AntiParasitic drugs Flashcards

1
Q

5 characteristics of the ideal parasiticide?

A

• selective toxicity

• economical to purchase
& apply
(small vs. large animal)

  • hits all stages of parasite development disrupting the entire life cycle
  • safe for use in “at risk” animals
  • does NOT induce resistance in the parasite** no such thing!
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2
Q

Food animal production
vs
small animal/equine medical care
• Economics of anti parasitic

A
  • food animal production
  • -> economic return on entire herd health
  • pets & horses
    = control of zoonotic disease & health of individual pet
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3
Q

4 categories of “at risk” patients (concerning anti-parasitics)?

A
  • old
  • young
  • pregnant
  • debilitated
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4
Q

Why is it difficult to prove the presence of parasite resistance in animals?

A
  • Hard to separate out drug administration errors vs actual drug failure
  • Can’t culture them
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5
Q

How does selective pressure result in emergence of resistant populations?

A
  • allows resistance to emerge by killing all susceptible & allowing resistant forms to remain
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6
Q

What is refugia?

How does it ↓ the # of resistant organisms in a population?

Does refugia try to reduce resistant organisms to zero?

A

Refugia
- a portion of a population of parasites that survives or avoids exposure to an antiparasitic drug treatment

  • subset population of population is NOT subjected to drug
  • -> allows susceptible parasites to compete w/ resistant forms
  • -> keeps resistant forms low
  • -> slows resistance development w/ low worm burden present
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7
Q

5 methods to reduce development of parasite resistance to antiparasiticides?

A

• Refugia = good management practice

• Use only drugs known to be effective against
the target species of parasite

• Target only health threatening parasite
species; reduce population to safe level

• Drugs that work by different mechanisms
- if combine drug

• Rotate type of drugs used over time (equine)

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8
Q

EPA vs. FDA
• regulatory fxns?
• What drugs or compounds would fall under each?

How does this translate to availability as OTC products?

A

EPA
• controls pesticides
• available OTC
• applied topically

FDA
• regulates internal drugs
• Legend drugs

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9
Q

legend drugs
• what are they?
• who regulates them?

A
  • given internally (PO or by injection)
  • prescription only
  • on or by order of vet
  • must have valid VCPR
  • FDA regulated
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10
Q

ectoparasiticides

A

-External antiparasitics

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11
Q

endoparasiticides

A

-Internal antiparasitics

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12
Q

endectocides

A

-Compounds that do both internal and external parasites

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13
Q

Term that describes drugs against any internal worm parasite

A

-anthelmintics

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14
Q

Term used to describe drug against roundworms

Vermicide VS Vermifuge?

A

-antinematodals

Vermicide
• Kills

Vermifuge
• paralyzes –> expulsion

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15
Q

Term used to describe drug against tapeworms

• what are the specific types?

A

-anticestodals

Cestocides
Taeniacides
Taeniafuge

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16
Q

Term used to describe drug against Flukes

A

-antitrematodals

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17
Q

2 groups of macrolides or macrocyclic lactones?

members of each of these groups?

A
1 - Avermectins
     • Ivermectin 
     • Selamectin
     • Doramectin 
     • Eprinomectin

2- Milbemycins
• Milbemycin oxime
• Moxidectin

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18
Q

Are avermectins & milbemycins lipophilic or hydrophilic type drugs?

How does this translate to the ability of the drug to reach many target sites?

A
  • Lipophilic

Wide distribution
• GI mucosa
• Lungs
• Dermis

** able to target migrating larvae

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19
Q

what receptor do macrocyclic lactones work on?
• MOA?

How does this actually kill the parasite?

A

Bind to glutamate receptor sites on chloride channels

  • -> open channel
  • -> Cl- enters cells
  • -> ↑ threshold
  • -> pharyngeal muscle paralysis
  • -> starve & can’t hold on
  • -> flushed out
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20
Q

Why are macrolides NOT effective against cestodes & trematodes?

A
  • Flukes & Tapes do NOT have glutamate receptors

= not susceptible

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21
Q

Mammalian receptor macrocyclic lactones combine with to produce toxicity?

  • Why are these still safe drugs for most animals?
A
  • Mammals don’t have PERIPHERAL glutamate receptors

• Cl- gated GABA receptors in CNS

- macrolides can activate
- BBB protects most
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22
Q

What keeps Macrocyclic Lactones out of the brain?

A
  • P-glycoprotein
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23
Q

P-glycoprotein

A
  • Cell membrane pump

- -> transports selected drugs from INTRA to Extracellular

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24
Q

Where is P-gp found

A
  • endothelial cells of BBB
  • GI epithelial cells
  • bile canaliculi
  • renal PCT
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25
Q

What gene produces P-glycoprotein?

2 names

A
  • MDR1 gene
    (multiple drug resistant)
  • ABCB1 gene
    “ATP-binding cassette transporters” (ABC)
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26
Q

Why can macrocyclic lactones kill parasites for such a long period of time w/o using high dosages of drug?

A

1ng of drug/g of tissue

• Persistence of drug in target tissue
+ low drug concentration needed to kill parasite
–> 1 dose per month possible

• Enterohepatic circulation

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27
Q

Why are avermectins & milbemycin more effective at killing mites, ticks, and sucking lice,
- but less effective at killing biting lice?

A

• concentrations in skin sufficient to kill mites, sucking lice, and ticks

(but not superficially-feeding biting lice)

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28
Q

How are macrolides primarily excreted from the body?

A
  • intact by the liver into the feces (biliary excretion)
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29
Q

Why is it that once a macrolide is excreted from the body, it can then re-enter the body?

What is the this process called?

impact on the duration of action?

A
  • Because they are lipophilic
  • -> reabsorption

enterohepatic circulation

explains long lasting effect of these drugs

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30
Q

Why does the persistence of avermectins & milbemycin in the body have an economic impact on their use in livestock?

pour-on vs injectable w/drawl time?

A
  • stay in tissues for a long time!
    • 1% injectable = 35-50d
    • 3.15% = 120d

Pour ons
• no withdraw

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31
Q

Why are there no injectable macrocyclic lactones approved for use in dairy cattle?

• whats used instead?

A
  • MLs are heavily excreted in the milk if absorbed into the blood

BUT pour ons forms are approved for dairy because of topical route and poor absorption into body
• eprinomectin (Eprinex®)
• moxidectin (Cydectin®)

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32
Q

What genetic mutation results in production of poorly functioning P-glycoprotein molecules?

In what breeds is this common?

Mechanism –> ↑ susceptibility to adverse effects from drugs like ivermectin?

What does the avermectin/milbemycin molecule do to mammalian brain cells?

A

Homologous mutation of the MDR1 gene

  • Collies
  • some Shetland sheepdogs
  • Australian shepherds
• ↑ GI tract absorption 
• ↓  liver elimination
--> ↑ drug enters CNS 
--> reaches the mammalian GABA receptors 
--> opening Cl- gate
--> hyperpolariz.
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33
Q

What drugs can produce a collie-like susceptibility in animals that usually would not be sensitive to avermectins?
• why?

A
  • ketoconazole (anti fungal)
  • itraconazole (anti fungal)
  • phenothiazine tranquilizers

• inhibits P-gp
impairs ability of P-gp to exclude macrocyclics from CNS!greater amounts avermectins and milbemycin enter CNS

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34
Q

How do dogs typically become intoxicated with horse avermectins?

A
  • chew on equine paste syringe
  • LA injectable used on dog/cat
  • -> high dose
  • -> overwhelming p-gp’s in CNS
  • -> toxicosis
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35
Q

Clinical signs in dogs with avermectin toxicosis?

Tx of avermectin toxicosis? Is there an antidote?

How long can toxicosis last? Why do they last this long?

A
Clinical signs
• CNS depression
• Vomiting
• salivation early
• Ataxia, stupor, coma, mydriasis, blindness

Tx
• supportive

Lasts DAYS to WEEKS due to adipose & enterohepatocirculation

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36
Q

The presence of resistance of heartworm parasites to avermectins is controversial.

Why is this a difficult issue to resolve one way or the other as to whether real resistance to avermectins used in the field exists?

A

-

??

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37
Q

What was the first avermectin approved for use in dogs?

A

-Ivermectin

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38
Q

How does the dose at which collies die from ivermectin toxicosis compare to the dose given in preventative drugs like Heartgard?

Is ivermectin safe in cats?

A

manufacturer recommends observing for 8 hrs after heartworm prevention

Collie death – 0.2 mg/kg

• normal dose = 0.006 mg/kg

Cats are NOT especially sensitive to ivermectin

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39
Q

Which avermectin heartworm preventative is only TOPICALLY applied, is approved for dogs and cats,
- also approved for control of fleas, ear mites, sarcoptic mange and ticks?

A

-Selamectin (Revolution®)

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40
Q

What are the 2 large animal avermectin drugs?

A
- Doramectin (Dectomax®)
         • injectable and pour on
- Eprinomectin (Eprinex®)
         • topical (pour on)
internal worms, 
grubs, 
lice, 
mange mites
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41
Q

What are the 2 milbemycin type drugs used in veterinary medicine?

???

A
  • Milbemycin oxime

* Moxidectin

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42
Q

Which milbemycin type compound is FDA approved for use in small animals for:

  • monthly heartworm preventative,
  • control of roundworms (ascarids),
  • hookworms,
  • and whipworms?
A

Sentinel® - with lufenuron

Trifexis® - with spinosad

** extra lable for deomdectic mange

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43
Q

Which milbemycin type compound is FDA approved for use in cattle & horses to tx:

  • mites,
  • grubs,
  • horse stomach bots,
  • lice,
  • flies?
A

-Moxidectin

• Cattle
- Cydectin® drench
• Horse
- Quest® = OTC drug

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44
Q

Which macrolide is approved as a 6-MONTH INJECTABLE HEARTWORM PREVENTATIVE in dogs only?

A

-Moxidectin

= ProHeart 6

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45
Q

Which group of antinematodals works by inhibiting the formation of the cell’s cytoskeleton?

What component of the cytoskeleton is disrupted?

Why are these drugs so safe for use in mammals?

A
  • Benzimidazoles

β-tubulin
• (w/ α-tubulin ) forms cell microtubules of cell’s cytoskeleton

benzimidazoles DON’T COMBINE with mammalian B-tubulin = Safe

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46
Q

What is the prototype drug of the benzimidazoles?

Besides the antinematodal effect, what other “anti” effect does it have?

A
  • thiabendazole

• Also has anti-fungal effect
therefore added to otic drops!

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47
Q

What is one of the common uses of thiabendazole?

A
  • otic drops
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48
Q

What parasite produces hydatid cysts in the liver of humans?

A

Ecchynicoccus multilocularis

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49
Q

Which benzimidazole is: - approved for use in dogs & livestock as an antinematoda

  • effective against taenia species of tapeworms
  • NOT effective against Echinococcus species
  • has to be given 3 consecutive doses in a row (once daily) to be effective?
A

-Fenbendazole

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50
Q

Which benzimidazole is ONLY approved for EQUINE use, is given only by the oral route, and is effective against common equine nematodes

A

-Oxibendazole (Anthelcide EQ®)

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51
Q

What is the benzimidazole that is:

  • a pro-drug
  • is approved for canine use
  • incorporated w/ anticestodal drugs & pyrantel in other products.
A
  • Febantel (Drontal Plus®)

—> converted to fenbendazole & oxfendazole by the body

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52
Q

What is the very safe OTC antinematodal drug that:

  • has limited spectrum of activity only against roundworms (ascarids) and hookworms,
  • NOT whipworms or cestodes,
  • comes in 2 FORMS, one water soluble & the other very insoluble (suspension).
A
  • Pyrantel

• pyrantel pamoate (suspension)
- vigorously shaken before withdrawing oral dose

• pyrantel tartrate (water soluble)

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53
Q

pyrantel
• MOA?

Why does the parasite initially show nervous system stimulation followed by paralysis?

A
  • nicotinic Ach receptors & excessively stimulates them
  • -> initial depolarization
  • -> NOT repolarizing
  • -> Spastic paralysis
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54
Q

What are the active ingredients in Heartgard Plus?

A
  • ivermectin + pyrantel
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55
Q

What are the active ingredients in Drontal Plus?

A
  • praziquantel + febantel + pyrantel
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56
Q

Which 30 day,
single dose,
topically applied antinematodal works by: ↑ing intracellular Ca influx – what does it result in?

A

-Emodepside
• combined w/ praziquantel = Profender®

  • -> vesicles containing an inhibitory NT being released
  • -> flaccid paralysis of the parasite muscles
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57
Q

What precautions should the owner know about emodepside & aquariums or fish ponds?

A
  • VERY Toxic to fish!

• they don’t have p-gp to exclude from entering CNS

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58
Q

What OTC antinematodal is:

  • effective ONLY against roundworms (ascarids),
  • not hookworms, whipworms, or cestodes.

Is this drug a vermicide or vermifuge?

A

-Piperazine

• vermifuge 
--> stimulates GABA receptor
--> Cl- channel
--> hyperpolarization
--> flaccid paralysis
= expulsion of roundworms
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59
Q

If a blood transfusion is given from a heartworm positive dog with microfilaria in the blood to a heartworm negative dog, would the transfer of microfilaria result in the blood recipient developing heartworm disease? Why or why not?

A

No, microfilaria aren’t the infective stage.

L3 from the mosquito is infective.

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60
Q

What is the rickettsial organism that has a symbionic relationship with Dirofilaria immitis?

A

Wolbachia

– ovarian inhabitant

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61
Q

Is heartworm disease more likely produce pulmonary edema or abdominal ascites?

A
  • ??
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62
Q

Why is heartworm disease not treated w/ melarsomine in cats?

A
  • bc risk of multiple dead worm emboli killing cat is far too great

Better to allow worms to die one at a time & tx clinical signs of bronchoconstriction as needed

63
Q

How does Wolbachia contribute to pathology associated with heartworm disease?

What is it about Wolbachia that produces these changes?

A
  • Wolbachia surface protein (WPS)
    = Ag assoc’d w/ stimulation of inflamm rxn
    –> neutrophilic infiltration of pulmonary arteries
64
Q

What is the FDA approved heartworm adulticide drug?

What age of heartworm does this kill?

Is it effective against:

  • microfilaria?
  • L3 (infective) larvae?
A

-Melarsomine = Immiticide®

• Limited to immature adult worms > 4 months & adults

NOT microfilaricidal
NOT larvicidal!

65
Q

Where is melarsomine injected into the dog?

What is the critical time frame in which this drug should be administered?

Why is this time frame critical?

A

-Deep IM injection into epaxial muscles of back

Key: 2 injections within 24 hours of each other
• Females are tough to kill (need hit 2x’s w/ drug)

66
Q

When does the manufacturer recommend the 2 injection protocol for melarsomine versus the 3 injection protocol?

A

-recommended for dogs w/ minimal or no outward clinical disease apparent
• assumes worm burden is low
• less dead worm emboli to shower lungs

67
Q

Why does the American Heartworm Society state that the 2 injection protocol is “inadequate”?

A
  • 2 injections killed 90% of worms
    • NOT 90% of dogs cleared!

3 injections killed 98% of adult heartworms (% of dogs cleared of HW was much lower)

68
Q

Under what circumstance is melarsomine tx contraindicated? why?

A

-Class 4 heartworm disease (also called “caval syndrome”)
• Too many worms to safely kill

** these animals are critically ill already!!
• weak
• Hb-emia / Hb-uria

69
Q

Why is a melarsomine dosage regimen of 1 dose/month for 3 months rejected by the AHS?

A

-doesn’t have the required 2 injections w/in 24 hours needed to kill the tough female heartworms

70
Q

Why isn’t the “slow kill” protocol for heartworm treatment recommended?

A
  • pathology of pulmonary arteries can continue to worsen
  • – unless the dog is totally confined & not allowed to exercise for the 2 years it takes for this protocol to reduce worms by 95%! (not practical)
71
Q

What is the most common side effect of melarsomine?

A

• Pain at injection site is common
- give the 2nd injection on the other side of the spinal column

• other side effects assoc’d w/ heartworm death

72
Q

What is the maximum volume of melarsomine that can be given at one site?

What if you have to give a larger volume than this?

A
  • max volume = 4 mL

Lg’er dose
• divide into 2 volumes
• admin on same side of spinal column
– Separate by 1 lumber full vertebrae!!

• next dose done on the other side

73
Q

What clinical signs do cats show w/ heartworm disease?

What is the syndrome called?

A

Asthma-like coughing

HARD
• Heartworm
• Assoc'd
• Respiratory
• Dz
74
Q

Why is there a shortage of melarsomine in the US?

A

-

75
Q

What Abx has been suggested to reduce the impact of Wolbachia?

When does the American Heartworm Society recommend giving this drug? For how long?

A

Doxycycline
• lethal to 3rd and 4th larval stage & reduced microfilaria

Day 1-28
Give doxy as 4 week course of Tx BEFORE adulticide

76
Q

Why might glucocorticoids be used during heartworm treatment?

Do glucocorticoids help the Dirofilaria adults survive the melarsomine treatment?

A

-↓ inflammation/tissue rxn from pulmonary emboli

????

77
Q

Why is aspirin no longer recommended?

A

↑ chance of pulmonary hemorrhage

due to ↓ ability to control microhemorrhages

78
Q

What drug is FDA approved for use as a microfilaricide?

A

Moxidectin = Advantage Multi®

• Newly approved!!

79
Q

What drugs are used in an extralabel manner for microfilaricide treatment?

What is AMDUCA & how does it play a role in this?

A

-Ivermectin and Milbemycin

AMDUCA
= Animal Med. Drug. Use Clarification Act
• allows extra-label use for specific Tx if VCPR exists

80
Q

Which is typically done first:

adulticide treatment or microfilaricide treatment?

A

Microfilaricide

81
Q

4 monthly-administered heartworm preventative ingredients

ingredient of the 1 six-month preventative drug.

A
1 - Milbemycin oxime 
            (Sentinel®, Trifexis®)
2- Ivermectin 
            (Heartgard®)
3- selamectin 
            (Revolution®)
4- moxidectin tablets
            (ProHeart®)
82
Q

Why are the use of anticestodals not of major concern in livestock production?

A
  • usually controlled using benzimidazole antinematodals that also have anticestodal activity
83
Q

What are the two main anticestodal drugs in veterinary medicine?

How do they differ as far as spectrum of activity?

Are these drugs ovicidal?

A

1 - Praziquantel (Droncit®)
• Echinococcus granulosus
• Dipylidium caninum

2- Epsiprantel (Cestex®)
• < Echinococcus

** not ovicidal!!! –> pass eggs

84
Q

Amprolium
• use?
• MOA?

A
  • food animal production, esp. good for coccidia in calves

• Competitive antagonism of Thiamin receptor –> thiamin deficiency for parasite –> death

85
Q

For what is metronidazole used as an antiparasitic drug?

A
  • against Giardia

- -> Inhibits GABA (inhibitory NT) –> ↑ NS excitement

86
Q

Side effect of metronidazole every owner should be advised about?
How reversible is this side effect?

A
  • CNS signs in mammals: nystagmus, seizure-like activity

• Reversible quickly with 1 dose, may take up to 2 weeks with higher dose

87
Q

Which benzimidazole is also a drug of choice for Tx of Giardia?

A
  • Fenbendazole (Panacur®)
88
Q

For what parasite was ponazuril developed?

A
  • equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM)

Marquis®

89
Q

What commonly used Abx is a very effective antiprotozoal?

A

Sulfonamide

90
Q

From what plant are pyrethrins derived

trivial pursuit question — worth $400 on Jeopardy

A

chrysanthemum

91
Q
pyrethrin 
VS
pyrethrum, 
VS
pyrethroid
A

PYRETHRIN
• natural botanical

pyrethrum
• plant in Kenya, which produces 70% world’s pyrethrum

PYRETHROID
• synthetic – stronger activity


92
Q

What is piperonyl butoxide?

what term is used to describe it

A
  • synergist added to many household insect sprays
  • -> ↑ killing power of pyrethroid

NOT insecticidal alone!!
• inhibits insect MFO (cyto P-450) that would detoxify pyrethrin/pyrethroids

Safe, except:
• neurotoxicity in cats

93
Q

Type I VS Type II pyrethroids
• MOA
• effect it has on the insect (or mammalian) nervous system?

A

locking open Na+ channels

Type I 
= most of the “thrins” 
• open for shorter time 
–> multiple depolarizations 
-->seizure signs
Type II 
= fenvalerate & deltamethrin
• Open for longer time 
--> can’t repolarize after depolarizes 
--> conduction blockade 
--> paralysis signs
94
Q

What makes pyrethrins & pyrethroids safe to use in mammals
(3 things)?

Why is pyrethrin considered to be safe in the environment?

A

Mammals
• Easily degraded by stomach acid & intestinal enzymes
• MFO (mixed function oxidase) enyzmes in liver –> metabolize pyrethrins/pyrethroids
• Na+ channels 1000x LESS sensitive to pyrethrins

Environmental
• Readily breaks down in sunlight & oxygen

95
Q

Which pyrethrin should NOT be used with cats; or cats should not contact it while it is still wet on a dog?

• clinical signs?

A

Permethrin
– cats don’t have glucuronidase for conjugation

• K9 Advantix II

  • muscle fasciculations
  • tremors
  • shaking
  • seizures
96
Q

What precautions should be taken with “other pets” in the household when using pyrethrins or pyrethroids?

A

Fish

have few enzymes to metabolize pyrethrins

97
Q

Against what external parasites is amitraz used?

different from many other external parasite products

A

Mitaban®
• canine dip for demodectic mange

Preventic®
• collar kills ticks

Taktic®
• livestock agent used to Tx mange & lice in cattle / swine
• not dogs or horses!

98
Q

Mechanism of Amitraz?

A

Octopamine
• very similar to NE
• acts like a sympathomimetic agent in insects

Amitraz inhibits the octopamine receptor

  • -> ↓ motility/movement
    1. Ticks mouthparts stop moving
    2. Movement & jumping inhibited
    3. “central” NS inhibition of the insect
99
Q

Stimulation of what receptor in the mammals causes the more commonly observed side effects from amitraz administration?

A

• Alpha 2 Agonist
–> ↓ NE release
–> Sedation, ataxia, bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia
–> CNS depression

• MAO inhibitor (@ high dose)
–> ↓ destruction of NE & serotonin
–> get CNS excitation

100
Q

What is a common way of causing Amitraz toxicosis?
• What is the antidote for amitraz intoxication?
• what needs to be done to prevent it?

A
  1. ingestion of tick collar remnant
  2. after dipping/sponge on with Mitaban

Reversal
• Alpha 2 Antagonists
- Yohimbine
- Atipamezole

• Cut extra tab off tick collar

101
Q

Is fipronil a nervous system stimulator or nervous system inhibitor?
Why?

A

Frontline®
• stimulates Nervous system

FIpronil binds GABA-regulated Cl- channels

  • -> opens Cl- channels
  • -> inhibits GABA release
  • -> lack of inhibition
  • -> ↑ NS activity
102
Q

How does fipronil applied in one spot cover the whole animal?

Does it kill adult fleas?

What about eggs and larvae?

What about ticks?

A
  • spreads & sequesters in lipid membranes of the SKIN CELLS & HAIR FOLLICLES

long acting residue against:

  • adult fleas
  • flea eggs & larvae
  • ticks
103
Q

What is methoprene?

What does it do to the insect?

A
  • Added to Frontline Plus®

insect growth regulator
= Juvenile hormone mimic
–> prevents larvae development

• SAFE!

104
Q

What is a neonicotinic compound?

What drugs are considered this type of compound?

A

AKA Neonicotinoid
- combines w/ insects post-synaptic nicotinic cholinergic receptors in CNS

Imidacloprid

105
Q

imidacloprid
• MOA?

What signs are seen as a result?

A

highly specific for insect nicotinic receptors

  • -> Stimulates post-synaptic nicotinic cholinergic receptors
  • -> Initial stimulation (↑ed activity)
  • -> replaced by overstimulation
  • -> nicotinic receptor to lock up (flaccid paralysis)
106
Q

Why can’t K9 Advantix II be used in cats?

A
  • due to permethrin
107
Q

What role does permethrin play in products like K9 Advantix II?

A
  • tick repellent
108
Q

Nitenpyram mechanism?

Why does nitenpyram cause intense pruritus in some dogs after it is applied?

A
  • Like imidacloprid, it combines with NICOTINIC RECEPTOR
  • -> ↑ed neuromuscular activity
  • -> “flea seizure”
  • -> eventually paralysis
  • kills ONLY ADULT fleas
  • Pruritus from “flea seizures” tickling skin!
109
Q

What is the newest family of neonicotinoids?

A
  • Spinosad

in family of spinosyn products

110
Q

Is spinosad safe for dogs and cats?

What is its mechanism of action?

A
  • once-a-month Chewable TABLET
    • for dogs & cats

• nicotinic receptors

  • -> stimulation
  • -> receptor lock-up
  • -> paralysis
111
Q

When would you use Ivermectin @ 100X dose (extra-label)?

What flea prevention drug can it interact w/?

What clinical signs of toxicosis appear w/ this interaction?

A
  • 100x dose for demodicosis tx

if animal is already on Spinosad (Comfortis®)
–> Ivermectin toxicosis!

• Spinosad alone is NOT a problem in Collies

112
Q

What are the active ingredients in Trifexis®?

A
  • Spinosad + Milbemycin oxime
  • Flea control (spinosad)
  • heartworm preventative (milbemycin) and control of canine hookworm, roundworm, whipworm
113
Q

What is spinetroam?

A

Assurtiy® / Cheristin®
- Different member of the spinosyn
• Topical application flea adulticide for CATS!

114
Q

How is indoxacarb different from all of the other mechanisms of external parasite compounds?

MOA?

A
  • No blood meal necessary
• indoxacarb = pro-drug 
--> enzymes within the flea
metabolizes to active form 
--> Selective Na+ channel BLOCKER (insects)
--> paralysis
115
Q

What is the “bioactivation” that the manufacturer refers to in indoxacarb?

A
  • Enzyme w/in insect converts pro-drug to bioactive form
116
Q

By what unique non-neurological mechanism does lufenuron work?

What stages does it affect?

What is the draw back to the way by which the flea acquires lufenuron?

A
  • Flea bites for a meal
  • -> takes in lufenuron
  • -> Interferes with chiton formation

Chiton found in:
• eggs –> desiccation
• egg tooth –> can’t hatch
• exoskeleton

NO ADULTICIDE ACTIVITY
Flea must bite animal (allergies)

117
Q

How does afoxolaner (NexGard) kill fleas and ticks?

A
  • Blocks GABA (inhibitory) effect
  • -> neuronal hyperexcitability
  • -> death
118
Q

What is pyriproxifen?

A
  • Juvenile Hormone Analong

- commonly included in PREMISE SPRAYS

119
Q

What is a JHA?

A
  • Juvenile Hormone Analogs
120
Q

What is DEET?

A
  • Insect repellent w/ NO insecticidal activities

• Neurotoxin (100%DEET)
–> Numbness / tingling lips

121
Q

Heartgard®

A

ivermectin

122
Q

Heartgard Plus®

A

ivermectin + pyrantel

123
Q

Ivomec ®

A

ivermectin (livestock)

124
Q

Revolution®

A

selamectin

125
Q

Sentinel®

A

milbemycin + lufenuron

126
Q

Cydectin®

A

moxidectin

127
Q

ProHeart®

A

moxidectin

128
Q

ProHeart-6®

A

moxidectin

129
Q

Tresaderm® (otic)

A

thiabendazole

130
Q

Panacur®

A

fenbendazole

131
Q

Drontal Plus®

A

febantel + praziquantel

132
Q

Nemex®

A

pyrantel

133
Q

Strongid®

A

pyrantel

134
Q

Profender®

A

emodepside

135
Q

Immiticide®

A

melarsomine

136
Q

Droncit®

A

praziquantel

137
Q

Cestex®

A

epsiprantel

138
Q

Marquis®

A

ponazuril

139
Q

Mitaban®

A

amitraz

140
Q

Advantage II

A

imidacloprid + pyriproxifen

141
Q

Advantage Multi

A

imidacloprid + moxidectin

142
Q

K9 Advantix II®

A

imidacloprid + permethrin

• Permethrin –> repellent

143
Q

Frontline®

A

fipronil

144
Q

Frontline Plus®

A

fipronil + methoprene

145
Q

Capstar®

A

nitenpyram

146
Q

Comfortis®

A

spinosad

147
Q

Trifexis®

A

spinosad + milbemycin

148
Q

Program®

A

lufenuron

149
Q

NexGard®

A

afoxolaner
- Member of old isoxazoline family

• LEGEND drug!!

150
Q

What does non-proprietary mean?

A

“active drug name”

151
Q

What does proprietary mean?

A

“Trade name”

152
Q

Why is the 3 injection protocol used on animals with larger heartworm burdens?

What is recommended for very small dogs? Why?

A

1st injection kills just male adult worms

  • followed by month “rest”
  • -> males die/decay before killing females

Dogs <10kg
= 3 injection protocol
• due to small pulmonary vessel size

153
Q

Safety of Imidacloprid

A
  1. highly specific for insect nicotinic receptors
  2. does not penetrate the mammalian BBB
  3. 90% of dose is gone in 24 hours
  4. Not carcinogenic, mutagenic, teratogenic, nor a reproductive toxicant