antihypertensives - RAAS (exam 2) Flashcards

1
Q

high blood pressure stage 1

A

systolic: 130-139
diastolic: 80-89

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2
Q

high blood pressure stage 2

A

systolic: 140 or higher
diastolic: 90 or higher

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3
Q

hypertensive crisis

A

systolic: higher than 180
diastolic: higher than 120

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4
Q

essential hypertension

A

95%
no underlying cause

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5
Q

secondary hypertension

A

underlying cause

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6
Q

causes of secondary HTN

A

renal (parenchymal, vascular, other)
endocrine
other

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7
Q

predisposing factors of HTN

A

age
family history of CV disease
sedentary lifestyle and psycho-social stress
smoking
high cholesterol diet
obesity and weight gain
co existing disorders
high intake of alcohol

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8
Q

why is HTN considered the silent killer?

A

most of the time there is no specific complaints/manifestations other than the high BP

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9
Q

clinical manifestations of HTN

A

morning occipital headache
dizziness
fatigue

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10
Q

manifestations of severe HTN

A

epistaxis
blurred vision

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11
Q

routine tests for HTN

A

ECG
urinalysis
blood glucose, serum K, Cr, eGFR and Ca
lipid profile

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12
Q

optional tests for HTN

A

urinary albumin excretion
albumin/Cr ratio

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13
Q

why do we treat HTN?

A

to target organ damage

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14
Q

organ damage in the heart caused by HTN

A

left ventricular hypertrophy
angina/MI
HF

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15
Q

organ damage in the brain caused by HTN

A

stroke
transient ischemic attack

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16
Q

diseases caused by organ damage from HTN

A

CKD
PAD
retinopathy

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17
Q

the goal of BP management

A

reduce the risk of CVD related morbidity and mortality manifested as organ damage

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18
Q

lifestyle modifications to help treat CVD

A

weight loss
low sodium diet
physical activity

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19
Q

blood pressure =

A

cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance

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20
Q

cardiac output =

A

stroke volume x heart rate

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21
Q

drugs that decrease HR or heart contractility will

A

decrease cardiac output

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22
Q

drugs that cause vasodilation will

A

decrease peripheral vascular resistance

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23
Q

drugs that decrease blood volume will decrease

A

cardiac output and PVR

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24
Q

agents that target RAAS

A

Angiotensin concerting enzyme I (ACE) inhibitors
angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs)
direct renin inhibitor

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25
Q

diuretics used to treat HTN

A

thiazides
loops
K sparing

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26
Q

vasodilators used to treat HTN

A

calcium channel blockers (CCBs)
direct vasodilators

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27
Q

agents that target the sympathetic nervous system to treat HTN

A

beta blockers
alpha 1 blockers
alpha 2 blockers

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28
Q

most medications reduce SBP by an average of

A

5-10 mmHg

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29
Q

first line medications for treatment of HTN

A

ACE inhibitors
ARBs
CCBs
thiazides

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30
Q

direct renin inhibitor example

A

aliskiren (tekturna)

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31
Q

ACE inhibitor examples

A

benazepril (lotensin)
captopril (capoten)
enalapril (vaster)
fosinopril (monopril)
lisinopril (Prinivil, Zestril)
quinapril (accupril)
ramipril (altace)

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32
Q

ARB examples

A

candesartan (atacand)
irbesartan (Avapro)
losartan (cozaar)
olmesartan (Benicar)
telmisartan (micardis)
valsartan (diovan)
azilsartan (edarbi)

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33
Q

angiotensin II stimulates

A

sympathetic activity
tubular Na, Cl reabsorption, K excretion, H2O retention
aldosterone secretion
arteriolar vasoconstriction
ADH secretion –> H2O reabsorption

34
Q

the result of the RAAS system activation

A

water and salt retention
effective circulating volume increases

35
Q

ACEIs cause

A

vasodilation
reduction of aldosterone secretion
reduction of ADH secretion

36
Q

ADEIs cause an increase in _____________ which can contribute to _________________

but buildup of this in the lungs can lead to ________________

A

bradykinin levels

vasodilation

cough and angioedema

37
Q

ARBs are more specific for

A

blocking angiotensin I effects which limits side effects

38
Q

ARBs were hypothesized to be less effective than ACEIs however they have

A

similar clinical efficacy

39
Q

ACE inhibitors and ARBs are typically _______________ but can cause ____________ in certain situations

A

renal-protective

AKI

40
Q

constriction of afferent arteriole leads to

A

a decrease in GFR

41
Q

constriction of the efferent arteriole leads to

A

an increase in GFR

42
Q

what blood test is used as a surrogate for GFR?

A

creatinine clearance

43
Q

when an ACE/ARB is used, there is vasodilation of the __________________ which leads to a _____________ in glomerular pressure and _______________

A

efferent arteriole

reduction

decrease in GFR

44
Q

addition of an ACEI or ARB leads to only a small reduction in ___________, meaning the drug is __________

A

GFR

renal-protective by reducing excessive glomerular pressure

45
Q

In patients with renal stenosis or volume depletion, taking an ACEI/ARB can cause a

A

major reduction in GFR leading to AKI

46
Q

ACEI/ARBs can lead to

A

hyperkalemia due to a reduction in aldosterone

47
Q

when an ACEI/ARB is used there is a reduction in _________________ leading to a reduction in __________________ causing hyperkalemia

A

aldosterone secretion

K excretion

48
Q

does ACEI/ARBs cause hyponatermia?

A

although there is an increase in sodium excretion, they do NOT cause hyponatremia

49
Q

ADRs of both ACEIs and ARBs

A

hyperkalemia
increase serum creatinine

50
Q

what is a normal increase in SCr when taking an ACE/ARB?

51
Q

ADRs of ACE inhibitors

A

dry cough
angioedema

52
Q

contraindications for ACEI/ARBs

A

pregnancy
bilateral renal stenosis

53
Q

can you combine RAAS medications for therapy?

A

NOT REALLY

only in extreme situations such as HF or CKD with proteinuria

54
Q

Captopril consists of a _____________ and binds to

A

thiol group

taste buds leading to taste disturbance

55
Q

there is an increased risk of ____________ with captopril

56
Q

why does captorpil have to be taken on an empty stomach?

A

it interacts with foods

57
Q

ACE inhibitors with no thiol group replaced by an ester group

A

enalapril
quinapril
benazepril
fosinopril
ramipril

58
Q

ACE inhibitors with an ester are considered ___________ because ______________

A

prodrugs

hydrolysis of the ester is required for therapeutic activity

59
Q

enalaprilat

A

active metabolite of enalapril
given IV for treating hypertensive crisis

60
Q

lisinopril

A

lysine derivative of enalapril
carboxylic acid group replaces ester
NOT a prodrug

61
Q

ACE inhibitor prodrugs are converted into the active form in the

A

GI and liver by esterase enzymes

62
Q

lisinopril is excreted

A

mostly unchanged

63
Q

all ACE inhibitors are excreted ____________ except for _____________

A

via kidneys

fosinopril

64
Q

fosinopril is excreted by ______________ and does not

A

hepatobiliary route

accumulate in renal failure

65
Q

candesartan, olmesartan and azilsartan are ______________ which are converted into active form by __________________

A

ester prodrugs

gastrointestinal hydrolase enzymes

66
Q

active metabolite of losartan?

losartan is converted to it by what enzymes?

A

EXP-3174

CYP2C9 and CYP3A4

67
Q

losartan’s active metabolite is ______________ more potent than losartan

68
Q

irbesartsan is metabolized by

A

CYP2C9 to inactive metabolites

69
Q

excretion of ARBs

A

mixed renal and hepatobiliary elimination

70
Q

due to variable half lives or ARBs, they are dosed

A

once a day or sometimes BID

71
Q

direct renin inhibitor MOA

A

inhibits renin (responsible for conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I)

72
Q

ADRs of direct renin inhibitors

73
Q

PK of direct renin inhibitors

A

minor CYP3A4 metabolism
long half life

74
Q

when a direct renin inhibitor is added to ACEI/ARB therapy in diabetic patients with CKD,

A

it increases cardiovascular events

75
Q

under the condition of hyperkalemia, aldosterone release is mediated by

A

a direct effect of potassium on cells in the zona glomerulosa

76
Q

factors of dual negative feedback control of aldosterone secretion

A

blood volume
plasma potassium concentration

77
Q

aldosterone release leads to

A

increased absorption of sodium and water
increased potassium secretion
increased blood volume and bp

78
Q

does ACTH control aldosterone?

79
Q

aldosterone antagonists

A

usually prescribed with diuretic
for those with uncontrolled HTN, diabetes or HF

80
Q

enzyme that controls cortisol expression

A

11 beta - HSD2