Anti-Cancer Drugs - Unit 2 Flashcards

1
Q

two competing theories of tumor genesis are:

A
  1. Clonal Evolution 2. Cancer Stem cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what do cyclin-CDK complexes do to their targets?

A

phosphorylate them (kinase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cdk2-cyclin A functions in (G1/ S/ G2+M) phase

A

S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Cdk1-cyclin B functions in (G1/ S/ G2+M) phase

A

G2+M

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which cyclin-Cdk complexes can phosphorylate Rb? (3)

A

cyc E cdk 2 cyc D cdk 4cyc D cdk 6(E2, D4, D6)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

hyperphosphorylation of Rb causes the release of _____

A

E2F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

E2F activates the transcription of genes whose products control progression from ___ to ___ phase

A

G1 to S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rb releases E2F when it becomes __________ by cyclin-Cdk complexes: E2, D4, D6

A

hyperphosphoryalted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

These are cystine proteases that are activated in response to apoptotic insults such as cancer drugs: ______

A

Capsases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

This is released into the cytosol from the mitochondria during apoptosis: _________

A

Cytochrome C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Anticancer drug resistance due to dysregulation of the apoptosis promoting genes due to mutations is known as (intrinsic/acquired) resistance

A

intrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anticancer Drug resistance due to dysregulation of one or both apoptotic pathways during chemotherapy is (intrinsic/acquired) resistance

A

acquired resistance (the key is during chemo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the ABVD drugs are

A

Doxorubicin (adriamycin) bleomycin vinblastine dacarbazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

the CHOP drugs are

A

Cyclophosphamide hydroxydoxorubacin Vincristine (Oncovine) Prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the MOPP drugs are

A

Mechlorethamine Vincristine (oncovine) Procarbazine Prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the CMF drugs are

A

Cyclophosphamine Methotrexate 5-fluorouracil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the FEC drugs are

A

5-fluorouracil Epirubicin Cyclophosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This class of anti-cancer drugs transfers alkyl groups to DNA

A

alkylating agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This alkylating agent is part of the MOPP treatment and is good for hodgkin’s lymphoma, ALL, choroicarcinoma, Burkitt and T-cell lymphoma (methotrexate/mechlorethamine)

A

mechclorethamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

These two alkylating agents are given as pro-drugs and are activated by a liver p450 (mechlorethamine/ cyclophosphamide/ Ifosfamide)

A

cyclophosphamide and Ifosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

These two alkylating agents lead to hemorragic cysts and bladder irritation due to the acrolein metabolite (mechlorethamine/ cyclophosphamide/ Ifosfamide)

A

cyclophosphamide and Ifosphamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The alkylating agents that are nitrosoureas are (Carmustine + Lomustine/ Dacarbazine + Procarbazine)

A

Carmustine and Lomustine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Carmustine and Lomustine are good for treating (hodgkin’s/ brain tumors/ ovarian cancer)

A

brain tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

These drugs are soluble across the BBB (nitrosoureas /platinum analogs/ triazenes)

A

nitrosoureasCarmustine and Lomustine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Since the nitrosoureas Carmustine and Lomustine have good solubilities, they can get into bones and have the side effect of __________

A

myelosupression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

This triazene is part of the ABVD combination regiment (Doxorubicin/ dacarbazine/ procarbazine/ temozolomide)

A

dacarbazine doxorubicin is adrimacin, an anthracycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(dacarbazine/ temozolomide) is administered IV and (dacarbazine/ temozolomide) is administered orally

A

dacarbazine is IV temozolomide is oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

this platinum analog is known for its renal toxicity (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

cisplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

this platinum analog is known for its myelosuppression and thrombocytopenia (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

carboplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

this platinum analog is known for its neutropenia and eripheral censory loss (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

oxaliplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The platinum analogs are (alkylating/ DNA intercalating) agents

A

alkylating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

the platinum analogs are made cytotoxic by reacting with (p450/ water)

A

water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

cyclophosphamide and Ifosphamide are made cytotoxic by reacting with (p450/ water)

A

p450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

platinum analog best for testicular, ovarian, bladder and lung carcinomas (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

cisplatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

platinum analog best for ovarian cancer (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

carboplatin

36
Q

platinum analog best for gastric and colorectal cancer (Cisplatin/ Carboplatin/ Oxaliplatin)

A

oxaliplatin

37
Q

Methotrexate (can/ cannot) penetrate the CNS

A

cannot, administered intrathecally for meningeal leukemia

38
Q

5-fluorouracil, cytarabine, gemcitabine are (pyrimidine/ purine) analog

A

pyrimidine

39
Q

5-fluorouracil is converted to 5-FdUMP which inhibits _______ synthase

A

thymidylate synthase

40
Q

This pyrimidine analog can give hand-foot syndrome with erythema and sensitivity (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine)

A

5-fluorouracil

41
Q

This pyrimidine analog is most effective for AML and CML (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine)

A

cytarabine (cyta for CML and AML)

42
Q

This pyrimidine analog can be made into a topical cream for basal cell carcinoma and face peels (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine)

A

5-fluorouracil (5-fluoro for the face)

43
Q

Which is the best for solid tumors in the head, neck, esophagus, and non-small cell lung (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

gemcitabine

44
Q

Which is a pyrimidine analog of cytidine? (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

cytarabine and gemcitabine

45
Q

Which is S phase specific? (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

All of them! 5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine

46
Q

This is our only purine analog (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

6-mercaptopurine

47
Q

This chemotheraputic prodrug must be metabolized by HGRPRT (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

6-mercaptopurine

48
Q

Used to maintain remission in acute ALL (5-fluorouracil/ cytarabine/ gemcitabine/ 6-mercaptopurine)

A

6-mercaptopurine

49
Q

Dactinomycin, daunorubicin, doxorubicin, epirubicin, idarubicin are all (Base analogs/ intercalating agents/ antibiotics)

A

BOTH intercalating agents and antibiotics

50
Q

Which act in the G2 phase of the cell cycle? (doxorubicin/ epirubicin/ idarubicin/ bleomycin)

A

bleomycin

51
Q

What are our 2 microtubule formation inhibiting drugs?

A
  1. Vinblastine 2. Vincristine
52
Q

Which is part of ABVD therapy (Vinblastine/ Vincristine)

A

Vinblastine

53
Q

Which has dose limiting neurotoxicity (Vinblastine/ Vincristine)

A

Vincristine

54
Q

What are our 2 microtubule degradation inhibiting drugs?

A
  1. Paclitaxel2. Docetaxel
55
Q

Vinca alkaloids prevent microtubule (polymerization/depolymerization) and Taxanes prevent microtubule (polymerization/depolymerization)

A

Vinca prevent polymerization Taxanes prevent depolymerization

56
Q

This enzyme works to relieve torsional strain on DNA stands

A

Topoisomerase

57
Q

Etoposide and teniposide both inhibit (topoisomerase I/ topoisomerase II)

A

topoisomerase II

58
Q

Tamoxifen is used for anti-________ therapy

A

Estrogen

59
Q

use of tamoxifen increases the risk of ________

A

endometrial cancer and thromboembolic events

60
Q

Anastrozole, Letrozole and Exemestane all do the same thing. They are _________ inhibitors

A

aromatase inhibitors

61
Q

Leuprolide and Goserelin both do the same thing, bind and block the _________ receptor

A

bind and block the GnRH receptor

62
Q

If Leuprolide and Goserelin block the GnRH receptor, ____ and _____ wont be released

A

FSH and LH are not released

63
Q

What are the two non-steriodal androgen-receptor blockers?

A

Leuprolide and Goserelin

64
Q

Hydroxyurea inhibits the enzyme _______

A

ribonucleotide reductase

65
Q

What drug can treat myeloproliferative neoplasms, polycythemia vera, essential thrombocytopenia and SICKLE CELL?

A

Hydroxyurea

66
Q

These drugs induce terminal differentiation in malignant immature promyelocytes for treatment of APL

A

Retinoids

67
Q

This drug can treat multiple myeloma but historically caused birth defects in children

A

Thalidomide

68
Q

Imatinib, Gefitinib, Erlotinib are all in the class of ____ _____ _____

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitors

69
Q

Arsenic trioxide can be used to treat relapse of ____ ________ _______

A

Acute promyelocystic anemia

70
Q

Imatinib inhibits (Abl kinase /PDGFR/ c-kit/ EGFR)

A

Abl kinase, PDGFR and c-kit

71
Q

Gefitinib and erlotinib inhibit (Abl kinase /PDGFR/ c-kit/ EGFR)

A

EGRF for NSCLC

72
Q

What drug is a monoclonal antibody against HER2/neu for breast cancer treatment?

A

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

73
Q

Which id a monoclonal antibody against EGRF1 (ErbB1) for treatment of EGFR-positive colon cancer (Gefitinib/ Erlotinib/ Cetuximab)

A

Cetuximab

74
Q

Which inhibits DHODH which is required for pyrimidine synth (methotrexate/leflunomide)

A

Leflunomide

75
Q

This drug inhibits a renal ion transporter and increases excretion of uric acid

A

Probenecid

76
Q

Doxorubicin and cisplatin work by activating the cell protein ______

A

p53

77
Q

This drug binds the Bcl-Abl tyrosine kinase at the site where ATP normally binds. It is ________

A

Imatinib

78
Q

the BRAF mutation is characteristic of about 50% of this type of cancer: ______

A

melanomas

79
Q

Generally, the best drug for a malignant melanoma without BRAF v600e/k is _______

A

dacarbazine(a triazine alkylating agent)

80
Q

Ipilimumab is used to treat (CML/ALL/Melanoma)

A

melanoma

81
Q

Ipilimumab is an inhibitor of ______

A

CTLA-4

82
Q

The ErbB# family is has an equivalent name, _____. So ErbB2 is the same as ______

A

HER#ErbB2 is HER2/neu

83
Q

The 3 drugs for melanoma are:

A

Dabrafenib Vemurafenib Trametineb

84
Q

This drug for melanoma inhibits Mitogen activated extracellular kinase (MEK) (Dabrafenib/ Vemurafenib/ Trametineb)

A

Trametinib

85
Q

These two drugs treat NSCLC:

A

Erlotinib Gefitinib