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Ocular Pharmacology > Antibiotic: Protein Syn./Folic Acid Syn. Inhibitors > Flashcards

Antibiotic: Protein Syn./Folic Acid Syn. Inhibitors Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 4 type of aminoglycosides

A

Neomycin
Gentamicin
Tobramycin
Amikacin

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2
Q

What’s the MOA of aminoglycosides?

A
  1. Binds to 30s subunit prior to ribosome formation
  2. Causes 30S subunit to misread the code
  3. Polysomes deplete to monosomes
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3
Q

What is the most toxic aminoglycoside?

A

Neomycin

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4
Q

What is the combination steroid with neomycin?

A

Maxitrol = Polymyxin B + Neomycin + Dexamethasone

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5
Q

What is the most important ADR of Neomycin?

A

Allergic Dermatitis

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6
Q

Most bacteria is susceptible to what aminoglycoside?

A

Gentamicin

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7
Q

T or F: Tobramycin is better than Gentamicin for pseudomonas aeruginosa. Tobramycin is less toxic than gentamicin

A

True

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8
Q

Tobrex = ?

A

Tobramycin

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9
Q

Tobradex/ Tobradex ST = ?

A

Tobramycin + Dexamethasone

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10
Q

What is the main ADR of tobramycin?

A

Reversible Tearing

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11
Q

Amikacin is the DOC for what?

A

Mycobacteria Ulcers

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12
Q

Amikacin is active against gram (-) bacilli that are resistant to other ____.

A

Aminoglycosides

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13
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Tetracyclines?

A

Binds to 30S subunit inhibiting it from binding to the 50S subunit

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14
Q

Anticollagenolytic Activity of tetracyclines are responsible for effectiveness in treating ________ diseases.

A

non-infectious

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15
Q

What are the 3 types of Tetracyclines?

A
  1. Tetracycline
  2. Doxycycline
  3. Minocycline
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16
Q

What is the oral use for tetracycline?

A

Acne Rosacea - bleph, keratitis, MGD, chalazia

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17
Q

T or F: You cannot take tetracycline with dairy or meals.

A

True

18
Q

Low doses of Doxycycline can be used for ___.

A

MGD

19
Q

What are the 2 clinical uses for Minocycline?

A

Bad acne, periocular infections

20
Q

Minocycline can cause what type of deposits on the palpebral conj.?

A

Brown or Black palpebral conjunctival deposits

21
Q

What are the side effects of Minocycline?

A
  1. Lightheadedness
  2. Dizziness
  3. Vertigo
  4. Tinnitus
22
Q

What is the MOA of Macrolides?

A

Binds to 50S subunit and inhibits polypeptide chain elongation

23
Q

What are the 3 types of macrolides?

A

Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Erythromycin

24
Q

What are the two types of Azithromycin?

A
  1. Zithromax - oral

2. Azasite - topical

25
Q

What are the clinical uses for Zithromax?

A
  1. Inclusion (Chlamydial) Conjunctivitis

2. MGD

26
Q

What are the clinical uses for Azasite?

A
  1. Bacterial Conjunctivitis

2. Meibomianitis

27
Q

What is the pregnancy category for Azasite? At what age can it be used?

A

a. Category B

b. 1 yo or older

28
Q

Erythromycin binds to 50S subunit and prevents synthesis of _____ into _____.

A

amino acids into proteins

29
Q

Erythromycin is only available as a ___

A

ointment

30
Q

What is the DOC for Legionnaire’s Disease and Mycoplasma Pneumonia?

A

Erythromycin

31
Q

What is the MOA of Chloramphenicol?

A

Binds to 50S subunit and blocks peptidyltransferase

32
Q

Chloramphenicol crosses what barrier readily?

A

Blood Aqueous Barrier

33
Q

How long should a pt’s tx be using chloramphenicol?

A

7-14 days

34
Q

What is the clinical use of clindamycin?

A

Tx of Ocular toxoplasmosis

35
Q

What are the ADRs of clindamycin?

A
  1. C. Difficle = overgrowth of pseudomembranous colitis

2. Metallic taste that lasts after d/c of drug

36
Q

Reversal of Inhibition for Sodium Sulfacetamide means what?

A
  1. Will not work w/ anesthetic

2. Blood tissue breakdown & pus

37
Q

Don’t use ______ in infections with alot of purulent discharge.

A

sulfacetamide

38
Q

Pyrimethamine/Trimethoprim are synergistic with _____.

A

Sulfonamides

39
Q

Oral use of pyrimethamine is used for what disease?

A

Ocular Toxoplasmosis

40
Q

Topical use of trimethoprim + polymyxin B = ?

A
  • Polytrim Soln

- Used for ocular surface infections

41
Q

What are the ADRs of Pyrimethamine/Trimethoprim?

A

Oral Pyri = WBCs/Platelet Depression, Megaloblastic anemia

Ocular Pharmacology (4 decks)

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