Antiemetics - Dr. C PowerPoint Flashcards

1
Q

What is the leading cause of unanticipated hospital admission following outpatient surgery?

A

PONV and its complications

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2
Q

Without prophylaxis, nausea occurs in what percent of patients who receive general anesthesia? Can be as high as ____% in high risk patients.

A

40%

As high as 80%.

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3
Q

A patient who experiences nausea or who vomits within how many hours of a surgical procedure that required anesthesia meets the criteria for PONV diagnosis

A

24 hours - anything within 24 hours falls under anesthesia

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4
Q

Early PONV is NV within?

A

6 hours

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5
Q

Late PONV is NV between?

A

6-24 hours

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6
Q

PONV can be associated with morbidity due to:

A

Dehydration, electrolyte abnormalities, wound dehiscence from retching, bleeding, esophageal rupture, airway compromise such as aspiration

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7
Q

Is emesis always proceeded by nausea?

A

No

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8
Q

The sequence of events that occur during emesis is controlled by? Which lies in the?

A

Vomiting center in the medulla oblongata

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9
Q

A number of neurotransmitters modulate the activity of the vomiting center what are some of these?

A

*Serotonin, *dopamine, substance P, ACh, GABA, and cannabinoids

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10
Q

Slightly superior or cephalad to the vomiting center is the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), also known as? This area, detects what in the bloodstream?

A

Area postrema, detects noxious chemicals in the bloodstream

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11
Q

Is the chemoreceptor trigger zone within or outside the blood-brain barrier?

A

Outside the blood-brain barrier, allowing it to sample more chemical chemicals in the blood

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12
Q

A number of transmitters modulate the activity of the vomiting center name them

A

Serotonin, Dopamine, Substance P GABA, Cannabinoids

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13
Q

Patient risk factors that increase risk of PONV

A

women, nonsmokers, hx of motion sickness, previous episodes of PONV

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14
Q

Surgical factors that increase risk of PONV

A

Long surgical procedures, gynecology, laparoscopic, ENT, breast surgery, plastic surgery, orthopedic surgery

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15
Q

Anesthetic factors that increase risk of PONV

A

Use of inhalational anesthetics, including nitrous, neostigmine and opioids

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16
Q

What are the current anti-emetic drug classes?

A

Corticosteroids
Phenothiazines - (compazine)
Butyrophenes -(droperidol, haloperidol)
Benzamides - (reglan)
Anticholinergics
Antihistamines
5-HT3 Antagonists
NK-1 Antagonists
Benzodiazepines

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17
Q

Scopolamine works best a preventing what kind of Nausea and Vomiting

A

Prevention of motion-induced NV

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18
Q

How long is one patch of scopolamine good for

A

24-72 hours

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19
Q

What is the most reported side effect of scopolamine

A

drying of secretions / dry mouth

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20
Q

Due to its anti-dopaminergic activity metoclopramide should be used with caution, if at all in patients with?

A

Parkinson’s disease, restless, leg syndrome, movement disorders related to dopamine, inhibition, and depression

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21
Q

What is akathisia?

A

Can occur after administration of reglan- feeling of unease and restlessness in lower
extremities can occur following IV administration

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22
Q

Adult dose of Reglan

A

10-20mg IV

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23
Q

What is the MOA of metoclopramide (reglan)

A

Week antiemetic, stimulates the GI tract via cholinergic mechanisms that result in features gastric and small intestinal.

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24
Q

If using Midazolam for antiemetic effects - when should it be administered during a case?

A

Should be administered IV towards the end of the case by infusion in intubated and vented patients in the ICU

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25
Q

What is believed to be the MOA of midazolam’s antiemetic effects?

A

Believed to decrease dopamine’s emetic effect and decrease the release of serotonin

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26
Q

What are three antiemetic drugs in the Butyrophenones class?

A

Droperidol and Haloperidol

Barhemsys (Amisulpride)

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27
Q

What is the PONV dose for droperidol

A

0.625-1.25mg

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28
Q

What is the PONV dose for haloperidol

A

0.5-2mg

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29
Q

Is droperidol less, the same, or more effective than decadron or zofran?

A

As effective as both decadron and zofran preventing PONV

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30
Q

If using droperidol, when should it be given during the case?

A

Give at the beginning of the case or as a rescue drug in PACU when all else hasn’t worked

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31
Q

What population should butyrophenones (droperidol and haloperidol) be used with caution in?

A

Patients with Parkinson’s, restless leg syndrome, or other diseases related to dopaminergic activity. It can cause extrapyramidal symptoms.

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32
Q

What is the black box warning for droperidol?

A

Can prolong QT interval in doses higher than the PONV prophylaxis doses.

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33
Q

What is Barhemsys (Amisulpride) MOA?

A

Selective D2 and D3 receptor antagonist

34
Q

What is Barhemsys (Amisulpride) used for?

A

approved as a rescue agent for PONV

35
Q

What is the dose of Barhemsys (Amisulpride) ?

A

recommended dose 5-10mg

36
Q

What patients should you avoid using Barhemsys (Amisulpride) ?

A

Patients with congenital long QT syndrome

37
Q

Is Barhemsys (Amisulpride) sedating?

A

advertised as non-sedating

38
Q

Is droperidol sedating?

39
Q

Dose for decadron PONV

40
Q

Which pts are at risk for increased perioperative hyperglycemia with a single dose of decadron

A

Obese and diabetic

41
Q

what dose of droperidol has similar effectiveness as zofran or decadron

42
Q

5-HT3 receptor antagonists can each cause what ecg change

A

slight prolongation of QTc interval

43
Q

What is the brand name for Dimenhydrinate

44
Q

What is Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) effective at preventing?

A

Preventing PONV as well as motion sickness

45
Q

What is the PONV dose of Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) ?

46
Q

In children, Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) at what dose can significantly decrease the incidence of vomiting after strabismus surgery

A

0.5mg/kg IV

47
Q

What is one Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonist that can be used for PONV prophylaxis? What dose and when should you give it?

A

Emend
40mg PO before surgery

48
Q

What is the MOA of Emend?

A

Substance P and NK-1 receptor antagonists

49
Q

What is believed to be the mechanism behind neurokinin 1 receptor antagonism related to PONV

A

It is believed to provide antiemetic activity by suppressing their activity at the nucleus of the solitary tract (NST), where vagal afferents from the GI tract converge with inputs from the area postrema (aka chemoreceptor trigger zone) and other regions of that brain that initiate emesis

50
Q

One patch of scopolamine contains how much medication

51
Q

Normal dose of Prochlorperazine (Compazine) for adults

52
Q

Aspiration during GA occurs in ~ 1/? adults and 1/? children

A

1/8500 adults
1/4400 children

53
Q

What are two situations with an increased risk for aspiration

A

emergency operations due to full stomachs
Bowel obstructions

54
Q

Drugs that increase the pH of gastric contents are called

55
Q

Drugs that decrease the volume of gastric contents are called

A

prokinetics

56
Q

How do oral antacids work

A

Neutralize (remove) hydrogen ions from gastric contents or decrease secretion of hydrogen chloride into the stomach

57
Q

What is the nonparticulate (clear) antacid? What population receives it the most

A

Sodium Citrate - used in OB

58
Q

What is the benefit of a nonparticulate (clear) antacid?

A

They are less likely to cause a foreign body reaction if aspirated, and their mixing in gastric fluid is more complete than particulate antacids

59
Q

What is the dose of sodium citrate? When should it be given?

A

15-30mL and admin 15-30min before induction of anesthesia

60
Q

What are some complications of Antacid Therapy

A

Bacterial overgrowth in small intestine
UTI
Urolithiasis
Altered Renal Elimination (reflects increased urinary ph)
Acid rebound (unique to calcium-containing antacids)
Hypophosphatemia
Milk-Alkali Syndrome (hypercalcemia, systemic alkalosis)
Drug interactions

61
Q

How do Macrolides work in the GI System

A

increases lower esophageal
sphincter tone, enhances intraduodenal coordination, and
promotes emptying of gastric liquids.

prokinetic properties

62
Q

What are the most effective drugs available for controlling gastric acidity and volume?

A

Proton Pump Inhibitors

63
Q

What is the MOA of PPIs?

64
Q

Histamine induces what within the body

A

Contraction of smooth muscles in the airways
Increases the secretion of acid in the stomach
Stimulates release of neurotransmitters in the CNS

65
Q

How do Histamine Receptor Antagonists work

A

bind to receptors on effector cell membranes, to the exclusion of agonist molecules, without themselves activating the receptor (histamine receptor antagonists do not inhibit release of histamine)

66
Q

How are H1 receptor antagonists characterized? What are the differences?

A

First Generation: Tend to produce sedation
Second Generation: Relatively nonsedating

67
Q

How fast do H1 receptor antagonists take to reach peak plasma concentrations

A

Within 2 hours

69
Q

What are the clinical uses of H1 Receptor Antagonists

A

-Prevent and relieve symptoms of allergic rhinitis.
-Used to treat acute anaphylactic rxns
-Diphenhydramine used as a sedative, antipruritic, and antiemetic

70
Q

What CNS effects are associated with H1 Receptor Antagonists?

A

Somnolence
Diminished Alertness
Slowed Reaction Time
Impairment of cognitive fxn

71
Q

What are some possible cardiac side effects of H1 receptor antagonists?

A

Tachycardia, prolong QTc, heart block, arrythmias

72
Q

MOA of H2 Receptor Antagonists

A

Produce selective and reversible inhibition of H2 receptor-mediated secretion of hydrogen ions by parietal cells

73
Q

What are some H2 blockers

A

Cimetidine
Famotidine

74
Q

Cimetidine clearance decreases _____% between the ages of 20 and 70 years old

75
Q

What are the nonspecific Anti Histamine Agents

A

Nonspecific antihistamines, likely acting on H1 receptors, including diphenhydramine,
dimenhydrinate, and promethazine

76
Q

What is the MOA of H2 Blockers

A

H2-receptor antagonists competitively and selectively inhibit the binding of histamine to H2 receptors, thereby decreasing the intracellular concentrations of cAMP and
the subsequent secretion of hydrogen ions by the parietal cells

77
Q

How long before induction of anesthesia should omeprazole be administered

A

> 3 hours before induction

78
Q

What is the usual dose of omeprazole? How long until onset effects occur?

A

20mg PO
Occurs within 2-6 hours

79
Q

How does omeprazole reduce aspiration risks

A

effectively increases gastric fluid pH and decreases gastric fluid volume

80
Q

What is the only drug approved by the FDA for the tx of diabetic gastroparesis

A

Metoclopramide

81
Q

IV admin of Reglan may be associated with

A

hypotension
tachycardia
bradycardia
cardiac dysrhythmias

82
Q

Who should not receive GI prokinetic drugs

A

A patient with a suspected or known mechanical obstruction to gastric emptying