Antimicrobials Flashcards
Name that drug
- First-line agent
- Used in combination with isoniazid, rifampin & ethambutol
- Must be enzymatically hydrolysed to active pyrazinoic acid
Pyrazinamide
which 4th gen Cephalosporins are usually active against pneumococci
Cefotaxime & ceftriaxone
Which drug meets the following characteristics?
- Used In combination with an aminoglycoside for empirical treatment of infective endocarditis
- Used In combination with an aminoglycoside for treatment of enterococcal endocarditis or PRSP
VANCOMYCIN
which drug, which is NEVER given systemically for a simple minor infection, can inhibit protein synthesis in mitochondrial ribosomes–> bone marrow toxicity –> main AE of APLASTIC ANEMIA
CHLROEMPHENICOL
*associated with GRAY BABY SYNDROME
whats the number one side effect of ISONIAZID? and what can you give to help it?
peripheral neuropathy
Administer with pyridoxine (B6) to help
• Penicillins are mostly excreted via kidney (beware in kidney failure)…what is one notable exception?
- Nafcillin (Antistaphylococcal Penicilin) = exception as primarily excreted in BILE! it also has erractic activity in the GI tract is given via IV not orally
- Oxacillin & dicloxacillin = renal & biliary excretion
________ are a common substitute for patients with penicillin allergy
Macrolides
what is RECOMMENDED ANTIMICROBIAL THERAPY FOR the Legionella sp.
Fluoroquinolone (Cipro)
Macrolide (Azithromycin)
• ________ (class of drug) Bind reversibly to 30S subunit prior to ribosome formation, preventing attachment of aminoacyl tRNA leading to
• misreading of mRNA, &
• inhibition of translocation
• TETRACYCLINES
which two snd generation Cephalosporins are DOC for prophylaxis & therapy of abdominal and pelvic cavity infections
Cefotetan & cefoxitin (both parenteral only)
Name the 4 Macrolides
Azithromycin
clarithromycin
telithromycin
erythromycin
what are Rifampin’s 4 R’s?
- *R**NA polymerase inhibitor
- *R**amps up microsomal cytochrome P-450
- *R**ed/orange body fluids
- *R**apid resistance if used alone
*NOTE: Rifampin ramps up cytochrome P-450, but rifabutin does not.
The major route of elimination for Cephalosporins is renal excretion. However, _____ and _________ are excreted mainly in the bile.
Both 3rd generations: cefoperazone and ceftriaxone
Dose-dependent visual disturbances (eg, red/green color blindness) – which cannot be used in children too young to receive sight tests is associated with which Antimycobacterial drug?
Ethambutol
kidney function WILL decline when using which class of Drugs?
AMINOGLYCOSIDES
DRUG WITH THE HIGHEST RISK TO CAUSE THE FOLLOWING
Potentially fatal pseudomembranous colitis (superinfection of C.difficile)
CLINDAMYCIN
can daptomycin be used to treat pneumonia caused by, for example, H. Influenzae? why or why not?
NOOOO!!!!!
- daptomycin (a glycopeptdide) only works on gram POSTIVE BACTERIA
- daptomycin binds to is inactivated by surfactant so it is NOT able to treat pneumonia
Tendon rupture/damage is an antimicrobial effect on the neonate or fetus that can be caused by what drug
Chloramphenicol
Fluoroquinolones
Nitrofurantion
Sulfonamides
Tetracyclines, Glycylcyclines
Aminoglycosides
Fluoroquinolones
Name the 4 drugs that FREQUENTLY cause C. difficile
“F-A-A-C”
Fluoroquinolones
Ampicillin
Amoxicillin
Cephalosporins
30S or 50S?
Streptogramins (Dalfopristin/ Quinupristin)
Other (Chloramphenicol Clindamycin Linezolid Mupirocin Fidaxomicin )
Macrolides (Azithromycin Clarithromycin Erythromycin Telithromycin )
50S
• Oral or topical admin
• AE: Kernicterus (in newborns and infants <2 months):
- CONTRAINDICATED IN newborns & infants < 2 months (kernicterus) – drugs compete with bilirubin for binding sites on albumin
- Oral or topical Warfarin, phenytoin and methotrexate can lead to increased plasma levels
- Acetylated in liver. Can precipitate at neutral or acidic pH kidney damage
SULFONAMIDES
are Monobactams Resistant to action of b-lactamases?
yes
Cephalosporin that is the DOC for surgical prophylaxis
(Oral or Parenteral?)
Cefazolin
(1st generation)
Parenteral Only