Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURS 305 - Exam 5 > Antifungals / Antiparasitics / Antivirals > Flashcards

Antifungals / Antiparasitics / Antivirals Flashcards

1
Q

______ refers to an infection caused by fungus

A

Mycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Fungi are ______

A

Eukaryotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the causes of candida albicans? (3)

A
  • Antibiotics
  • Antineoplastics
  • Immunosuppressants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Onychomycoses affects the ______

A

Nail bed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Tinea capititis affects the ______

A

Scalp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tinea cruris affects the ______

A

Groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Tinea pedis affects the ______

A

Feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the primary indication of Amphotericin B?

A

Fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the side effects of Amphotericin B? (3)

A
  • Fever
  • Hypotension
  • Muscle / joint pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the adverse effects of Amphotericin B? (2)

A
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Hypokalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Amphotericin B treatment takes ______

A

6 - 8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Amphotericin B is recommended to be administered with ______ to decrease renal impact

A

IVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the monitoring associated with Amphotericin B (2)

A
  • Renal function
  • Potassium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

______ provides broad fungal coverage

A

fluconazole (Diflucan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the primary indication of fluconazole (Diflucan)?

A

Fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the primary benefit associated with fluconazole (Diflucan)?

A

Great bioavailability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the primary side effect associated with fluconazole (Diflucan)?

A

GI complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the primary adverse effect associated with fluconazole (Diflucan)?

A

Liver impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the primary indication of ketoconazole (Nizoral)?

A

Fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the adverse effects of ketoconazole (Nizoral)? (5)

A
  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Cardiovascular events
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Leukopenia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drug interactions decrease absorption of ketoconazole (Nizoral)? (3)

A
  • Antacids
  • H2 antagonists
  • Proton pump inhibitors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What drug interactions increase risk of ketoconazole (Nizoral) toxicity? (3)

A
  • Digoxin
  • Warfarin
  • Sulfonylureas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the primary topical antifungal? (not systemic)

A

nystatin (Mycostatin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What types of fungal infections is nystatin (Mycostatin) used to treat? (3)

A
  • Cutaneous
  • Intestinal
  • Oral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Since antifungals are metabolized by cytochrome P450, they are …

A

Highly protein bound - many interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the common protozoal infections? (4)

A
  • Amebiasis
  • Giardiasis
  • Trichomoniasis
  • Toxoplasmosis
27
Q

______ patients are at higher risk of developing protozoal infections

A

Immunocompromised

28
Q

What are the routes of metronidazole (Flagyl)? (2)

29
Q

What type of protozoal infection is metronidazole (Flagyl) used to treat?

A

Trichomoniasis

30
Q

______ are used to treat non-HIV viruses

A

Antivirals

31
Q

______ are used to treat HIV

A

Antiretrovirals

32
Q

What are the indications of oseltamivir (Tamiflu)? (2)

A
  • Influenza A
  • Influenza B
33
Q

What is the route of oseltamivir (Tamiflu)?

34
Q

What is the goal of oseltamivir (Tamiflu)?

A

Reduce the duration of illness (several days)

35
Q

What is the primary side effect of oseltamivir (Tamiflu)?

A

Nausea / vomiting

36
Q

oseltamivir (Tamiflu) treatment should begin within ______ of influenza symptom onset

37
Q

Describe the primary nursing consideration associated with oseltamivir (Tamiflu)

A

Renal dose adjustments required

38
Q

What is HSV-1?

A

Oral herpes

39
Q

What is HSV-2?

A

Genital herpes

40
Q

What is VZV?

A

Chickenpox / singles

41
Q

What is HHV-4?

A

Epstein-Barr (mono)

42
Q

What is HHV-5?

A

Cytomegalovirus

43
Q

What is HHV-8?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

44
Q

What are the indications of acyclovir (Zovirax)? (3)

A
  • HSV-1
  • HSV-2
  • VZV
45
Q

What are the adverse effects of acyclovir (Zovirax)? (2)

A
  • Renal failure
  • Neurotoxicity
46
Q

What are the manifestations of neurotoxicity? (3)

A
  • Agitation
  • Delirium
  • Hallucinations
47
Q

Describe the nursing interventions associated with acyclovir (Zovirax) (2)

A
  • Wear gloves with topical administration
  • Monitor for phlebitis with IV administration
48
Q

What are the indications of valacyclovir (Valtrex)? (3)

A
  • HSV-1
  • HSV-2
  • VZV
49
Q

When should valacyclovir (Valtrex) be taken?

A

At the first sign of an outbreak

50
Q

What is the primary indication of ganciclovir (Cytovene)?

A

Cytomegalovirus (transplant patents)

51
Q

Describe the black box warning associated with ganciclovir (Cytovene)

A

Extreme risk of toxicity

52
Q

What are the manifestations of ganciclovir (Cytovene) toxicity? (3)

A
  • Anemia
  • Neutropenia
  • Thrombocytopenia
53
Q

Describe the risks associated with ganciclovir (Cytovene) (3)

A
  • Carcinogenic
  • Teratogenic
  • Infertility
54
Q

What is the primary class of antiretrovirals?

A

Nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI)

55
Q

What is the standard treatment for HIV?

A

Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)

56
Q

HAART consists of ______ medications

57
Q

Describe HAART (3)

A
  • Starts immediately after diagnosis
  • NOT curative
  • Prophylactic
58
Q

HAAART is highly ______

59
Q

What are the goals of HAART? (4)

A
  • Decrease replication
  • Decrease opportunistic infections
  • Increase T cells
  • Prolong life
60
Q

What is the drug class of zidovudine (AZT, Retrovir)?

61
Q

Describe the primary nursing intervention associated with zidovudine (AZT, Retrovir)

A

Renal dose adjustments required

62
Q

What is the primary risk associated with hepatitis C?

A

Thromboembolic events

63
Q

Hepatitis C may reactivate ______

A

Hepatitis B infection

64
Q

What is the therapeutic dosage used for treatment of hepatitis C?

A

ledipasvir 90 mg / sofobuvir 400 mg = Harvoni

NURS 305 - Exam 5 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions