antiemetics Flashcards

1
Q

Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting

PONV is associated with _____ and ______

Most common complication observed in PACU
– Identify_____ for PONV
– Identify high-risk ______

Most ____ reason (along with _____) for hospitalization following ambulatory surgery

May result in _____ and _____ problems

A

Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting

PONV is associated with delayed recovery and patient dissatisfaction

Most common complication observed in PACU
– Identify risk factors for PONV
– Identify high-risk populations/surgical patients

Most common reason (along with pain) for hospitalization following ambulatory surgery

May result in incisional stress and postoperative problems

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2
Q

Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting

• Use of _____ to prevent and treat PONV

  • Target various _____ associated with nausea and vomiting
  • ____ acting
  • ____ acting
  • _____ therapies
A

Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting

• Use of antiemetics to prevent and treat PONV

  • Target various pathways associated with nausea and vomiting
  • Centrally acting
  • Peripherally acting
  • Combination therapies
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3
Q

Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting

PONV occurs in ____% of general surgical population (___% in children)

Increases to _____% in patients with risk factors

Increased ______ duration leads to increased risk

_______ (SAMBA) Guidelines – ____ scoring system

Multifactorial: ____, ____ and ____l risk factors

** At-risk patients benefit from _____ measures **

A

Postoperative Nausea and Vomiting

PONV occurs in 20-30% of general surgical population (25-39% in children)

Increases to 70-80% in patients with risk factors

Increased anesthetic duration leads to increased risk

Society of Ambulatory Anesthesia (SAMBA) Guidelines – simplified scoring system

Multifactorial: anesthetic, surgical and individual risk factors

** At-risk patients benefit from one or more prophylactic measures **

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4
Q

Patient Risk Factors for PONV

  • ____ gender (overall ____ predictor)
  • History of ___ or ____ (___ predisposition)
  • ___-smoker
  • Age < ___ years (risk decreases by ___% per decade in adults)
  • _____ (r/t s____ air and abdominal ____ and increased ____)
  • Gastro_____
  • Recent food _____
A

Patient Risk Factors for PONV

  • Female gender (overall strongest predictor)
  • History of PONV or motion sickness (genetic predisposition)
  • Non-smoker
  • Age < 50 years (risk decreases by 10% per decade in adults)
  • Apprehension (r/t swallowed air and abdominal distention and increased catecholamines)
  • Gastroparesis
  • Recent food ingestion
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5
Q

Surgical Risk Factors for PONV

Increased _____ of anesthetic/surgery (each ___ min increase in duration increases PONV risk by___0%)

Surgical type (___, ___, _&_, ___, ___/___)

A

Surgical Risk Factors for PONV

Increased duration of anesthetic/surgery (each 30 min increase in duration increases PONV risk by 60%)

Surgical type (laparoscopy, eye, T&A, breast, GU/GYN)

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6
Q

Anesthesia Risk Factors for PONV

____ analgesics(____ receptor site stimulation and release of ____)

____ induction–gastric ___ from _____

_____ anesthetic agents(____-dependent and ____ among all agents)

___ __(increased __ ____ pressure,____distention and ____ nerve activation)

Maintenance:___ anesthesia time, _____,____ administration

* _____ found to result in less postoperative vomiting than other ___ agents*

A

Anesthesia Risk Factors for PONV

Opioid analgesics(opioid receptor site stimulation and release of serotonin)

Inhalational induction–gastric distention from PPV

Volatile anesthetic agents(dose-dependent and equivocal among all agents)

Nitrous oxide(increased middle ear pressure,GI distention and sympathetic nerve activation)

Maintenance:Longer anesthesia time,GA,opioid administration

* Propofol found to result in less postoperative vomiting than other hypnotic agents*

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7
Q

Ambulation (especially with ___ analgesics)

_____ hypotension

Uncontrolled ____ (increased ____, endogenous ___ activators such as _____)

Postoperative ____ administration

Early ___ intake

Lower _____ concentration

Reversal agents (____ > _____ mg)

A

Postanesthetic Risk Factors for PONV

Ambulation (especially with opioid analgesics)

Postural hypotension

Uncontrolled pain (increased catecholamines, endogenous nociceptor activators such as serotonin)

Postoperative opioid administration

Early oral intake

Lower Fi02 concentration

Reversal agents (neostigmine > 2.5 mg)

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8
Q

Strategies to reduce baseline risk

  • avoidance of ____ by the use of ____ anesthesia
  • Use of ___ for ___ and ____ of anesthesia
  • Avoidance of ____ in surgeries lasting over ___ hr
  • Avoidance of ____ anesthetics
  • Minimization of intraoperative and postoperative ____
  • Aquedate ____
  • Using _____ rather than ____ for reversal of _____
A

Strategies to reduce baseline risk

  • avoidance of GA by the use of regional anesthesia
  • Use of propofol for induction and maintenance of anesthesia
  • Avoidance of Nitrous Oxide in surgeries lasting over 1 hr
  • Avoidance of volatile anesthetics
  • Minimization of intraoperative and postoperative opioids
  • Aquedate hydration
  • Using Suggamadex rather than neostigmine for reversal of NMBD
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9
Q

Risk Factors for Post-discharge N/V (PDNV)

  • ___ gender
  • Age • History of ____

• PONV in ____

A

Risk Factors for Post-discharge N/V (PDNV)

  • Female gender
  • Age<50 years
  • History of PONV

• PONV in PACU

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10
Q

SAMBA Guidelines

Identify ____ at risk for PONV

Employ ____ ______ to reduce PONV risk

Employ ___or ___ ____ measures in ___ at ____ risk

Use ____ interventions in patients at ___ PONV risk

Administer ____ antiemetic therapy to ____ at high risk using ____ therapy

Provide ____ therapy to patients with PONV who did not receive ____ therapy or in whom ______ failed

A

SAMBA Guidelines

Identify patients at risk for PONV

Employ management strategies to reduce PONV risk

Employ one or two prophylactic measures in adults at moderate risk

Use multiple interventions in patients at high PONV risk

Administer prophylactic antiemetic therapy to children at high risk using combination therapy

Provide antiemetic therapy to patients with PONV who did not receive prophylactic therapy or in whom prophylaxis failed

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11
Q

Apfel score

  • ___
  • ___
  • ___
  • ___

Score of _-_ is high, __-__% risk of postop NV

A

Apfel score

  • Female
  • nonsmoker
  • Hx of PONV
  • Postop opioids

Score of 3-4 is high, 60-80% risk of postop NV

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12
Q

Combination Therapy

Antiemetic drugs should be administered ____ or in ____ based on ___ factors

Combination therapy targets ____ receptors

___-onset agent + ____ duration of action

Patients at ____ risk will benefit from ___ therapy

Postop nausea and vomiting treat with ____ pharmacological ____ than the ______ antiemetic administered

Also consider combo therapy for certain surgical procedures: ___, ___, ___, ___, ____, increased ___

A

Combination Therapy

Antiemetic drugs should be administered singularly or in combination based on risk factors

Combination therapy targets multiple receptors

Rapid-onset agent + longer duration of action

Patients at high risk will benefit from combination therapy

Postop nausea and vomitingàtreat with different pharmacological class than the prophylactic antiemetic administered

Also consider combo therapy for certain surgical procedures: gastric, esophageal, plastic, eye, mandibular jaw wiring, increased ICP

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13
Q

Anatomy and Physiology

Vomiting triggered ____ or via ____pathway

– Directly: ___stimuli, __, ___, ____

– ____ pathway: stimulation of vomiting center in ____ _____

  • Cerebral ___/____
  • ______ apparatus
  • ____ afferent ____ tracts
  • ______ (CTZ)

– Once activated, efferent motor nerves travel through cranial nerves (_, ___, ___, ___, ___), _____, and ____ nerves to stimulate various parts of body

****You need to remember the stimulation of vomiting center is in ___ ___ and
the _____() is important part of vomiting trigger pathway.

A

Anatomy and Physiology

Vomiting triggered directly or via indirect pathway

– Directly: noxious stimuli, toxins, drugs, irritants

– Indirect pathway: stimulation of vomiting center in medulla oblongata

  • Cerebral cortex/thalamus
  • Vestibular apparatus
  • Vagal afferent GI tracts
  • Chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)

– Once activated, efferent motor nerves travel through cranial nerves (V, VII, IX, X, XII), sympathetic, and spinal nerves to stimulate various parts of body

****You need to remember the stimulation of vomiting center is in medulla oblongata and
the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) is important part of vomiting trigger pathway.

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14
Q

Receptors thought to be activated include:

– ___

– ____

– ___

– ____

– _____

A

Receptors thought to be activated include:

– Histamine

– Muscarinic

– Opioid

– Dopamine (D2)

– 5- hydroxytryptamine (serotonin)

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15
Q

Serotonin Receptor Antagonists

Serotonin (5-HT): ___ and ____ tract

Important _____ in CNS

______ inactivates serotonin

At least _____ receptor subtypes

******_____ receptor mediates vomiting and is found in ___ tract (abdominal ____ afferents) and ____ (____ zone of area ___ and _____)

A

Serotonin Receptor Antagonists

Serotonin (5-HT): platelets and GI tract

Important neurotransmitter in CNS

Monoamine oxidase inactivates serotonin

At least seven receptor subtypes

*****5-HT3 receptor mediates vomiting and is found in GI tract (abdominal vagal afferents) and brain (chemoreceptor trigger zone of area postrema and nucleus tractus solitarius)

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16
Q

Serotonin

Effects of 5-HT3 receptor mediated via ____ channel (other 5-HT receptors are _____ receptors)

5-HT3 receptors in area ___ ___ BBB

Trigger zone activated by ____ and _____

Signals ______ resulting in PONV

GI emetogenic stimuli simulate development of PONV in ____ way

A

Serotonin

Effects of 5-HT3 receptor mediated via ion channel (other 5-HT receptors are G-protein coupled receptors)

5-HT3 receptors in area postrema outside BBB

Trigger zone activated by anesthetics and opioids

Signals nucleus tractus solitarius resulting in PONV

GI emetogenic stimuli simulate development of PONV in similar way

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17
Q

Serotonin

Systemic Effects

CV: powerful ____ (exceptin ___/____), ____ effect in heart is ____ dependent, may lead to increases in _____ and ____ with reflex ____ after

Resp: increased ___ _____

GI: release of ____ in ______ increases _____

A

Serotonin

Systemic Effects

CV: powerful vasoconstrictor (exceptin heart/skeletal muscle), vasodilator effect in heart is endothelium dependent, may lead to increases in cardiac contractility and heart rate with reflex bradycardia after

Resp: increased airway resistance

GI: release of Ach in myenteric plexus increases peristalsis

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18
Q

Serotonin Receptor Antagonists

5-HT3 receptors are gated ____channels that can be found in the ___/____

– Especially in ____, and ___ fibers of ___ nerve in ___ tract/___

Serotonin receptor antagonists inhibit ___ and ____ stimulation of 5-HT3 receptors

Effective, do not cause ___ and well ___

Generally administered at the ____ of surgery

Side effects: (Well tolerated) ___, prolonged ____

****Medications: ___, ___ and ____

A

Serotonin Receptor Antagonists

5-HT3 receptors are gated Na+/K+ channels that can be found in the CNS/PNS

– Especially in CTZ, and afferent fibers of vagus nerve in GI tract/CNS

Serotonin receptor antagonists inhibit central and peripheral stimulation of 5-HT3 receptors

Effective, do not cause sedation and well tolerated

Generally administered at the end of surgery

Side effects: (Well tolerated) Headache, prolonged QT interval

****Medications: Ondansetron, Palonosetron and Dolasetron

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19
Q

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Selective Serotonin Type___ Receptor Antagonist

Dose PO: __or ____mg (For PONV prophylaxis, ___ mg PO dose x 1 ___ hour before ___ of ___)

Dose: ___ mg single dose___(___ mg/kg if < ____ kg)

Half-life:____ hours (dose towards end of surgery)

Onset: ____minutes

Peak plasma: almost immediate

A

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Selective Serotonin Type 3 Receptor Antagonist

Dose PO: 4 or 8 mg (For PONV prophylaxis, 16 mg PO dose x 1 one hour before induction of anesthesia)

Dose: 4 mg single dose IV (0.1 mg/kg if < 40 kg)

Half-life: 4 hours (dose towards end of surgery)

Onset: 30 minutes

Peak plasma: almost immediate

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20
Q
  • Bioavailability:___%
  • Protein binding: __-____%
  • Metabolism: Liver (CYP___, CYP___, CYP____)

Extensive metabolism in liver by ____ and ____ CYP-450; less than ___% metabolized by kidneys (___renal dose adjustment)

A
  • Bioavailability:60%
  • Protein binding: 70-76%
  • Metabolism: Liver (CYP3A4, CYP1A2, CYP2D6)

Extensive metabolism in liver by hydroxylation and conjugation CYP-450; less than 5% metabolized by kidneys (no renal dose adjustment)

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21
Q

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Elimination half-life: 3-7 hours

Excretion:urine(30-70%)/feces(25%)

Severe ____ impairment will decrease clearance due to increase in plasma half-life (daily dose not to exceed ___mg)

Side effects (mild to moderate): headache, dizziness, diarrhea, constipation, QTc prolongation

A

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Elimination half-life: 3-7 hours

Excretion:urine(30-70%)/feces(25%)

Severe hepatic impairment will decrease clearance due to increase in plasma half-life (daily dose not to exceed 8 mg)

Side effects (mild to moderate): headache, dizziness, diarrhea, constipation, QTc prolongation

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22
Q

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Effective _____ in preventing vomiting ____

Effective in treating ____ vomiting

Most effective when administered at the ____ of the surgical procedure

Studies have shown ___ mg = ____mg IV in PACU as ___ for N/V

A

Ondansetron (Zofran)

Effective preoperatively in preventing vomiting intraoperatively

Effective in treating postoperative vomiting

Most effective when administered at the end of thesurgical procedure

Studies have shown 4 mg = 8 mg IV in PACU as rescue for N/V

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23
Q

Palonosetron (Aloxi)

____ generation serotonin antagonist

Most ____ - greater ___ for serotonin receptor by ___-fold

One of the most effective treatments for ____- induced N/V and PONV

A

Palonosetron (Aloxi)

Second generation serotonin antagonist

Most selective - greater affinity for serotonin receptor by 100-fold

One of the most effective treatments for chemotherapy- induced N/V and PONV

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24
Q

Palonosetron (Aloxi)

Half-life: ____ hours (therapeutic effects for ____ hours)

Dosing:____ mg PONV; _____ chemo-induced N/V

Excretion: more than ___% excreted in ____ over ___days and ____amount is unchanged

____ dosage adjustments for ___, ___, ____ pts.

No __/___ data in patients < ____years of age

A

Palonosetron (Aloxi)

Half-life: 40 hours (therapeutic effects for 72 hours)

Dosing: 0.75 mg PONV; 0.25mg chemo-induced N/V

Excretion: more than 80% excreted in urine over 6 days and 1⁄2 amount is unchanged

No dosage adjustments for elderly, renal, hepatic pts.

No safety/efficacy data in patients < 18 years of age

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25
Q

Dolasetron (Anzemet)

___ serotonin type 3 receptor antagonist (highly ___ and ___)

MOA: reduce activity of ____ nerve to limit activation of the ___ center in ___ ___

Dose: ____ mg IV

DOA: ___ hours

Protein binding: ___-____%

Elimination half-life: _____ hours

Elimination: ___, ___

***Onset: ____

Peak plasma: ____minutes

A

Dolasetron (Anzemet)

Selective serotonin type 3 receptor antagonist (highly specific and selective)

MOA: reduce activity of vagus nerve to limit activation of the vomiting center in medulla oblongata

Dose: 12.5 mg IV

DOA: 4-9 hours

Protein binding: 69-77%

Elimination half-life: 8.1 hours

Elimination: liver (CYP450), kidneys

Onset: ~immediate

Peak plasma: 36 minutes

26
Q

Dolasetron (Anzemet)

Administer within ____minutes before the end of anesthesia

Single oral dose ___mg ____ hours preop is effective also

One study: ____mg IV shown to have equal efficacy as ___mg ____ in preventing PONV

Adverse effects: ___, ___, ___, potential for ___

Active metabolite: ____

Excretion: ___/_____

A

Dolasetron (Anzemet)

Administer within 15 minutes before the end of anesthesia

Single oral dose 100 mg 1-2 hours preop is effective also

One study: 50 mg IV shown to have equal efficacy as 4 mg ondansetron in preventing PONV

Adverse effects: headache, dizziness, constipation, potential for QT prolongation

Active metabolite: hydrodolasetron

Excretion: urine/feces

27
Q

Droperidol

_____ derivative structurally similar to ____

Class: ___/____ receptor antagonist

MOA: blocks ____ receptors that contribute to development of PONV

___, ___, __ and ___ properties

Dosing: ___-____ mg ___(slow) or ___

A

Droperidol

Butyropheone derivative structurally similar to haloperidol

Class: Butyrophenone/dopamine receptor antagonist

MOA: blocks dopamine receptors that contribute to development of PONV

Anxiolytic, sedative, hypnotic and antiemetic properties

Dosing: 0.625-1.25 mg IV (slow) or IM

28
Q

Droperidol

Onset:__ to ___ minutes

Peak: ____minutes

Duration of action: _-__hours

Metabolism: ___

Excretion: ___ (___% unchanged) and ___

***_____

Doses in FDA black box warning __-___ mg

No ____ that use of droperidol at doses used for PONV prophylaxis increases risk of sudden ____ in perioperative population

A

Droperidol

Onset: 3 to 10 minutes

Peak: 30 minutes

Duration of action: 2-4 hours

Metabolism: Liver

Excretion: Urine (10% unchanged) and feces

***QT interval prolongation

Doses in FDA black box warning 5-15 mg

No evidence that use of droperidol at doses used for PONV prophylaxis increases risk of sudden cardiac death in perioperative population

29
Q

Droperidol

__-___ mcg/kg IV effective in reducing vomiting

___ mcg/kg IV immediately after induction superior to __ __-___ mg PO in reducing PONV

______dose causes prolonged sedation (increased PACU _____)

High dose (____) – increased side effects: __, __, __, __, ___ side effects

FDA: ____ monitoring of patients for ___hours after administration (clinical relevance?)

Decreased use in clinical practice because of _____

A

Dropedridol

10-20 mcg/kg IV effective in reducing vomiting

20 mcg/kg IV immediately after induction superior to metoclopramide 5-10 mg PO in reducing PONV

20 mcg/kg dose causes prolonged sedation (increased PACU LOS)

High dose (50-75 mcg/kg) – increased side effects: anxiety, dizziness, drowsiness, hypotension, extrapyramidal side effects

FDA: 12-lead EKG monitoring of patients for 2-3 hours after administration (clinical relevance?)

Decreased use in clinical practice because of FDA advisory

30
Q

Dopamine receptor antagonists

___ receptors in ____ tract sends signal to ___ to induce n___ in ____ center

___ side effects

Contraindicated in patients with ____ disease

A

Dopamine receptor antagonists

D2 receptors in GI tract sends signal to CNS to induce nausea and vomiting in vomiting center

Extrapyramidal side effects

Contraindicated in patients with Parkinson’s disease

31
Q

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

belongs to: _____

Class: ___/____

MOA: affects multiple receptors - ____, ___ (___ blockade), ____

Used for PONV ___

Dose: _____ IM/IV before induction

IM onset____ minutes

DOA ____ hours

Protein binding: ___%

Peak: _____ hours

A

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Phenothiazine

Class: Antipsychotic/antiemetic

MOA: affects multiple receptors - histaminergic, dopaminergic (D2 blockade), muscarinic

Used for PONV prophylaxis

Dose: 5-10 mg IM/IV before induction

IM onset 5-10 minutes

DOA 3-4 hours

Protein binding: 91-99%

Peak: 2-4 hours

32
Q

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Metabolism: Primarily ____

Elimination half-life: _-___ hours (IV)

Excretion: ___, __ metabolites in ___

May cause ___ and ____ side effects

Adverse effects: ___, ___, __, ___, ____, ___, ___

A

Prochlorperazine (Compazine)

Metabolism: Primarily liver CYP2D6/CYP3A4

Elimination half-life: 6-10 hours (IV)

Excretion: Biliary, inactive metabolites in urine

May cause extrapyramidal and anticholinergic side effects

Adverse effects: sedation, blurred vision, hypotension, dizziness, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, restlessness, dystonia

33
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

____ receptor antagonist, antiemetic, ____motility stimulant

MOA: ___ acting as ____ receptor antagonist in ____ center (peripherally acting as ____ in GI tract (facilitates ____ transmission at ____ receptors))

Increases _____tone, speeds ____ time, lowers ____ fluid volume

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Dopamine receptor antagonist, antiemetic, upper GI motility stimulant

MOA: centrally acting as dopamine receptor antagonist in CTZ/vomit center (peripherally acting as cholinomimetic in GI tract (facilitates Ach transmission at muscarinic receptors))

Increases LES tone, speeds gastric emptying time, lowers gastric fluid volume

34
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Efficacious for ___, ____, ____ pneumonia prophylaxis

Dose: ___ mg IV (Range __-___ mg) or___-____ mg/kg IV q __-___hours (Chemotherapy: __-___ mg/kg large doses)

Route: __, ___ push, ___ infusion, ___

IV: Give ___mg slowly over __-___ minutes

Rapid injection->_______

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Efficacious for gastroparesis, GERD, aspiration pneumonia prophylaxis

Dose: 10 mg IV (Range 5-20 mg) or 0.1-0.25 mg/kg IV q 6-8 hours (Chemotherapy: 1-2 mg/kg large doses)

Route: PO, IV push, IV infusion, IM

IV: Give 10 mg slowly over 1-2 minutes

Rapid injection->abdominal cramping

35
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Studies show metoclopramide is ineffective at ___ doses (i.e. ___ IV) unless used in combination with other antiemetics (i.e. ____)

Alone, even ____mg/kg dose is not as effective as ____

Advantage: lack of ___ properties

Sedated PACU patient – ____mg/kg IV

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Studies show metoclopramide is ineffectiveat lower doses (i.e. 10 mg IV) unless used in combination with other antiemetics (i.e. dexamethasone)

Alone, even 0.5 mg/kg dose is not as effective as ondansetron

Advantage: lack of sedative properties

Sedated PACU patient – 0.15 mg/kg IV

36
Q

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Onset: __-___ minutes IV

Peak: ___-____ hours

Duration: ___-____ hours

Metabolism: ____

Elimination: ____excretion (modify for impaired ___ function); elimination half-life __-___ hours

Excretion: urine (__-___%)/feces (___%)

Adverse effects: May cause____side effects in higher doses; contraindicated in ___, ___, ____

**Avoid in ______ (can cause ____ crisis by releasing ____ from tumor)

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

Onset: 3-5 minutes IV

Peak: 1-2 hours

Duration: 1-2 hours

Metabolism: Liver

Elimination: renal excretion (modify for impaired renal function); elimination half-life 5-6 hours

Excretion: urine (70-85%)/feces (2%)

Adverse effects: May cause extrapyramidal side effects in higher doses; contraindicated in Parkinson’s disease, seizure, GI obstruction

**Avoid in pheochromocytoma (can cause HTN crisis by releasing catecholamines from tumor)

37
Q

Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonists

Medications: []

NK receptors are found in ____ and regulate ____ function

NK1 receptor antagonists provide antiemetic activity by suppressing activity at____

___ approved for PONV

Rolapitant half-life of ___ hours(CINV and possible PDNV)

A

Neurokinin 1 Receptor Antagonists

Medications:Aprepitant(Emend),Fosaprepritant (Emend), Netupitant/palonosetron (Akynzeo), Rolapitant (Varubui)

NK receptors are found in nucleus of solitary tract and regulate visceral function

NK1receptor antagonists provide antiemetic activity by suppressing activity at NST

Aprepitant approved forPONV

Rolapitant half-life of 180 hours(CINV and possible PDNV)

38
Q

Aprepitant (Emend)

___ receptor antagonist

___ is a neuropeptide that interacts at ___ receptors

MOA: ____ antagonists inhibit ____ at ___ and ___ receptors

Non-___ effects

A

Aprepitant (Emend)

Neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist

Substance P is a neuropeptidet hat interacts at neurokinin-1 (NK-1) receptors

MOA: NK-1 antagonists inhibit Substance P at central and peripheral receptors

Non-sedative effects

39
Q

Aprepitant (Emend)

Long half-life: ____hours

Originally used for ___ patients, now available for PONV ____

Dose: _____ PO preoperatively

Recommended for ___ ____patients

A

Aprepitant (Emend)

Long half-life: 9-13 hours

Originally used for chemotherapy patients, now available for PONV prophylaxis

Dose: 40-80 mg PO preoperatively

Recommended for high-risk non-pregnant patients

40
Q

Aprepitant (Emend)

Metabolism: ____

Bioavailability:__%

Protein binding: ___%

Elimination half-life ____hours

Excretion:Feces(__%)/urine(___%)

____adjustment for renal failure patients

A

Aprepitant (Emend)

Metabolism: Liver (mostly CYP3A4)

Bioavailability:60-65%

Protein binding: >95%

Elimination half-life 9-13 hours

Excretion:Feces(86%)/urine(5%)

No dose adjustment for renal failure patients

41
Q

Aprepitant (Emend)

Adverse effects seen in >___% patients: ___, __, __, ___, N/D, ___, ___, diarrhea, ___, heartburn, abdominal pain, gastritis, p___, ___, etc.

Shown to be more effective than ___ for preventing PONV (esp. in first ____ hours)

If administered with ____, ___ dose by ___ to maintain ___ plasma concentrations

A

Aprepitant (Emend)

Adverse effects seen in >3% patients: fatigue, dizziness, hypoesthesia, disorientation, N/D, anorexia, constipation, diarrhea, dyspepsia, heartburn, abdominal pain, gastritis, perforating duodenal ulcer, hiccups, etc.

Shown to be more effective than ondansetron for preventing PONV (esp. in first 48 hours)

If administered with dexamethasone, reduce dose by half to maintain dexamethasone plasma concentrations

42
Q

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

MOA: ____-acting corticosteroid

____ glucocorticoid with ___ and ____ properties

MOA as antiemetic is ____ (possibly acts on ___ center, but not area ___)

Protein binding: ___%

Bioavailability: ____%

Metabolism: ___

Excretion: Urine (___%)

Elimination half-life: Biological ____hr. (plasma half- life _____hrs.)

A

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

MOA: Long-acting corticosteroid

Synthetic glucocorticoid with anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant properties

MOA as antiemetic is unknown (possibly acts on vomit center, but not area postrema)

Protein binding: 77%

Bioavailability: 80-90%

Metabolism: Liver

Excretion: Urine (65%)

Elimination half-life: Biological 36-54 hr. (plasma half- life 4-5 hrs.)

43
Q

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

Dose:____ mg IV for PONV at induction

Minimum ____ to be effective

Peds: ____ mg/kg IV

Onset: ___hours

Peak: ____minutes

Metabolism:____(no adjustment for hepatic/renal failure)

Half-life: ___hours

DOA:____

A

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

Dose: 4-10 mg IV for PONV at induction

Minimum 5mg to be effective

Peds: 0.2-0.5 mg/kg IV

Onset: 2 hours

Peak: 5-10 minutes

Metabolism:Hepatic(no adjustment for hepatic/renal failure)

Half-life: 1-5 hours

DOA:Short

44
Q

Adverse effects rare with _____dose

Timing: _____ administration shown to be more effective

Caution:_____ if patient is awake

Absolute contraindications: []

Relative contraindication in ____ patients

A

Adverse effects rare with one-time dose

Timing: earlier administration shown to be more effective

Caution:perineal pruritis if patient is awake

Absolute contraindications: uncontrolled infections, known hypersensitivity, cerebral malaria, systemic fungal infection, concurrent treatment with live virus vaccine

Relative contraindication in diabetic patients

45
Q

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

MOA: ___ antagonist – competes with ___ at ____ receptor sites in the ___, ___ and ____; blocks ____, depresses ___ function and ____ stimulation

Histamine found in ___, ____ and in _____

A

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

MOA: H1 antagonist – competes with histamine at H1 receptor sites in the GI tract, blood vessels and respiratory tract; blocks CTZ, depresses labyrinthine function and vestibular stimulation

Histamine found in CNS, gastric mucosa and in peripheral tissue

46
Q

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

Histamine ___ arterial BP, ____ HR and myocardial _____, ____ capillary _____, H1 constricts ______/H2 mild ____, increases ____

____dosage adjustment for hepatic/renal failure

Adverse reactions: ___, ____, ___, ____, ____

Commonly causes _____

A

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

Histamine reduces arterial BP, increases HR and myocardial contractility, increases capillary permeability, H1 constricts bronchiolar smooth muscle/H2 mild bronchodilation, increases gastric acid secretion

No dosage adjustment for hepatic/renal failure

Adverse reactions: drowsiness, urinary retention, dry mouth, blurred vision, extrapyramidal effects

Commonly causes sedation

47
Q

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

Dose: _____ IV/IM q___h (max dose ___mg q___h)

Onset:____

Duration: ____hours

Peak ___

Metabolism:____

Excretion: metabolites excreted in ___

A

Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)

Dose: 50-100 mg IV/IM q4h (max dose 100 mg q4h)

Onset:Immediate

Duration: 4-6 hours

Peak unknown

Metabolism:Liver

Excretion: metabolites excreted in urine

48
Q

Promethazine (Phenergan)

MOA: ____ (___ antagonist) and __/___- blocking effects responsible for antiemetic activity

Dose: __-__ mg q__-__h

____ route preferred (onset ___ minutes)

IV avoided when possible (onset ___ minutes)

DOA: ___-____ hours

A

Promethazine (Phenergan)

MOA: Antihistamine (H1 antagonist) and anticholinergic/muscarinic- blocking effects responsible for antiemetic activity

Dose: 12.5-25 mg q4-6h

IM route preferred (onset 20 minutes)

IV avoided when possible (onset 5 minutes)

DOA: 4-6 hours

49
Q

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Metabolism: ____ (____ and ___)

Excretion:__/___

Elimination half-life: __-___ hours

No dosage adjustment for renal impairment

Bioavailability: ____(decreases to ___% absolute bioavailability after ____ metabolism)

Protein binding: ___%

A

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Metabolism: Hepatic (glucuronidation and sulfoxidation)

Excretion:kidney/biliary

Elimination half-life: 10-19 hours

No dosage adjustment for renal impairment

Bioavailability: 88% (decreases to 25% absolute bioavailability after first-pass metabolism)

Protein binding: 93%

50
Q

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Common side effects: __, ___, ___, ___ (avoid in patients > ___years)

Risk of significant ___ (esp. with ___) – ___ utility

____-dose promethazine ____ mg IV recommended for prophylaxis/rescue due to ____ properties

Promethazine___mg more effective than ____ for treating PONV after failed ___ prophylaxis

A

Promethazine (Phenergan)

Common side effects: confusion, drowsiness, dry mouth, constipation (avoid in patients > 65 years)

Risk of significant sedation (esp. with opioids) – limited utility

Low-dose promethazine 5-10 mg IV recommended for prophylaxis/rescue due to antihistamine properties

Promethazine 6.25 mg more effective than ondansetron for treating PONV after failed ondansetron prophylaxis

51
Q

Anticholinergics

Scopolamine

MOA: ___ antagonist; inhibits action of __ at ____ sites in __ muscle, ___ and ___ glands

____ amine

Lipid solubility allows for ____ absorption

Blocks communication between nerves of ___ and ___ center in brain (may also directly block ____ center)

A

Anticholinergics

Scopolamine

MOA: Muscarinic antagonist; inhibits action of Ach at parasympathetic sites in smooth muscle, CNS and secretory glands

Tertiary amine

Lipid solubility allows for transdermal absorption

Blocks communication between nerves of vestibule and vomit center in brain (may also directly block vomiting center)

52
Q

Scopolamine

Anticholinergics: esters of an aromatic acid combined with organic base – ____ is essential for effective binding of anticholinergics to ____ receptors

_____ blocks binding of Ach at ____ receptors

Blockade of muscarinic receptors with lead to ____cardia (blocks ___ node), inhibits secretions in ____ tract, relaxes ____ smooth muscle, ____ GI motility, _____ gastric emptying time, ___asis and ___plegia, decreased ___ and ___ tone

A

Scopolamine

Anticholinergics: esters of an aromatic acid combined with organic base – ester linkage is essential for effective binding of anticholinergics to Ach receptors

Competitively blocks binding of Ach at muscarinic receptors

Blockade of muscarinic receptors with lead to tachycardia (blocks SA node), inhibits secretions in respiratory tract, relaxes bronchial smooth muscle, decreased GI motility, prolonged gastric emptying time, mydriasis and cycloplegia, decreased ureter and bladder tone

53
Q

Many CNS side effects

Scopolamine can cause ____ depression, ____ and ____

Remember _____ (cholinesterase ___) crosses _____ and reverses _____ actions on the brain

– Anticholinergic poisoning: ___, ____, ___, ___, ___, ____, ____

– Physostigmine: dose? IV (repeat after ____ minutes)

Avoid in patients with ______

A

Many CNS side effects

Scopolamine can cause cerebral depression, sedation and amnesia

Remember physostigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor) crosses BBB and reverses anticholinergic actions on the brain

– Anticholinergic poisoning: agitation, delirium, dry mouth, tachycardia, impaired vision, hallucinations, unconsciousness

– Physostigmine: 0.01-0.03 mg/kg IV (repeat after 15-30 minutes)

Avoid in patients with closed-angle glaucoma

54
Q

Scopolamine

Dose: (Pre-op) dose? topical patch behind ear the evening before surgery (keep on for ___hours postop)

Onset: ____hours (transdermal)

DOA: _____ hours

Metabolism: ____

Elimination half-life: ____hours

Excretion: _____

A

Scopolamine

Dose: (Pre-op) 1.5 mg topical patch behind ear the evening before surgery (keep on for 24 hours postop)

Onset: 2-4 hours (transdermal)

DOA: 72 hours

Metabolism: Liver

Elimination half-life: 4.5 hours

Excretion: kidneys

55
Q

Scopolamine

Avoid in patients over _____years of age due to ___ properties

Adverse Effects: ____, ____, ___ skin, ____, ___, ____, ___ vision, ___ pupils, ___ sensitivity

Toxic ____ reported in __/__ patients

A

Scopolamine

Avoid in patients over 65 years of age due to anticholinergic properties

Adverse Effects: dry mouth, increased thirst, dry skin, constipation, drowsiness, dizziness, blurred vision, dilated pupils, light sensitivity

Toxic psychosis reported in pediatric/elderly patients

56
Q

Ephedrine

Class: ____-acting ____ agent

Dose: dose? IV recommended for N/V associated with ____ hypotension in PACU

_____ IM at the end of surgery shown to have equivalency to ____

______ IM shown to minimize N/V with less sedation

A

Ephedrine

Class: Indirect-acting sympathomimetic agent

Dose: 10-25 mg IV recommended for N/V associated with postural hypotension in PACU

0.5 mg/kg IM at the end of surgery shown to have equivalency to droperidol

40 mcg/kg IM shown to minimize N/V with less sedation

57
Q

Midazolam

Pediatric dose: ____mcg/kg IV

Adult dose: ____ IV

Effective in reducing PONV when given as ___, ___ or as ___ therapy

Possible MOA related to ____receptor antagonism, inhibition of ___ release and ____ effects

___ + ____ in pediatric patients undergoing ____ surgery = ____ incidence of PONV

A

Midazolam

Pediatric dose: 50-75 mcg/kg IV

Adult dose: 2 mg IV

Effective in reducing PONV when given as premedication, intraoperatively or as rescue therapy

Possible MOA related to GABA receptor antagonism, inhibition of dopamine release and anxiolytic effects

Midazolam + dexamethasone in pediatric patients undergoing strabismus surgery = ZERO incidence of PONV

58
Q

Pain management

Uncontrolled postoperative pain causes triggering of stress response=>____ release, ____ oxygen consumption, increased ___ workload and ___cardia

Neurohumoral response (increased production of ___ hormone, ___, ___, __, FSH, GH, LH, plasma renin activity and prolactin)

Increased ___

A

Pain management

Uncontrolled postoperative pain causes triggering of stress response=>catecholamine release, increased oxygen consumption, increased cardiac workload and tachycardia

Neurohumoral response (increased production of adrenocortical hormone, aldosterone, ADH, cortisol, FSH, GH, LH, plasma renin activity and prolactin)

Increased N/V

59
Q

Pain Management

Psychological ____, ____ delays, ____ hospital admission

Use pain management techniques: wound ___, nerve ___, ___ __ catheters, __ and ____ analgesics

**Goal:decrease postop ____, reduced ____ and decreased___

A

Pain Management

Psychological distress, discharge delays, unanticipated hospital admission

Use pain management techniques: wound infiltration, nerve blocks, local anesthesia catheters, opioid and non-opioid analgesics

**Goal:decrease postop analgesic requirements, reduced pain scores and decreased PONV

60
Q

Nonpharmacological Management

_____ acupuncture point stimulation (___ release vs. ___ changes?)

Acupuncture, ___ and ___

Isopropyl ____ inhalation

Reduction of baseline risk factors for PONV:

– Avoid ____ with ___ Agent

– Minimize ____ use

– Preferential use of ____ infusion

– Avoid ____

– Adequate ____

A

Nonpharmacological Management

P6 acupuncture point stimulation (endorphin release vs. serotonin changes?)

Acupuncture, acupressure and TENS

Isopropyl alcohol inhalation

Reduction of baseline risk factors for PONV:

– Avoid General Anesthesia with Inhalational Volatile Agent

– Minimize opioid use

– Preferential use of Propofol infusion

– Avoid nitrous oxide

– Adequate hydration

61
Q

Dopamine receptor antagonists

___ receptors in ___ tract sends signal to CNS to induce nausea and vomiting in vomiting center

_____ side effects

Contraindicated in patients with _____ disease

A

Dopamine receptor antagonists

D2 receptors in GI tract sends signal to CNS to induce nausea and vomiting in vomiting center

Extrapyramidal side effects

Contraindicated in patients with Parkinson’s disease