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Pharmacology > Antibiotics > Flashcards

Antibiotics Flashcards

0
Q

What antibiotics are bacteriostatic?

A 
We're ECSTaTiC about bacteriostatics.
Erythromycin
Clindamycin
Sulfamethoxazole
Trimethoprim
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
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1
Q

What antibiotics are bactericidal?

A 
Very Finely Proficient At Cell Murder
Vancomycin
Fluoroquinolones
Penicillins
Aminoglycosides
Cephalosporins
Metronidazole
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2
Q

Beta-lactam antibiotics inhibits what reaction?

A

Transpeptidation Reaction

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3
Q

What drugs are anti-pseudomonal?

A

TCP
Ticarcillin
Carbenicillin
Piperacillin

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4
Q

What are the 1st gen cephalosporins?

A 
FADer, help me FAZ my PHarmacology boards!
CeFADroxil
CeFAZolin
CePHalotin
CePHapirin
CePHadrin
CePHalexin
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5
Q

What microbes are covered by 1st Gen Cephalosporins?

A

PEK 1st
Proteus mirabilis
E. Coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

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6
Q

What microbes are covered by 2nd Gen Cephalosporins?

A 
HEN PEK
H. Influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria spp
Proteus mirabilis
E. Coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
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7
Q

What drugs are classified under 2nd gen cephalosporins?

A 
In a FAMily gathering, you see your FOXY cousin wearing FUR coat and drinking TEA.
CeFAMandole
CeFOXitin
CeFURoxime
CefoTEtan
FAC! Lora the PROfessional Azhole is still on the FONe!
CeFAClor
LORAcarbef
CefPROzil
CefmetAZOLE
CeFONizid
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8
Q

Which Cephalosporin crosses the BBB?

A

CeFURoxime

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9
Q

What antibiotic drugs inhibit protein synthesis?

A 
buy AT 30, CELLS at 50
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin (Macrolides)
Lincosamides (Clindamycin)
Linezolid
Streptogramins
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10
Q

Give an example of a streptogramin

A

Quinupristin-Dalfopristin

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11
Q

What is streptogramin used for?

A

Drug resistant gram+ cocci

MRSA, VRSA, VRE

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12
Q

Which antibiotics have post antibiotic effect?

A

Aminoglycosides

Fluoroquinolones

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13
Q

Which aminoglycoside has the narrowest therapeutic window?

A

Amikacin

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14
Q

Which antibiotic require Oxygen, thus will not work against anaerobic bacteria?

A

Aminoglycosides require O2 for transport

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15
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Tetracyclines?

A

Blocks attachment of T-RNA to acceptor site

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16
Q

All macrolides inhibit CYP450 except?

A

Azithromycin

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17
Q

Differentiate Clindamycin vs Metronidazole in terms of coverage in the body

A

Clindamycin for anaerobic infections above the diaphragm

Metronidazole for below the diaphragm

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18
Q

Give examples of Aminoglycosides and their side effects

A 
Mean GNATS caNNOT kill anaerobes
Gentamycin
Neomycin
Amikacin
Tobramycin
Streptomycin
Side effects:
Neuromuscular blockade
Nephrotoxic
Ototozic
Teratogen
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19
Q

What is the dreaded side effect of Neomycin?

A

Hepatic Encephalopathy

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20
Q

Give 2 examples of antifolate antibiotics

A

Sulfonamides

Trimethoprim

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21
Q

What 2 drugs are considered most vestibulotoxic and nephrotoxic?

A

Gentamycin

Tobramycin

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22
Q

What antibiotic is considered most ototoxic?

A

Kanamycin and Amikacin

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23
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by Sulfonamides?

A

Dihydropteroate synthase

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24
Q

What enzyme is inhibited by Trimethoprim?

A

Dihydrofolate reductase

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25
Q

What abtibiotic cause kernicterus

A

Co-Trimoxazole and

Silver Sulfadiazine

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26
Q

What is the drug of choice for PCP pneumonia?

A

Co-Trimoxazole

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27
Q

What is another name for Topoisomerase II?

A

DNA gyrase

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28
Q

What is the histologic sign of Kernicterus?

A

Bilirubin deposits in subcortical nuclei and basal ganglia

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29
Q

What is the clinical presentation of kernicterus?

A

Hypo/hypertonia
Lethargy
High-pitched cry
Opisthotonos

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30
Q

What is the MOA of fluroquinolones against Gram - organisms?

A

Blocks Topoisomerase II and blocks relaxation of supercoiled DNA

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31
Q

Wha is the MOA of fluoroquinolones against gram + organisms?

A

Blocks topoisomerase IV and interferes with the separation of replicated chromosomal DNA during cell division

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32
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of resistance against fluroquinolones?

A

Production of Efflux pumps
Changes in porin structure
Changed in sensitivity of the target enzymes via point mutations in the antibiotic binding regions

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33
Q

What is the dreaded side effect of Ciprofloxacin?

A

Tendonitis and Tendon Rupture

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34
Q

What drug enhances the toxicity of Ciprofloxacin?

A

Methylxanthines (Theophylline)

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35
Q

What fluroquinolone cause Diabetes?

A

Gatifloxacin

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36
Q

What fluoroquinolone cause hepatotoxicity?

A

Trovafloxacin

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37
Q

What 2 important side effects of Metronidazole?

A

Metallic Taste and Disulfiram reaction

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38
Q

Nitrofurantoin can be used for UTI except for these 2 microbes?

A

Proteus and Pseudomonas

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39
Q

Most important drug used in TB

A

Isoniazid

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40
Q

MOA of Isoniazid

A

Inhibits Mycolic Acid Synthesis

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41
Q

What should you administer to pxs taking Isoniazid to prevent neurotoxicity?

A

Pyridoxine (Vit B6)

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42
Q

What is the MOA of Rifampicin?

A

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

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43
Q

Describe Rifampicin

A

RNA polymerase inhibitor
Red-Orange Body fluids
Rapid development of resistance
Revs up CYP450 (inducer)

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44
Q

What is the known side effect of Ethambutol?

A

Causes Red-Green Color Blindness

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45
Q

What is the MOA of Ethambutol?

A

Inhibits Arabinosyl Transferases involved in the synthesis of arabinogalactan in mycobacterial cell wall

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46
Q

Most hepatotoxic Anti-TB Drug

A

Pyrazinamide

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47
Q

Also known as a sterilizing agent

A

Pyrazinamide

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48
Q

Which anti-TB drugs are hepatotoxic?

A

Isoniazid < Rifampicin < Pyrazinamide

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49
Q

What 2 drugs cause Methemoglobinemia?

A

Dapsone

Prilocaine

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50
Q

Drug used for sulfone resistant Leprosy

A

Clofazimine

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51
Q

Prophylactic drugs for Atypical Mycobacteria

A

Clarithromycin or Azithromycin with or without Rifabutin in patients with CD4 counts less than 50/L

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52
Q

Treatment for Atypical Mycobacteria

A

Azithromycin or Clarithromycin with Ethambutol or Rifabutin

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53
Q

Drug used for systemic fungal infections

A

Amphotericin B

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54
Q

Common side effects of Amphotericin B?

A

Infusion Reactions, Nephrotoxicity and RTA with Mg and K wasting

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55
Q

A pyrimidine metabolite used for Chromoblastomycosis (Madura Foot)?

A

Flucytosine

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56
Q

An azole used for Chromoblastomycosis (Madura Foot)?

A

Itraconazole

57
Q

An azole used for chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis or dermatophytosis

A

Ketoconazole

58
Q

Used as salvage therapy for Invasive Aspergillosis

A

Caspofungin

59
Q

What is the MOA of Caspofungin?

A

Inhibits B-Glucan synthase decreasing fungal cell wall synthesis

60
Q

Drug of choice for cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Fluconazole

61
Q

What is the MOA of Griseofulvin?

A

Interferes with microtubule function

Inhibits synthesis and polymerization of nucleic acids

62
Q

What is the MOA of Terbinafine?

A

Interfere with ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting fungal SQUALENE OXIDASE

63
Q

What is Terbinafine used for?

A

Onychomychosis and Dermatophytosis

64
Q

What is the MOA of Nystatin?

A

Binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, forming artificial pores

65
Q

How is Nystatin used?

A 
SWISH and SWALLOW
For Candidiasis (Oral, Esophageal, Vaginal)
66
Q

Drug used for Pityriasis versicolor

A

Clotrimazole (topical)

67
Q

Drug used against HSV-1 HSV-2 and VZV with activity

A

Acyclovir

68
Q

What is the MOA of Acyclovir?

A

Activated by viral Thymidine kinase to forms that inhibit viral DNA polymerase

69
Q

Drug of choice for CMV Retinitis?

A

Cifodovir

70
Q

Drug used for HSV infections in patients with AIDS

A

Foscarnet

71
Q

What is the MOA of Foscarnet?

A

Inhibits viral RNA polymerase, DNA polymerase and HIV reverse transcriptase by binding to PYROPHOSPHATE binding sites

72
Q

What is the usual cocktail in HAART?

A

2 NRTI + 1 Protease inhibitor

73
Q

Give examples of NRTIs

A

Zidovudine, Abacavir, Didabosine, Stavudinir and Zalcitabine

74
Q

What is the side effect of Zidovudine?

A

Lactic acidosis with hepatic steatosis

Bone marrow suppression

75
Q

What is the side effect Abacavir?

A

Hypersensitivity

76
Q

What is the side effect Didanosine?

A

Pancreatitis

77
Q

What is the side effect Stavudinr and Zalcitabine?

A

Peripheral Neuropathy

78
Q

Give examples of NNRTIs

A

Delavirdine, Nevirapine, Efavirenz, and Etravirine

79
Q

What is the side effect of Delavirdine and Nevirapine?

A

Rash

Increased ALT/AST

80
Q

What is the side effect of Efavirenz?

A

Teratogenicity

81
Q

What is the side effect of Etravirine?

A

Increased cholesterol and TGs

82
Q

Give examples of Antiviral drugs that are protease inhibitors

A

Indinavir, Saquinacir, Atazanavir, and Amprenavir

83
Q

What is the side effect of Indinavir?

A

Hyperbilirubinemia and Nephrolithiasis

84
Q

What is the side effect of Saquinavir?

A

GI distress and diarrhea

85
Q

What is the side effect of Atazanivir?

A

Peripheral Neuropathy

86
Q

What is the side effect Amprenavir?

A

Rash

87
Q

What is the MOA of Enfuvirtide?

A

Binds to gp41 subunit of viral envelope glycoprotein, preventing fusion of viral and cellular membranes

88
Q

What is the MOA of Maraviroc?

A

Blocks viral attachment via transmembrane chemokine receptor CCR5

89
Q

Give examples of drugs for Influenza virus

A

Amantadine/Rimantidine and Oseltamivir/Zanamivir

90
Q

What is the MOA of Amantidine?

A

Inhibits early step replication and prevent uncoating by binding to M2 Protein Channels

91
Q

What is the MOA of Oseltamivir?

A

Inhibitis Neuraminidase which decrease release of progeny virus

92
Q

What is the known side effect of Amantadine?

A

Livedo reticularis

93
Q

What other drugs cause Livedo Reticularis?

A 
A Man reads fHM and GQ
Amantidine
Hydroxyurea
Minocycline
Gemcitabine
Quinidine
94
Q

What is the MOA OF interferon Alpha?

A

Degrades viral RNA via activation of host cell RNAse (ribonuclease)

95
Q

Drug used for HBV HCV, Kaposi Sarcoma and Genital Warts

A

Interferon Alpha

96
Q

What is the MOA of Lamivudine?

A

Inhibits HBV DNA polymerase

97
Q

What is the MOA of Ribavirin?

A

Inhibits guanosine triphosphate formation
Prevents capping of viral mRNA
Blocks RNA-dependent DNA polymerase

98
Q

Give 3 drugs for HBV and HCV

A

Interferon-alpha
Lamivudine
Ribavirin

99
Q

What is the drug of choice for tissue schizonts?

A

Primaquine

100
Q

1st line drug for non-falciparum malaria?

A

Chloroquine

101
Q

What is the MOA of Chloroquine?

A

Prevents polymerization of heme into Hemozoin

102
Q

Give examples of blood schizontocides

A 
Chloroquine
Quinine
Mefloquine
Halofantrine
Artemsinin
Doxycycline
Sulfadoxine
103
Q

Drug of choice for malaria in pregnant patients

A

Quinine

104
Q

What drugs are used to combine with Quinine to prevent toxicities?

A

Doxycycline or Clindamycin

105
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for chloroquine-resistant areas

A

Mefloquine

106
Q

What is the known side effect of Quinine?

A

Cinchonism

107
Q

What is Cinchonism?

A

Headache
Tinnitus
Vertigo

108
Q

What 2 drugs should not be taken with milk?

A

Doxycycline

Tetracycline

109
Q

Anti-malarial used for P. Ovale and P. vivax?

A

Primaquine

110
Q

Treatment and prophylaxis for Chloroquine-resistant P. Falciparum?

A

Atovaquone-Proguanil (Malarone)

111
Q

A blood schizontocide and sporonticide

A

Sulfadocine - Pyrimethamine (Sporonticide)

112
Q

Chemoprophylaxis for multi-drug resistant malaria

A

Doxycycline

113
Q

Drug of choice for severe falciparum malaria

A

Quinidine

114
Q

Drug of choice for uncomplicated falciparum malaria in the Philippines

A

Co-Artem (Lumafentrine + Artemether)

115
Q

What is the MOA of Artemether?

A

Forms toxic radicals in malarial food vacuole

116
Q

What is the drug of choice for Asymptomatic Intestinal Amoebiasis?

A

Diloxanide Furoate

117
Q

What is the drug of choice for severe intestinal and extraintestinal amoebiasis?

A

Metronidazole

118
Q

What is the backup drug for severe intestinal and extraintestinal amoebiasis?

A

Emetine

119
Q

Give 3 examples of Luminal Agents

A

Diloxanide furoate
Iodoquinol
Paromomycin

120
Q

2nd line drug for asymptomatic amoebiasis?

A

Paromomycin

121
Q

Drug of choice for PCP pneumonia

A

Co-Trimoxazole

Pentamidine (2nd)

122
Q

Drug of choice for Toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine-Sulfadiazine

123
Q

Drug of choice for Chagas Disease

A

Nifurtimox

124
Q

Drug of choice for Cryptosporidiosis

A

Nitazoxanide

125
Q

Drug of choice for West African Trypanosomiasis

A

Early: Pentamidine
CNS: Eflornithine

126
Q

Drug of choice for East African Trypanosomiasis (early & CNS)?

A

Early: Suramin
CNS: Melarsoprol

127
Q

Drug of choice for Leishmaniasis except in India

A

Sodium Stibogluconate

128
Q

All cestodes are treated with ____ except ____?

A

Praziquantel

Echinococcus granulosus

129
Q

What is the drug of choice for Echinococcus granulosus?

A

Albendazole

130
Q

All trematodes are treated with ?

A

Praziquantel

131
Q

What parasites can eradicate Ascaris, Necator, Ancylostoma and Capillaria?

A

Albendazole

132
Q

Tx of Trichuris

A

Mebendazole

133
Q

Tx for pinworm?

A

Pyrantel Pamoate

134
Q

Tx for Strongyloides

A

Ivermectin

135
Q

Tx for Wuchereria and Brugia (Filariasis)?

A

Diethylcarbamazine (DEC)

136
Q

Tx for Trichinella

A

Thiabendazole

137
Q

Which organs does Wichereria and Brugia affect?

A

Watch my scrotum Become Engorged
Wuchereria - Scrotum
Brugia - Elephantiasis

138
Q

Drug of choice for Hydatid Disease

A

Albendazole

139
Q

What procedure is used for Hydatid Disease?

A

PAIR procedure

140
Q

Drug of choice for whipworm?

A

Mebendazole (Trichuris)

141
Q

Alternative drug for cestode infections?

A

Niclosamide

Pharmacology (6 decks)

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