A

c. Higher risk of metabolic side effects

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46
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics are preferred over first-generation antipsychotics because they:
a. Have no side effects
b. Are more effective in all patients
c. Cause fewer extrapyramidal symptoms
d. Are less expensive

A

c. Cause fewer extrapyramidal symptoms

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47
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics can lead to:
a. Weight loss
b. Improved lipid profile
c. Weight gain
d. Hypoglycemia

A

c. Weight gain

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48
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics are commonly selected to:
a. Minimize the risk of debilitating movement disorders
b. Increase the risk of EPS
c. Reduce metabolic side effects
d. Enhance cognitive function

A

a. Minimize the risk of debilitating movement disorders

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49
Q

When selecting an antipsychotic drug, it is important to consider:
a. Only the cost of the drug
b. The side effects experienced by other patients
c. Individual patient response and comorbid conditions
d. The marketing claims of the drug manufacturer

A

c. Individual patient response and comorbid conditions

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50
Q

Second-generation drugs should not be considered interchangeable because:
a. They all have the same efficacy
b. They have no side effects
c. They are less effective than first-generation drugs
d. Patients may respond differently to each drug in this class

A

d. Patients may respond differently to each drug in this class

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51
Q

Which of the following is a reason to prefer second-generation antipsychotics over first-generation antipsychotics?
a. Higher incidence of EPS
b. Less effective in symptom management
c. Reduced risk of debilitating movement disorders
d. Interchangeability among all drugs in the class

A

c. Reduced risk of debilitating movement disorders

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52
Q

Individual patient response and comorbid conditions are crucial in guiding:
a. Marketing strategies
b. Drug pricing
c. Drug selection
d. Regulatory approvals

A

c. Drug selection

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53
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics should not be used interchangeably because:
a. They are more expensive
b. They all have the same potency
c. Different patients may have different responses to each drug
d. They have identical side effect profiles

A

c. Different patients may have different responses to each drug

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54
Q

Antipsychotics exert their effects by:
a. Dopamine receptor-blocking activity in the brain
b. Enhancing serotonergic transmission
c. Increasing GABA receptor activity
d. Blocking norepinephrine receptors

A

a. Dopamine receptor-blocking activity in the brain

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55
Q

There are how many types of dopamine receptors in the brain?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6

A

c. 5

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56
Q

Which dopamine receptors are considered inhibiting neurons?
a. D1, D5
b. D2, D5
c. D2, D3, D4
d. D1, D3, D5

A

c. D2, D3, D4

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57
Q

Dopamine receptors D1 and D5 are:
a. Exciting neurons
b. Inhibiting neurons
c. Not involved in antipsychotic drug action
d. Exclusively found in the periphery

A

a. Exciting neurons

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58
Q

Neuroleptic drugs bind to dopamine receptors to:
a. Enhance dopamine activity
b. Increase neurotransmitter release
c. Varying degrees
d. Decrease dopamine synthesis

A

c. Varying degrees

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59
Q

Which of the following is true about the binding of neuroleptic drugs to dopamine receptors?
a. They bind equally to all dopamine receptors
b. They do not affect dopamine transmission
c. They bind to these receptors to varying degrees
d. They only bind to D1 receptors

A

c. They bind to these receptors to varying degrees

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60
Q

The primary mechanism of action for antipsychotics involves blocking which neurotransmitter’s receptors?
a. Serotonin
b. Dopamine
c. Norepinephrine
d. GABA

A

b. Dopamine

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61
Q

All first-generation and most second-generation antipsychotics block:
a. Dopamine receptors in the brain and the periphery
b. Serotonin receptors in the brain
c. Norepinephrine receptors in the periphery
d. GABA receptors in the brain

A

a. Dopamine receptors in the brain and the periphery

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62
Q

The ability to block D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system is associated with:
a. Reduced side effects
b. Increased cognitive function
c. Clinical efficacy
d. Lower cost

A

c. Clinical efficacy

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63
Q

Which antipsychotic is 100 times more potent toward D2 receptors than chlorpromazine?
a. Haloperidol
b. Clozapine
c. Olanzapine
d. Risperidone

A

a. Haloperidol

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64
Q

Clozapine has a higher affinity for which dopamine receptor?
a. D1
b. D4
c. D2
d. D5

A

b. D4

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65
Q

The atypical antipsychotic clozapine has:
a. Lower affinity for D2 receptors and higher affinity for D4 receptors
b. Higher affinity for D2 receptors and lower affinity for D4 receptors
c. Equal affinity for all dopamine receptors
d. No affinity for dopamine receptors

A

a. Lower affinity for D2 receptors and higher affinity for D4 receptors

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66
Q

The actions of antipsychotic drugs are antagonized by:
a. Serotonin agonists
b. Levodopa, amphetamines, and bromocriptine
c. GABA antagonists
d. Norepinephrine agonists

A

b. Levodopa, amphetamines, and bromocriptine

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67
Q

Antipsychotic drugs block dopamine receptors, which results in:
a. Increased dopamine release
b. Decreased dopamine activity
c. Enhanced dopaminergic transmission
d. Unchanged dopamine levels

A

b. Decreased dopamine activity

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68
Q

Which drugs can antagonize the effects of antipsychotic medications?
a. Levodopa, amphetamines, and bromocriptine
b. SSRIs, benzodiazepines, and tricyclic antidepressants
c. Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium channel blockers
d. Antihistamines, decongestants, and muscle relaxants

A

a. Levodopa, amphetamines, and bromocriptine

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69
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics exert part of their unique effect by:
a. Inhibition of serotonin receptors (5-HT), particularly 5-HT2A receptors
b. Enhancing dopamine receptor activity
c. Blocking norepinephrine receptors
d. Increasing GABAergic transmission

A

a. Inhibition of serotonin receptors (5-HT), particularly 5-HT2A receptors

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70
Q

The serotonin receptor specifically inhibited by most second-generation antipsychotics is:
a. 5-HT1A
b. 5-HT2A
c. 5-HT3
d. 5-HT4

A

b. 5-HT2A

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71
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics differ from first-generation antipsychotics by:
a. Their ability to inhibit serotonin receptors (5-HT)
b. Their stronger dopamine receptor blockade
c. Causing more extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
d. Having fewer metabolic side effects

A

a. Their ability to inhibit serotonin receptors (5-HT)

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72
Q

Inhibition of which receptor is a key mechanism of action for most second-generation antipsychotics?
a. D1
b. 5-HT2A
c. D4
d. 5-HT1B

A

b. 5-HT2A

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73
Q

The unique effect of second-generation antipsychotics is partly due to their action on:
a. Serotonin receptors
b. Dopamine receptors
c. GABA receptors
d. Norepinephrine receptors

A

a. Serotonin receptors

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74
Q

Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of most second-generation antipsychotics?
a. Enhancing norepinephrine transmission
b. Blocking 5-HT2A receptors
c. Increasing dopamine receptor sensitivity
d. Reducing GABA activity

A

b. Blocking 5-HT2A receptors

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75
Q

Clozapine has a high affinity for all of the following receptors except:
a. D1
b. D4
c. 5-HT2
d. D2

A

d. D2

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76
Q

Which antipsychotic is a weak dopamine D2-receptor antagonist?
a. Clozapine
b. Risperidone
c. Aripiprazole
d. Quetiapine

A

a. Clozapine

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77
Q

Risperidone primarily blocks:
a. D1 receptors
b. Muscarinic receptors
c. α-adrenergic receptors
d. 5-HT2A receptors > D2 receptors

A

d. 5-HT2A receptors > D2 receptors

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78
Q

Aripiprazole acts as a partial agonist at which receptors?
a. D1 and 5-HT2
b. D4 and α-adrenergic
c. D2 and 5-HT1A
d. Muscarinic and D4

A

c. D2 and 5-HT1A

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79
Q

Which antipsychotic blocks D2 receptors more than 5-HT2A receptors?
a. Clozapine
b. Risperidone
c. Aripiprazole
d. Quetiapine

A

d. Quetiapine

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80
Q

Which antipsychotic has a high affinity for muscarinic and α-adrenergic receptors?
a. Clozapine
b. Risperidone
c. Aripiprazole
d. Quetiapine

A

a. Clozapine

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81
Q

Aripiprazole blocks which serotonin receptor?
a. 5-HT1A
b. 5-HT2B
c. 5-HT2A
d. 5-HT3

A

c. 5-HT2A

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82
Q

Quetiapine has a greater affinity for which receptor?
a. 5-HT1A
b. D4
c. D2 receptors > 5-HT2A receptors
d. α-adrenergic receptors

A

c. D2 receptors > 5-HT2A receptors

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83
Q

Antipsychotic actions are primarily due to:
a. Blockade at dopamine and/or serotonin receptors
b. Enhancement of norepinephrine activity
c. Blockade of GABA receptors
d. Stimulation of acetylcholine receptors

A

a. Blockade at dopamine and/or serotonin receptors

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84
Q

Antipsychotic drugs reduce which type of symptoms most effectively?
a. Positive symptoms (hallucinations and delusions)
b. Negative symptoms (blunted affect, anhedonia, apathy)
c. Cognitive symptoms (impaired attention, cognitive impairment)
d. Motor symptoms

A

a. Positive symptoms (hallucinations and delusions)

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85
Q

Which of the following is a positive symptom reduced by antipsychotics?
a. Blunted affect
b. Anhedonia
c. Impaired attention
d. Hallucinations

A

d. Hallucinations

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86
Q

Antipsychotic drugs have a lesser effect on which type of symptoms?
a. Positive symptoms
b. Negative symptoms
c. Motor symptoms
d. Peripheral symptoms

A

b. Negative symptoms

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87
Q

Which of the following is considered a negative symptom that antipsychotics can reduce to a lesser extent?
a. Hallucinations
b. Anhedonia
c. Delusions
d. Euphoria

A

b. Anhedonia

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88
Q

The therapeutic effects of antipsychotic drugs usually take:
a. Hours to occur
b. Minutes to occur
c. Several days to weeks to occur
d. Instantly

A

c. Several days to weeks to occur

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89
Q

The therapeutic effect of antipsychotic drugs is related to:
a. Primary changes in the mesolimbic pathway
b. Immediate dopamine receptor blockade
c. Secondary changes in the corticostriatal pathway
d. Immediate serotonin receptor blockade

A

c. Secondary changes in the corticostriatal pathway

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90
Q

Which symptom is less likely to be affected by antipsychotic treatment?
a. Hallucinations
b. Delusions
c. Cognitive impairment
d. Agitation

A

c. Cognitive impairment

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91
Q

Many second-generation antipsychotic agents, such as clozapine, can:
a. Ameliorate the negative symptoms to some extent
b. Increase the severity of negative symptoms
c. Only treat positive symptoms
d. Completely eliminate all symptoms

A

a. Ameliorate the negative symptoms to some extent

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92
Q

All antipsychotic drugs have what type of effect?
a. Stimulant
b. Calming
c. Hallucinogenic
d. Euphoric

A

b. Calming

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93
Q

Antipsychotic drugs reduce:
a. Intellectual functioning
b. Cognitive enhancement
c. Spontaneous physical movement
d. Coordination

A

c. Spontaneous physical movement

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94
Q

In contrast to CNS depressants like barbiturates, antipsychotics do not:
a. Affect dopamine receptors
b. Have any calming effects
c. Depress intellectual functioning of the patient as much
d. Reduce hallucinations

A

c. Depress intellectual functioning of the patient as much

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95
Q

Compared to barbiturates, antipsychotics have minimal impact on:
a. Positive symptoms
b. Delusions
c. Serotonin receptors
d. Motor coordination difficulties

A

d. Motor coordination difficulties

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96
Q

Clozapine is an example of a second-generation antipsychotic that:
a. Increases motor activity
b. Ameliorates negative symptoms to some extent
c. Has no effect on negative symptoms
d. Primarily acts as a CNS depressant

A

b. Ameliorates negative symptoms to some extent

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97
Q

Antipsychotic drugs, unlike barbiturates, primarily aim to:
a. Increase cognitive function
b. Reduce hallucinations and delusions
c. Enhance physical activity
d. Depress the CNS significantly

A

b. Reduce hallucinations and delusions

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98
Q

Extrapyramidal effects of antipsychotics include:
a. Dystonias, Parkinson-like symptoms, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia
b. Sedation, weight gain, increased appetite, and dry mouth
c. Cognitive enhancement, improved mood, and increased energy
d. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia

A

a. Dystonias, Parkinson-like symptoms, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia

99
Q

Dystonias are characterized by:
a. Muscle weakness
b. Sustained contraction of muscles leading to twisting and distorted postures
c. Increased muscle relaxation
d. Enhanced motor coordination

A

b. Sustained contraction of muscles leading to twisting and distorted postures

100
Q

Parkinson-like symptoms caused by antipsychotics include:
a. Tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia
b. Increased physical activity and hyperactivity
c. Enhanced cognitive function and memory
d. Improved mood and emotional stability

A

a. Tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia

101
Q

Akathisia is defined as:
a. Muscle stiffness and rigidity
b. Decreased motor activity
c. Motor restlessness
d. Enhanced physical endurance

A

c. Motor restlessness

102
Q

Tardive dyskinesia involves:
a. Increased muscle strength
b. Enhanced motor coordination
c. Involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, neck, trunk, and limbs
d. Decreased physical activity

A

c. Involuntary movements of the tongue, lips, neck, trunk, and limbs

103
Q

Blocking dopamine receptors in which pathway is likely to cause unwanted movement symptoms?
a. Mesolimbic pathway
b. Corticostriatal pathway
c. Nigrostriatal pathway
d. Serotonergic pathway

A

c. Nigrostriatal pathway

104
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics exhibit:
a. Higher incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms
b. No extrapyramidal symptoms
c. Lower incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms
d. Increased cognitive side effects

A

c. Lower incidence of extrapyramidal symptoms

105
Q

Which of the following symptoms is least likely to be caused by second-generation antipsychotics?
a. Motor restlessness
b. Involuntary movements
c. Muscle twisting and distorted postures
d. Cognitive impairment

A

d. Cognitive impairment

106
Q

Antipsychotic drugs generally have antiemetic effects by:
a. Blocking D2 dopaminergic receptors of the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
b. Enhancing serotonergic transmission in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
c. Blocking histamine receptors in the gut
d. Increasing acetylcholine activity in the chemoreceptor trigger zone

A

a. Blocking D2 dopaminergic receptors of the chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla

107
Q

Which of the following antipsychotics does not exhibit antiemetic effects?
a. Aripiprazole
b. Haloperidol
c. Chlorpromazine
d. Olanzapine

A

a. Aripiprazole

108
Q

Thioridazine is an exception in terms of:
a. Causing extrapyramidal symptoms
b. Exhibiting antiemetic effects
c. Enhancing cognitive function
d. Increasing motor coordination

A

b. Exhibiting antiemetic effects

109
Q

The antiemetic effect of antipsychotics is primarily due to:
a. Blocking serotonin receptors
b. Blocking D2 dopaminergic receptors
c. Blocking norepinephrine receptors
d. Blocking GABA receptors

A

b. Blocking D2 dopaminergic receptors

110
Q

Which receptor blockade is responsible for the antiemetic effects of antipsychotic drugs?
a. D2 dopaminergic receptors
b. 5-HT2 serotonin receptors
c. H1 histamine receptors
d. α-adrenergic receptors

A

a. D2 dopaminergic receptors

111
Q

Blocking D2 receptors in which area of the brain leads to antiemetic effects?
a. Hypothalamus
b. Cerebellum
c. Chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla
d. Hippocampus

A

c. Chemoreceptor trigger zone of the medulla

112
Q

Aripiprazole and thioridazine differ from other antipsychotics in that they:
a. Do not have antiemetic effects
b. Have stronger antiemetic effects
c. Cause more extrapyramidal symptoms
d. Are more effective in treating positive symptoms

A

a. Do not have antiemetic effects

113
Q

Antipsychotics with anticholinergic effects can cause:
a. Blurred vision, dry mouth, confusion, constipation, and urinary retention
b. Increased salivation, diarrhea, and increased urination
c. Enhanced cognitive function and memory
d. Improved motor coordination

A

a. Blurred vision, dry mouth, confusion, constipation, and urinary retention

114
Q

Which antipsychotic increases salivation instead of causing dry mouth?
a. Thioridazine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Clozapine
d. Olanzapine

A

c. Clozapine

115
Q

Anticholinergic effects of antipsychotics include all except:
a. Blurred vision
b. Confusion
c. Constipation
d. Diarrhea

A

d. Diarrhea

116
Q

Clozapine is unique among antipsychotics because it:
a. Causes severe dry mouth
b. Does not affect salivation
c. Increases salivation
d. Has no anticholinergic effects

A

c. Increases salivation

117
Q

Which antipsychotic is known for causing constipation and urinary retention due to its anticholinergic effects?
a. Thioridazine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Clozapine
d. Olanzapine

A

b. Chlorpromazine

118
Q

Dry mouth, a common anticholinergic effect, is least likely to be caused by:
a. Thioridazine
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Clozapine
d. Olanzapine

A

c. Clozapine

119
Q

Inhibition of gastrointestinal and urinary tract smooth muscle by antipsychotics can lead to:
a. Increased gastrointestinal motility
b. Diarrhea
c. Frequent urination
d. Constipation and urinary retention

A

d. Constipation and urinary retention

120
Q

Which of the following antipsychotics is associated with anticholinergic effects?
a. Haloperidol
b. Thioridazine
c. Ziprasidone
d. Lurasidone

A

b. Thioridazine

121
Q

Orthostatic hypotension and light-headedness caused by antipsychotics are due to:
a. Blockade of alpha receptors
b. Blockade of dopamine receptors
c. Blockade of serotonin receptors
d. Blockade of histamine receptors

A

a. Blockade of alpha receptors

122
Q

Antipsychotics can alter temperature regulation and produce:
a. Hyperthermia
b. Hypothermia
c. Poikilothermia
d. Fever

A

c. Poikilothermia

123
Q

Increased prolactin release due to antipsychotic use is caused by:
a. Blockade of alpha receptors
b. Blockade of D2 receptors in the pituitary gland
c. Blockade of serotonin receptors
d. Blockade of histamine receptors

A

b. Blockade of D2 receptors in the pituitary gland

124
Q

Sedation caused by antipsychotics is due to:
a. Blockade of dopamine receptors
b. Blockade of alpha receptors
c. Antagonism of histamine receptors
d. Antagonism of serotonin receptors

A

c. Antagonism of histamine receptors

125
Q

Which antipsychotics are known to cause sedation due to histamine receptor antagonism?
a. Haloperidol and risperidone
b. Aripiprazole and ziprasidone
c. Chlorpromazine, olanzapine, and clozapine
d. Quetiapine and lurasidone

A

c. Chlorpromazine, olanzapine, and clozapine

126
Q

Sexual dysfunction is a side effect associated with:
a. Antipsychotics
b. Antiemetics
c. Anxiolytics
d. Stimulants

A

a. Antipsychotics

127
Q

Blockade of which receptor is primarily responsible for orthostatic hypotension and light-headedness in patients taking antipsychotics?
a. Alpha receptor
b. Dopamine receptor
c. Serotonin receptor
d. Histamine receptor

A

a. Alpha receptor

128
Q

The term “poikilothermia” refers to:
a. Increased body temperature
b. Condition in which body temperature varies with the environment
c. Decreased body temperature
d. Constant body temperature

A

b. Condition in which body temperature varies with the environment

129
Q

Not all patients with schizophrenia respond to:
a. Antipsychotic treatment
b. Psychotherapy alone
c. Lifestyle changes
d. Nutritional supplements

A

a. Antipsychotic treatment

130
Q

Complete normalization of behavior in schizophrenia is:
a. Often achieved
b. Easily achieved with first-generation antipsychotics
c. Seldom achieved
d. Guaranteed with second-generation antipsychotics

A

c. Seldom achieved

131
Q

First-generation antipsychotics are more effective at alleviating:
a. Positive symptoms
b. Negative symptoms
c. Cognitive symptoms
d. Motor symptoms

A

a. Positive symptoms

132
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics are known to:
a. Consistently alleviate negative symptoms
b. More alleviate negative symptoms (but not consistent)
c. Only treat positive symptoms
d. Be ineffective in treatment-resistant patients

A

b. More alleviate negative symptoms (but not consistent)

133
Q

Clozapine is reserved for treatment of individuals who:
a. Respond well to other neuroleptics
b. Do not have any severe side effects
c. Have mild symptoms of schizophrenia
d. Are not responded to other neuroleptic

A

d. Are not responded to other neuroleptic

134
Q

Why is clozapine reserved for treatment-resistant patients?
a. It is the most effective antipsychotic for all patients
b. It is associated with blood dyscrasia and other severe side effects
c. It has no side effects
d. It is the least expensive option

A

b. It is associated with blood dyscrasia and other severe side effects

135
Q

First-generation antipsychotics are more effective at treating:
a. Positive symptoms
b. Negative symptoms
c. Both positive and negative symptoms equally
d. Only cognitive symptoms

A

a. Positive symptoms

136
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics may be used for patients who:
a. Have no side effects from first-generation antipsychotics
b. Respond well to all medications
c. Are resistant to first-generation antipsychotics
d. Have only cognitive symptoms

A

c. Are resistant to first-generation antipsychotics

137
Q

Which antipsychotic is most commonly used for severe drug-induced nausea?
a. Prochlorperazine
b. Haloperidol
c. Clozapine
d. Olanzapine

A

a. Prochlorperazine

138
Q

Nausea arising from motion should be treated with:
a. Antipsychotic drugs
b. Antidepressants
c. Sedatives, antihistamines, and anticholinergics
d. Anticonvulsants

A

c. Sedatives, antihistamines, and anticholinergics

139
Q

For nausea and vomiting, which of the following is preferred over powerful antipsychotic drugs like scopolamine?
a. Antidepressants
b. Anticonvulsants
c. Sedatives, antihistamines, and anticholinergics
d. Antipsychotic drugs

A

c. Sedatives, antihistamines, and anticholinergics

140
Q

Prochlorperazine is specifically used for:
a. Severe drug-induced nausea
b. Motion sickness
c. Anxiety disorders
d. Depression

A

a. Severe drug-induced nausea

141
Q

The treatment of choice for motion sickness-induced nausea is:
a. Prochlorperazine
b. Sedatives, antihistamines, and anticholinergics
c. Antipsychotic drugs
d. Antidepressants

A

b. Sedatives, antihistamines, and anticholinergics

142
Q

Antipsychotics can be used as:
a. Tranquilizers
b. Stimulants
c. Antibiotics
d. Antidepressants

A

a. Tranquilizers

143
Q

In combination with narcotic analgesics, antipsychotics can treat chronic pain with:
a. Depression
b. Severe anxiety
c. Hypertension
d. Insomnia

A

b. Severe anxiety

144
Q

Chlorpromazine is specifically used to treat:
a. Severe depression
b. Motion sickness
c. Intractable hiccups
d. Chronic pain

A

c. Intractable hiccups

145
Q

Promethazine is not a good antipsychotic drug because it is primarily used for:
a. Anxiety
b. Its antihistamine effect
c. Pain relief
d. Sedation

A

b. Its antihistamine effect

146
Q

Which antipsychotics are used to treat motor and phonic tics of Tourette disorder?
a. Chlorpromazine and promethazine
b. Pimozide and haloperidol
c. Risperidone and aripiprazole
d. Clozapine and olanzapine

A

b. Pimozide and haloperidol

147
Q

Risperidone and aripiprazole can be used to manage:
a. Severe depression
b. Disruptive behavior and irritability secondary to autism
c. Chronic pain
d. Hypertension

A

b. Disruptive behavior and irritability secondary to autism

148
Q

For the treatment of pruritis, which drug is used due to its antihistamine effect?
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Haloperidol
c. Aripiprazole
d. Promethazine

A

d. Promethazine

149
Q

Antipsychotics used in combination with narcotic analgesics are particularly effective in managing:
a. Chronic hypertension
b. Severe depression
c. Chronic pain with severe anxiety
d. Sleep disorders

A

c. Chronic pain with severe anxiety

150
Q

Antipsychotics have:
a. Uniform absorption
b. Variable absorption
c. No absorption
d. Consistent absorption

A

b. Variable absorption

151
Q

Antipsychotics can:
a. Readily pass into the brain
b. Be blocked by the blood-brain barrier
c. Not enter the brain
d. Only affect peripheral organs

A

a. Readily pass into the brain

152
Q

Antipsychotics are characterized by a:
a. Small volume of distribution
b. Limited volume of distribution
c. Minimal volume of distribution
d. Large volume of distribution

A

d. Large volume of distribution

153
Q

Long-acting injectable (LAI) formulations of antipsychotics have a duration of:
a. 1 to 2 days
b. 1 to 2 weeks
c. 2 to 4 weeks
d. 4 to 6 weeks

A

c. 2 to 4 weeks

154
Q

LAI formulations are often used to treat:
a. Inpatients with high compliance
b. Patients with acute symptoms only
c. Outpatients who are noncompliant with oral medications
d. Patients without any compliance issues

A

c. Outpatients who are noncompliant with oral medications

155
Q

One benefit of LAI antipsychotics is:
a. Increased physical dependence
b. Higher rate of oral medication compliance
c. More severe extrapyramidal symptoms
d. Lower extrapyramidal symptoms and little physical dependence

A

d. Lower extrapyramidal symptoms and little physical dependence

156
Q

Which statement is true about LAI formulations of antipsychotics?
a. They have a short duration of action
b. They increase physical dependence
c. They are useful for noncompliant patients
d. They do not pass into the brain

A

c. They are useful for noncompliant patients

157
Q

Adverse effects of antipsychotics occur in:
a. All patients
b. No patients
c. Only some patients
d. Rarely

A

a. All patients

158
Q

Significant adverse effects of antipsychotics occur in about:
a. 20 percent of patients
b. 50 percent of patients
c. 80 percent of patients
d. 100 percent of patients

A

c. 80 percent of patients

159
Q

Despite the array of side effects, antipsychotics have a:
a. Low therapeutic index
b. Moderate therapeutic index
c. Variable therapeutic index
d. High therapeutic index

A

d. High therapeutic index

160
Q

Which of the following is an adverse effect of antipsychotics?
a. Increased energy
b. Enhanced cognitive function
c. Urinary retention
d. Improved mood

A

c. Urinary retention

161
Q

Antipsychotic-induced sedation is considered:
a. A rare side effect
b. An infrequent side effect
c. Nonexistent
d. A common side effect

A

d. A common side effect

162
Q

Sexual dysfunction is a significant side effect of:
a. Antipsychotic drugs
b. Antibiotic drugs
c. Antiviral drugs
d. Antifungal drugs

A

a. Antipsychotic drugs

163
Q

Weight gain is a common adverse effect associated with:
a. Antidepressants
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antipsychotics
d. Anticonvulsants

A

c. Antipsychotics

164
Q

Extrapyramidal symptoms are:
a. Symptoms of anxiety
b. Movement disorders
c. Symptoms of depression
d. Cognitive enhancements

A

b. Movement disorders

165
Q

Antipsychotics can cause arrhythmias and:
a. Sudden cardiac death
b. Improved cardiac function
c. Decreased heart rate
d. Hypertension

A

a. Sudden cardiac death

166
Q

Postural hypotension is an adverse effect of:
a. Antipsychotics
b. Antidepressants
c. Anxiolytics
d. Antihistamines

A

a. Antipsychotics

167
Q

Dry mouth is a side effect commonly seen with:
a. Antibiotics
b. Antipsychotics
c. Antivirals
d. Antifungals

A

b. Antipsychotics

168
Q

Seizures can be induced by:
a. Antidepressants
b. Anxiolytics
c. Antipsychotics
d. Antihistamines

A

c. Antipsychotics

169
Q

Extrapyramidal side effects occur due to the imbalance between:
a. Serotonergic and adrenergic neurons
b. GABAergic and glutamatergic neurons
c. Dopaminergic and cholinergic neurons
d. Norepinephrinergic and serotonergic neurons

A

c. Dopaminergic and cholinergic neurons

170
Q

Blocking dopamine receptors causes:
a. Increased dopaminergic influence
b. Decreased cholinergic influence
c. Relative excess of cholinergic influence
d. Increased serotonergic influence

A

c. Relative excess of cholinergic influence

171
Q

The inhibitory effects of dopaminergic neurons are normally balanced by:
a. Serotonergic neurons
b. Cholinergic neurons
c. GABAergic neurons
d. Adrenergic neurons

A

b. Cholinergic neurons

172
Q

The result of blocking dopamine receptors in the striatum is:
a. Extrapyramidal motor effects
b. Increased serotonin release
c. Decreased cholinergic activity
d. Enhanced cognitive function

A

a. Extrapyramidal motor effects

173
Q

Extrapyramidal motor effects are a consequence of:
a. Increased dopaminergic activity
b. Reduced serotonergic influence
c. Enhanced adrenergic activity
d. Relative excess of cholinergic influence due to dopamine receptor blockade

A

d. Relative excess of cholinergic influence due to dopamine receptor blockade

174
Q

The balance between which types of neurons is disrupted to cause extrapyramidal side effects?
a. Serotonergic and adrenergic
b. GABAergic and glutamatergic
c. Dopaminergic and cholinergic
d. Norepinephrinergic and serotonergic

A

c. Dopaminergic and cholinergic

175
Q

The risk of appearance of movement disorders due to antipsychotics is:
a. Time and dose dependent
b. Independent of dose
c. Independent of time
d. Not related to the medication

A

a. Time and dose dependent

176
Q

Dystonias can appear within:
a. Few hours to days
b. Days to weeks
c. Weeks to months
d. Months to years

A

a. Few hours to days

177
Q

Akathisias typically develop within:
a. Few hours to days
b. Days to weeks
c. Weeks to months
d. Months to years

A

b. Days to weeks

178
Q

Parkinson-like symptoms of bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor usually manifest within:
a. Few hours to days
b. Days to weeks
c. Weeks to months
d. Months to years

A

c. Weeks to months

179
Q

Tardive dyskinesia often appears after:
a. Few hours to days
b. Days to weeks
c. Weeks to months
d. Months to years

A

d. Months to years

180
Q

Which movement disorder is characterized by the inability to remain seated due to motor restlessness?
a. Dystonia
b. Akathisia
c. Parkinsonism
d. Tardive dyskinesia

A

b. Akathisia

181
Q

Parkinson-like symptoms induced by antipsychotics include:
a. Hyperactivity and increased muscle strength
b. Rapid eye movement and muscle spasm
c. Bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor
d. Involuntary movements of the face and tongue

A

c. Bradykinesia, rigidity, and tremor

182
Q

Tardive dyskinesia is defined by:
a. Sudden muscle weakness and fatigue
b. Involuntary uncontrolled movements, especially of the mouth, tongue, and trunk
c. Increased muscle tone and reflexes
d. Decreased motor activity and coordination

A

b. Involuntary uncontrolled movements, especially of the mouth, tongue, and trunk

183
Q

Which movement disorder can develop within a few hours to days of starting antipsychotic treatment?
a. Dystonia
b. Akathisia
c. Parkinsonism
d. Tardive dyskinesia

A

a. Dystonia

184
Q

If cholinergic activity is blocked, extrapyramidal effects are:
a. Minimized
b. Maximized
c. Unaffected
d. Increased

A

a. Minimized

185
Q

Extrapyramidal effects can be minimized by administering:
a. Dopaminergic drugs
b. Anticholinergic drugs
c. Serotonergic drugs
d. Adrenergic drugs

A

b. Anticholinergic drugs

186
Q

Which anticholinergic drug is used to minimize extrapyramidal effects?
a. Benztropine
b. Haloperidol
c. Risperidone
d. Clozapine

A

a. Benztropine

187
Q

The administration of anticholinergic drugs helps to:
a. Increase cholinergic activity
b. Enhance dopaminergic activity
c. Block cholinergic activity
d. Reduce serotonergic activity

A

c. Block cholinergic activity

188
Q

Anticholinergic drugs are effective in managing:
a. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia
b. Cognitive impairments
c. Extrapyramidal side effects
d. Metabolic side effects

A

c. Extrapyramidal side effects

189
Q

Benztropine is specifically used to:
a. Treat positive symptoms of schizophrenia
b. Increase serotonin levels
c. Block cholinergic activity to minimize extrapyramidal effects
d. Enhance norepinephrine release

A

c. Block cholinergic activity to minimize extrapyramidal effects

190
Q

Blocking cholinergic activity helps in:
a. Increasing the risk of movement disorders
b. Enhancing antipsychotic efficacy
c. Minimizing extrapyramidal side effects
d. Reducing sedation

A

c. Minimizing extrapyramidal side effects

191
Q

Atypical antipsychotics, such as clozapine and risperidone, have:
a. Lower potential of causing extrapyramidal symptoms
b. Higher potential of causing extrapyramidal symptoms
c. No potential of causing extrapyramidal symptoms
d. Equivalent potential of causing extrapyramidal symptoms compared to typical antipsychotics

A

a. Lower potential of causing extrapyramidal symptoms

192
Q

The lower potential of atypical antipsychotics to cause extrapyramidal symptoms is due to:
a. 5-HT2A antagonizing effect
b. Increased dopaminergic activity
c. Enhanced serotonergic activity
d. Reduced anticholinergic activity

A

a. 5-HT2A antagonizing effect

193
Q

Which antipsychotic is used as a first-line treatment?
a. Risperidone
b. Clozapine
c. Haloperidol
d. Chlorpromazine

A

a. Risperidone

194
Q

Clozapine should be reserved for patients who are:
a. Responsive to first-line treatments
b. Intolerant to all medications
c. Refractory to traditional therapy
d. Experiencing mild symptoms

A

c. Refractory to traditional therapy

195
Q

Clozapine can induce:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. Bone marrow suppression
c. Increased blood pressure
d. Severe dehydration

A

b. Bone marrow suppression

196
Q

Clozapine-induced bone marrow suppression can lead to:
a. Leukocytosis
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Severe agranulocytosis
d. Thrombocytosis

A

c. Severe agranulocytosis

197
Q

Which blood component should be monitored in patients taking clozapine?
a. Red blood cells
b. White blood cells
c. Platelets
d. Hemoglobin

A

b. White blood cells

198
Q

Atypical antipsychotics are preferred over traditional agents due to:
a. Higher efficacy in all patients
b. No side effects
c. Lower potential of causing extrapyramidal symptoms and tardive dyskinesia
d. Increased sedation

A

c. Lower potential of causing extrapyramidal symptoms and tardive dyskinesia

199
Q

Tardive dyskinesia occurs after:
a. Long-term treatment with neuroleptic drugs
b. Short-term treatment with neuroleptic drugs
c. Single-dose treatment with neuroleptic drugs
d. Intermittent treatment with neuroleptic drugs

A

a. Long-term treatment with neuroleptic drugs

200
Q

Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by:
a. Increased muscle strength
b. Improved coordination
c. Involuntary movements, including bilateral and facial jaw movements and “fly-catching” motions of the tongue
d. Enhanced cognitive function

A

c. Involuntary movements, including bilateral and facial jaw movements and “fly-catching” motions of the tongue

201
Q

The symptoms of tardive dyskinesia can sometimes be:
a. Permanent
b. Reversible only with increased dosage
c. Reduced by adding more neuroleptic drugs
d. Irreversible and may not be diminished even after discontinuing the drug

A

d. Irreversible and may not be diminished even after discontinuing the drug

202
Q

Prolonged drug holidays can:
a. Worsen tardive dyskinesia symptoms
b. Diminish tardive dyskinesia symptoms in months (reversible toxicity)
c. Have no effect on tardive dyskinesia symptoms
d. Cause new symptoms to develop

A

b. Diminish tardive dyskinesia symptoms in months (reversible toxicity)

203
Q

Involuntary movements associated with tardive dyskinesia can include:
a. Tremors and rigidity
b. Muscle weakness and fatigue
c. Facial and jaw movements, and “fly-catching” motions of the tongue
d. Increased motor coordination

A

c. Facial and jaw movements, and “fly-catching” motions of the tongue

204
Q

Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect associated with:
a. Long-term use of antipsychotic drugs
b. Short-term use of antidepressants
c. Long-term use of antihistamines
d. Short-term use of anxiolytics

A

a. Long-term use of antipsychotic drugs

205
Q

Tardive dyskinesia is a:
a. Compensatory response to long neuroleptic treatment
b. Primary symptom of schizophrenia
c. Short-term side effect of antipsychotic drugs
d. Irreversible effect of short-term treatment

A

a. Compensatory response to long neuroleptic treatment

206
Q

The compensatory response in tardive dyskinesia involves:
a. Decreased number of dopamine receptors
b. Increased number of dopamine receptors
c. Decreased cholinergic activity
d. Increased serotonergic activity

A

b. Increased number of dopamine receptors

207
Q

Increased number of dopamine receptors in tardive dyskinesia leads to:
a. Decreased neuronal sensitivity
b. Neurons becoming supersensitive
c. Reduced dopamine production
d. Enhanced serotonin uptake

A

b. Neurons becoming supersensitive

208
Q

The overpowering of cholinergic input in tardive dyskinesia results in:
a. Reduced movement
b. Muscle relaxation
c. Excess movement
d. Increased cognitive function

A

c. Excess movement

209
Q

Tardive dyskinesia involves neurons that are:
a. Desensitized
b. Inhibited
c. Supersensitive
d. Unaffected by dopamine

A

c. Supersensitive

210
Q

The excessive movement in tardive dyskinesia is due to:
a. Overpowering of cholinergic input
b. Decreased cholinergic input
c. Enhanced dopaminergic inhibition
d. Increased serotonergic activity

A

a. Overpowering of cholinergic input

211
Q

Antipsychotic malignant syndrome (NMS) is:
a. Potentially fatal
b. Non-fatal
c. Mild and self-limiting
d. Rarely causes any complications

A

a. Potentially fatal

212
Q

Symptoms of antipsychotic malignant syndrome include:
a. Muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status, unstable blood pressure, and myoglobinemia
b. Increased appetite, weight gain, and sedation
c. Diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration
d. Cough, cold, and headache

A

a. Muscle rigidity, fever, altered mental status, unstable blood pressure, and myoglobinemia

213
Q

The presence of myoglobinemia in NMS indicates:
a. Enhanced cognitive function
b. Improved muscle strength
c. Normal muscle function
d. Muscle damage causing myoglobin release into the blood

A

d. Muscle damage causing myoglobin release into the blood

214
Q

When NMS occurs, the antipsychotic drug must be:
a. Increased in dosage
b. Continued with additional medications
c. Discontinued immediately
d. Reduced in dosage

A

c. Discontinued immediately

215
Q

Treatment options for NMS include:
a. Antidepressants or antianxiety medications
b. Increased hydration and rest
c. Dantrolene or bromocriptine
d. Antihistamines or corticosteroids

A

c. Dantrolene or bromocriptine

216
Q

Which of the following is a symptom of NMS?
a. Unstable blood pressure
b. Decreased body temperature
c. Hyperactivity
d. Increased appetite

A

a. Unstable blood pressure

217
Q

NMS can cause:
a. Enhanced motor coordination
b. Stupor and altered mental status
c. Improved mood and energy levels
d. Reduced muscle tone

A

a. Enhanced motor coordination

218
Q

The primary treatment for NMS involves:
a. Discontinuing the antipsychotic drug
b. Increasing the dose of the antipsychotic drug
c. Adding more neuroleptic drugs
d. Only monitoring without intervention

A

a. Discontinuing the antipsychotic drug

219
Q

Drowsiness caused by antipsychotic drugs is due to:
a. Antihistamine effect
b. Anticholinergic effect
c. Dopaminergic effect
d. Adrenergic effect

A

a. Antihistamine effect

220
Q

Which of the following is a side effect of antipsychotic drugs related to antimuscarinic activity?
a. Increased salivation
b. Diarrhea
c. Dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and loss of accommodation
d. Hypertension

A

c. Dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and loss of accommodation

221
Q

Lowered blood pressure and orthostatic hypotension are due to:
a. Antihistamine effect
b. Alpha-adrenergic blockade
c. Increased cholinergic activity
d. Enhanced dopaminergic transmission

A

b. Alpha-adrenergic blockade

222
Q

Side effects of antipsychotic drugs affecting the hypothalamus include:
a. Increased energy levels
b. Weight loss
c. Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, gynecomastia, infertility, and impotence
d. Enhanced cognitive function

A

c. Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, gynecomastia, infertility, and impotence

223
Q

Weight gain caused by antipsychotic drugs often results in:
a. Improved compliance
b. Noncompliance
c. Increased physical activity
d. Reduced appetite

A

b. Noncompliance

224
Q

Antipsychotic drugs can increase:
a. Blood glucose (DM) and triglycerides
b. Blood pressure and heart rate
c. Salivary secretion and appetite
d. Cognitive function and coordination

A

a. Blood glucose (DM) and triglycerides

225
Q

Which side effect is due to the antihistamine effect of antipsychotic drugs?
a. Drowsiness
b. Dry mouth
c. Urinary retention
d. Constipation

A

a. Drowsiness

226
Q

The antimuscarinic activity of antipsychotic drugs leads to:
a. Increased gastric motility
b. Dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and loss of accommodation
c. Reduced heart rate
d. Increased sweating

A

b. Dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation, and loss of accommodation

227
Q

Amenorrhea and galactorrhea are side effects of antipsychotic drugs that affect:
a. Cardiac function
b. Respiratory function
c. Hypothalamus
d. Renal function

A

c. Hypothalamus

228
Q

Acute agitation accompanying withdrawal from alcohol or other drugs may be:
a. Aggravated by antipsychotics
b. Alleviated by antipsychotics
c. Unaffected by antipsychotics
d. Reduced by antipsychotics

A

a. Aggravated by antipsychotics

229
Q

All antipsychotics may:
a. Raise the seizure threshold
b. Lower the seizure threshold
c. Have no effect on the seizure threshold
d. Eliminate the risk of seizures

A

b. Lower the seizure threshold

230
Q

Antipsychotics should be used cautiously in patients with:
a. Cardiovascular disorders
b. Respiratory disorders
c. Seizure disorders
d. Renal disorders

A

c. Seizure disorders

231
Q

Clozapine is specifically associated with:
a. Increased heart rate
b. Hyperglycemia
c. Hypertension
d. Agranulocytosis

A

d. Agranulocytosis

232
Q

Agranulocytosis caused by clozapine affects:
a. White blood cells
b. Red blood cells
c. Platelets
d. Hemoglobin levels

A

a. White blood cells

233
Q

In patients with seizure disorders, antipsychotics should be:
a. Used cautiously
b. Administered in higher doses
c. Avoided completely
d. Administered without monitoring

A

a. Used cautiously

234
Q

Withdrawal symptoms from alcohol or other drugs may worsen with:
a. Antipsychotic drugs
b. Antidepressant drugs
c. Anxiolytic drugs
d. Antihistamine drugs

A

a. Antipsychotic drugs

235
Q

Patients with which condition require careful use of antipsychotics?
a. Diabetes
b. Hypertension
c. Asthma
d. Seizure disorders

A

d. Seizure disorders

236
Q

For patients with schizophrenia, maintenance therapy should be continued for at least:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years

A

c. 5 years

237
Q

The primary goal of maintenance therapy in schizophrenia is to:
a. Increase weight gain
b. Reduce medication side effects
c. Lower relapse rates
d. Enhance cognitive function

A

c. Lower relapse rates

238
Q

Higher doses of antipsychotic drugs result in:
a. Lower relapse rates
b. Higher relapse rates
c. No change in relapse rates
d. Increased cognitive function

A

a. Lower relapse rates

239
Q

Which antipsychotic drug is associated with fewer relapses?
a. Haloperidol
b. Risperidone
c. Clozapine
d. Quetiapine

A

b. Risperidone

240
Q

Second-generation antipsychotics are preferred because they:
a. Have higher efficacy in all patients
b. Cause no side effects
c. Are less expensive
d. Lower relapse rates

A

d. Lower relapse rates

241
Q

Patients with two or more psychotic episodes require maintenance therapy for:
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 7 years

A

c. 5 years

242
Q

Risperidone, a second-generation antipsychotic, is preferred over haloperidol because it:
a. Is more sedating
b. Has fewer side effects
c. Results in fewer relapses
d. Is less effective

A

c. Results in fewer relapses

243
Q

Maintenance therapy for schizophrenia aims to:
a. Reduce medication dosage
b. Increase the frequency of psychotic episodes
c. Prevent relapse
d. Enhance mood stability

A

c. Prevent relapse

Pharma2 MCQs (6 decks)

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