Antihypertensives Flashcards

1
Q

The alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonist, clonidine, acts where centrally to produce what therapeutic effect?

A

It stimulates alpha-2A receptors in the inhibitory neurons in the vasomotor center of the medulla in the brain stem and inhibits sympathetic nervous system outflow. This action decreases blood pressure.

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2
Q

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonists antagonize the sympathetic nervous system peripherally. How?

A

Alpha-2 receptors are found peripherally in the presynaptic nerve terminals of sympathetic postganglionic neurons. Stimulation of these receptors decreases the release of norepinephrine from the presynaptic nerve terminal, decreasing blood pressure.

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3
Q

How much does pretreatment of patients with clonidine decrease MAC?

A

By about 50%.

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4
Q

What are 3 common side effects of clonidine?

A

1) sedation 2) bradycardia 3) dry mouth

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5
Q

What 3 hormones are involved in rebound hypertension associated with discontinuation of clonidine?

A

Since clonidine decreases sympathetic outflow with a resulting decrease in catecholamines and renin activity, rebound hypertension is associated with an increase in circulating catecholamines, and probably also an increase in renin, and an increase in angiotensin II.

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6
Q

Should beta-blockers be given to a patient withdrawing from clonidine? Why or why not?

A

No, beta-blockade may exaggerate the magnitude of rebound hypertension by blocking beta-2 vasodilating effects, leaving unopposed alpha vasoconstriction action This can also result in heart failure.

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7
Q

In addition to beta-blockers, what other group of drugs may exaggerate the rebound hypertension after discontinuation of clonidine? Explain.

A

Tricyclic antidepressants. TCAs inhibit the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin increasing the concentration of these neurotransmitters in the circulation. This can potentiate rebound hypertension.

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8
Q

Other than rebound hypertension following sudden withdrawal of clonidine, what is your anesthetic concern for the patient on chronic clonidine therapy?

A

Clonidine is likely to promote perioperative hypothermia because it alters thermoregulatory control.

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9
Q

How do vasodilators, nitroprusside and nitroglycerin, relax vascular smooth muscle?

A

They donate nitric oxide which activates guanylate cyclase, with converts GTP to cyclic GMP, a second messenger that relaxes vascular smooth muscle, thereby promoting vasodilation and a decrease in blood pressure.

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10
Q

On what segments of the vascular tree does nitroprusside work to decrease blood pressure.

A

It causes VENOdilation which decreases preload and arterial dilation which decreases SVR. These actions lower arterial blood pressure.

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11
Q

What are four contraindications for using sodium nitroprusside?

A

1) liver disease 2) kidney disease 3) hypothyroidism 4) vitamin B12 deficiency.

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12
Q

How is cyanide produced?

A

With high doses of nitroprusside, the ferrous ion of nitroprusside reacts with sulfahydrl groups in red blood cells and releases cyanide.

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13
Q

What three reactions may cyanide ions undergo in the body?

A

1) They can bind to methemoglobin to form cyanomethemoglobin 2) React with thiosulfate in the liver to prodoce thiocyanide 3) Bind to tissue cytochrome oxidase and impair normal oxygen utilization by the tissues.

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14
Q

How do cyanide ions interfere with oxygen utilization at tissue cytochrome oxidase?

A

Binding to tissue cytochrome oxidase uncouples oxidative phosphorylation, preventing the formation of ATP.

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15
Q

What are four hallmark signs of cyanide toxicity?

A

1) Metabolic acidosis (base deficit) 2) cardiac arrhythmias, increased venous oxygen content (SvO2) due to impaired O2 utilization of the tissues and 4) TACHYPHYLAXIS

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16
Q

What is the best indicator of cyanide toxicity?

A

Base deficit

17
Q

Tachyphylaxis develops during nitroprusside infusion. After turning off the infusion, how should cyanide toxicity be treated? How does this treatment work?

A

Sodium thiosulfate (150 mg/kg) over 15 minutes. Thiosulfate acts as a sulfur donor and coverts cyanide to thiocyanide.

18
Q

What other treatments may be used in cyanide toxicity?

A

Sodium nitrate (5 mg/kg). It converts hemoglobin to methemoglobin which reacts with cyanide to produce cyanomethemoglobin. Hydroxocobalamin (vitamin B12) can also be administered which binds cyanide to form cyanocobalamin (25 mg per hour).

19
Q

Why do vasodilators such as nitroprusside, nitroglycerin, and hydralazine cause a decrease in PaO2?

A

They are presumed to inhibit hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction which increases shunt and causes V/Q mismatch.

20
Q

Where in the vascular tree is nitroglycerin’s prominent site of action?

A

The venules, which decreases venous return secondary to venodilation.

21
Q

How does hydralazine lower blood pressure?

A

Hydralazine has a greater action on the arterioles. It interferes with calcium utilization, directly activates guanalyl cyclase leading to cGMP production, and hyperpolarizes smooth muscle membrane via potassium channels.

22
Q

How does hydralazine affect arterial blood pressure, arterial and venous smooth muscle tone, heart rate, SV, and cardiac output?

A

It decreases blood pressure, often decreasing diastolic blood pressure more than systolic blood pressure. It has a direct relaxant effect, primarily on arterioles over veins. It causes reflex tachycardia. Stroke volume and cardiac output increase.

23
Q

What syndrome occurs in 10-20% of patients treated with hydralazine? Are these patients fast or slow acetylators?

A

A systemic lupus erythematosus-like syndrome, especially in patients treated chronically with higher doses. It primarily occurs in patients who are slow acetylators. Symptoms disappear when the drug is discontinued.

24
Q

Explain how hydralazine may promote angina.

A

It causes a baroreceptor reflex increase in HR which may be detrimental in the patient with coronary heart disease, angina can occur.

25
Q

Explain how nitroglycerin may promote angina.

A

If diastolic blood pressure falls excessively, it can result in a decrease in coronary perfusion.