Antiarrhythmic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Strategy when thinking of tachycardias?

A

Divide into:

ventricular
supraventricular tachycardias

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2
Q

What would be a target of ventricular tachycardias?

A

Na+ channels to block ventricular depolarization

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3
Q

Na+ channel blockers have what effects on ECG?

A

prolong the QRS interval

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4
Q

Class I drugs have what major action?

A

block Na+ channels

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4
Q

K+ channel blockers have what effect on ECG?

A

They prolong QT intervals

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5
Q

Class 1 drugs have what major MOA?

A

They block Na+ channels

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6
Q

What are the different classes of Class I antiarrythmics based on? Explain

A

their ability to dissociate from Na+ channels?

1a intermediate
1b least effect on phase 0
1c greatest phase 0 depression; therefore prolongs QRS the most

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7
Q

What causes phase 1 of fast response fibers?

A

Na+ channels inactivated

Some His Purkinje cells transient outward K+ currents with inward Cl- currents contribute to notch and overshoot

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8
Q

What are the causes of phase 2 in fast response fibers?

A

plateau phase in which a slow influx of Ca2+ (Ica-L) is balanced by late appearing outward K+ current (the delayed rectifier current Ik)

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9
Q

Are there any major antiarrythmic effects of drugs on phase 1 or 2 of fast response fibers?

A

no

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9
Q

What ion channels are responsible for phase 3 in fast response fibers?

A

repolarization phase in which the delayed rectifier K+ current rapidly increases as the Ca2+ current dies out because of time-dependent channel inactivation

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10
Q

Which class of anti-arrhythmic drugs slows the re-polarization phase?

A

class III

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11
Q

What are the phase 4 resting potential of the fast muscle fibers maintained by?

A

activity of the Na+/K+ ATPase

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12
Q

Capacity of a fast muscle fiber to depolarize is associated with what?

A

number of Na+ channels in ready state

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13
Q

The more negative the RMP in fast muscle fibers the faster or slower the response?

A

faster the response

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14
Q

What are the 3 major determinant of conduction velocity?

A
  1. Rate of phase 0 depolarization - as Vmax decreases, conduction velocity decreases and vice versa.
  2. Threshold potential- the less negative, the slower the conduction velocity
  3. The resting potential - the more negative the RP, the faster the conduction
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15
Q

What types of drugs are good for SVTs?

A

Those that target the slow response fibers

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16
Q

What is spontaneous depolarization phase 4 is caused by what? (slow responnse fibers)

A

not completely understood

composite of inward Na+ (If) and Ca2+ (Ica-t) currents and outward K+ currents (Ik)

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17
Q

Depolarization of slow fibers depends on what channels?

A

on activation of Ca2+ channels (Ica-L and Ica-t)

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18
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmics can slow or block phase 0 in slow response fibers?

A

class IV

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19
Q

During repolarization of slow response fibers Ca2+ currents are opposed and overcome by what?

A

delayed rectifier K+ current

phase 3

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20
Q

Which class of anti-arrythmics can slow down phases 4 in pacemaker fibers?

A

Class II and IV

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21
Q

What are class II antiarrhythmics?

A

B blockers

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22
Q

What are class IV anti-arrythmics?

A

CCBs

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23
What is refractoriness?
the inability to respond to stimulus
24
What is ERP?
ERP effective refractory period when no stimulus can elicit a response
25
How long does ERP last?
lasts into late stage 3 of AP because Na+ channels are effectively inactivated and not into the ready state
26
How do K+ channel blocker affect ERP?
they prolong ERP
27
What are RRPs? What is the purpose?
relative refractory period when a strong stimulus can elicit a response but the timing will be out of sync with rest of heart and arrhythmias may occur
28
Ratio of ERP to APD is a measure of what?
refractoriness
29
What may decreases in ERP cause?
formation and propagation of premature impulses
30
At what V does M gate typically close?
-50 mV
31
At approx. what voltage does h gate open?
-85mV
32
Do K+ blockers prolong APD?
yes
33
What are the 3 conformations of sodium channels?
resting or ready state, M gate closed h open open active state M gate open h open inactive or refractory state M gate open h closed
34
Why is rate of recovery slower in ischemic tissue?
because cells partly depolarized at rest
35
What is the MOA of Class 1A anti-arrythmics?
Na+ channel blocker (tend to target open state more than inactivated state sodium channels) Block K+ channels
36
What are the effects of APD and ERP in Class 1A drugs?
increases APD and ERP
37
What are the prototype Class 1A drugs?
Quinidine Procainamide Dysopyramide
38
What are the prototype Class 1B drugs?
lidocaine
39
What are the prototype Class 1C drugs?
Flecainide Propafenone
40
What is the mnemonic to remember Class 1A, 1B, 1C drugs?
Double Quarter Pounder with Lettuce and Fries Please dysopyridine quinidine procainamide lidocaine flecainide propafenone
41
What are some properties of the drug quinidine that could give rise to specific S/E of the drug?
causes muscarinic receptor block: increases HR and AV conduction causes Alpha block: causes vasodilation and reflex tachycardia
42
Because Quinidine is a weak base what are some drugs you can take that would increase it's absorption in the body?
increased absorption with antacids
43
What are the A/E of quinidine?
* cinchonism (GI, tinnitus, ocular dysfunction, CNS excitation) * hypotension * prolongation of QRS and QT interval associated with syncope (torsade)
44
What drugs can cause torsade from classes of anti-arrythmics?
K+ channel blockers
45
Compared to quinidine, does procainamide have more or less autonomic side effects?
has fewer
46
Why is it important to remember metabolization of procainamide?
because it can cause SLE in slow acetylators
47
Special MOA of procainamide to remember.
The parent drug procainamide blocks the Na+ channels while the metabolite NAPA N acetyl procainamide blocks K+ channels
48
A/E of Procainamide?
drug induced SLE hematotoxicity (thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis) CV effects (torsade)
49
Class 1B anti-arrythmics MOA.
target inactivated Na+ channels
50
How do Class 1B anti-arrythmics affect APD?
decrease APD due to block of sodium window currents
51
Main benefit of Class 1B drugs?
they increase diastole and extend time for recovery basically takes longer to reach the next AP prolonging phase 4 RMP
52
Indications for lidocaine?
acute treatment not prophylactic because has short half-life post MI, open-heart surgery, digoxin toxicity-ventricular arrhythmias only
53
Indications for Mexiletine?
can take it orally and has higher bioavailability than lidocaine so can use for more chronic management
54
Why must lidocaine be given via IV?
because of first pass metabolism giving it short half life.
55
Describe effect of Class 1C drugs on APD?
no effect on APD
56
Do Class 1C drugs affect the ANS?
no
57
What is the MOA of Class 1C drugs?
block fast Na+ channels (Ina) especially in His Purkinje
58
What is the major drug to remember for Class 1C?
Flecainide
59
Why is there limited use of Flecainide?
limited utility proarrythmogenic effects, leading to inc. sudden death post- MI and when used prophylactically in VT
60
Indications for Flecainide?
used for paroxysmal A fib rhythm control, paroxysmal SVTs, sustained ventricular tachycardia
61
MOA of Class II anti-arrythmics.
Beta blockers
62
Name the nonselective and cardioselective B-blocking agents typically used as antiarrythmics.
nonselective: propranolol cardioselective: acebutolol and esmolol
63
Why can't esmolol be used prophylactically?
very short half life used in acute cases only
64
What is the ROA for esmolol?
IV only
65
Indications for Class II anti-arrythmics?
prophylaxis post-MI and SVTs Esmolol for acute SVTs
66
Class III drugs MOA?
K+ channel blockers
67
What is the effect of the Class III drugs on APD and ERP?
inc. APD and ERP esp Purkinje ventricular fibers
68
What are the 2 most effective anti-arrythmics that are also in Class III anti-arrhythmic class?
amiodarone and dronedarone
69
Amiodarone and dronedarone mimic what other anti-arrhythmic classes of drug?
All of them
70
What is the 1/2 life of amiodarone?
about 80 days
71
1/2 life of Dronedarone?
about 24 hours
72
Describe Vd in both Dronedarone and amiodarone?
High Vd
73
S/E of Dronedarone and amiodarone?
* interstitial pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis * phototoxicity (so look for rash on face necks sun exposed areas) * corneal deposits * hepatic necrosis *iodine related S/Es (only amiodarone) blue skin pigmentation and thyroid dysfunction (could be hypo or hyper)
74
What tests should be run when giving a person amidoarone or dronedarone?
PFTs LFTs eye exams TFT in case of amiodarone because dronedarone doesn't contain iodine
75
Do the drugs amiodarone and dronedarone cause torsade?
could but not as likely as many of other K+ blocking agents
76
What is the rule for drugs likely to cause torsade?
all class III and drugs more selective for K+ more highly likely
77
What drugs are at highest risk for causing torsade in the class III category?
Ibutilide and Dofetilide
78
What are some drugs to avoid when someone has long QT syndrome?
* K+ blocking drugs (Class 1A and III) * antipsychotics (thioridazine) * TCAs
79
What are some treatments for torsades that you need to remember?
* correct hypokalemia * use Mg2+ * correct hypomagnesemia * discontinue drugs that prolong QT interval
80
What effect do Class IV anti-arrythmics have on ECG?
prolong PR interval
81
What are the CCBs we used for anti-arrhythmic drugs?
verapamil diltiazem
82
Why can't we use dyhydropyridines in the treatment of anti-arrythmics?
they are more selective for vasodilation of vascular smooth muscles and therefore could cause reflex tachy
83
What are the indications of CCBs?
SVTs
84
S/E for CCBs?
verapamil (constipation) dizziness (vasodilator to some extent) flushing AV block hypotension
85
What are some drug interactions to remember when taking CCBs?
* Digoxin and B blockers can cause additive AV block * verapamil can displace digoxin > toxicity
86
How is adenosine used as anti-arrhythmic? (Meaning receptor type and target activity)
its found in nodes of heart and is Gi coupled therefore dec. cAMP > dec. SA and AV node activity
87
Use of adenosine?
DOC for paroxysmal SVT and AV nodal arrythmias
88
Describe t1/2 of adenosine?
short
89
S/E adenosine?
flushing, sedation, dyspnea
90
What is adenosine antagonized by? Why?
methylxanthines (theophylline and caffeine) because they inc. cAMP
91
Can Digoxin be an antiarrythmic?
yes
92
What are the goals in management of atrial fibrillation?
1. ventricular rate control with beta blockers, CCBs, or digoxin 2. anticoagulation