Antenatal Care Flashcards

1
Q

What is the booking clinic and when should it be?

A

It is the first appointment with the midwife it should be before 10 weeks gestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What educational topics are covered in the booking clinic?

A

What to expect at different stages of pregnancy
Lifestyle advice in pregnancy- not smoking, alcohol cessation, recreational drug use.

Supplements- folic acid and vit D

Birth plans

Antenatal Screening tests

Antenatal classes

Mental health

Breastfeeding classes

Exercises- pelvic floor exercises
RISK ASSESMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What advice would you give to a patient who is pregnant to avoid listeria?

A

Drinking only pasteurised or UHT milk

Not eating ripened soft cheese like Camembert, Brie, and blue veined cheese

Not eating pate

Not eating uncooked or undercooked ready prepared meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What advice would you give to a pregnant woman to avoid getting salmonella?

A

Avoid raw or partially cooked eggs, or food that may contain them like mayonnaise
Avoid raw or partially cooked meat, especially poultry.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the risks of drinking in pregnancy?

A

Long term haem, the more you drink the greater the risk
. Low birth weight
. Preterm birth
. Small for gestational age
. All increased in mothers drinking above 1-2 units/ day during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the examination involve in the booking clinic?

A
Height, weight, BMI, 
Urinalysis for protein and bacteria 
Blood pressure 
Discuss female genital mutilation 
Discuss domestic violence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What bloods are taken at the booking clinic?

A

Blood group, antibodies, rhesus D status
FBC for anaemia
Screening for thalassemia and sickle cell disease

Patient to will also be offered screening for infectious diseases, by testing antibodies for HIV, Hep B, syphilis.

Screening for Down’s syndrome may be initiated depending on the gestational age, bloods for the combined are taken from 11 weeks onwards l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How do you screen for Down syndrome?

A

Combined test is first line
Performed between 11-14 weeks gestation

Combines ultrasound and maternal blood tests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does the combined test involve?

A

Maternal blood tests-
Beta- hCG (the higher the result the higher risk)
Pregnancy associated plasma protein A (lower result indicates a greater risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the triple test and what does it involve?

A

Between 14-20 weeks gestation
Only involves maternal blood tests
Beta hCG (Higher result indicates a greater risk)
Serum oestriol (female sex hormone- lower result indicates a greater risk)
Alpha fetoprotein- lower result indicates a greater risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does quadruple test mean?

A

Screening for Down syndrome between weeks 14 and 20, it is identical to triple test but also includes inhibin A (Higher means greater risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the verdict of the screening test for Down syndrome?

A

If the risk of the fetid having Down syndrome is greater than 1 in 150 then woman is offered karyotyping for a definitive answer…

  • chorionic villus sampling
  • amniocentesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling?

A

Chorionic villus sampling involves an ultrasound guided biopsy of the placenta, tissue, this is done earlier in pregnancy (<15 weeks)

Amniocentesis involves ultra sounded guided aspiration of the amniotic fluid, using a need,e and syringe, used later in pregnancy when there is enough amniotic fluid to take a sample.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you screen for pre eclampsia?

A

Blood pressure and urinalysis should be checked for protein at each antenatal visit

At the booking appointment pre eclampsia risk factors should be determined…

40 years or older?
Null
Nullparity 
Pregnancy interval of more than 10 years 
FH 
Previous Hx 
BMI 30kg/M2 or above 
Pre existing vascular disease- hypertension 
Pre existing renal disease 
Multiple pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How many antenatal appointments should each woman have?

A

Uncomplicated nulliparous- 10 appointments should be adequate
Uncomplicated Parous- 7 appointments should be adequate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should symphysis fundal height be measured and recorded?

A

From 24 weeks

Should match the gestational age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the first, second and third trimester?

A

First is from start until 12 weeks gestation.
Second is 13 weeks to 26 weeks gestation
Third is 27 weeks till birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When do foetal movements start?

A

20 weeks until birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When should the booking clinic take place?

A

Before 10 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When and what is the dating scan?

A

An accurate gestational age is calculated from the crown rump length and multiple pregnancies are identified
It is between 10 and 13+6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When and what is the antenatal appointment?

A

16 weeks

Discuss the results and plan future appointments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When and what is the anomaly scan?

A

An ultrasound used to identify any anomalies like heart conditions
Between 18 and 20+6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Routine antenatal appointments are at 25,28,31,34,36,38,40,41 and 42 weeks
What is done at these routine antenatal appointments?

A

symphysis fundal height
Fetal presentation
Urine dipstick for protein for pre eclampsia
Blood pressure for pre eclampsia
Urine for microscopy and culture for asymptomatic bacteriuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the two vaccines offered for all pregnant women?

A
Whooping cough (pertussis) from 16 weeks gestation 
Influenza (flu) when available in autumn or winter. 

Live vaccines like the MMR are avoided in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What lifestyle advice should you give to pregnant women?

A

Take folic acid
Take vit D supplements
Avoid vit A supplements if eating pate or liver (vit A is tetarogenic in large doses)
Don’t drink alcohol
Don’t smoke
Avoid unpasteurised dairy or blue cheese (risk of listeriosis)
Avoid undercooked or raw poultry (salmonella risk)
Avoid contact sport but can continue moderate exercise
Sex is safe
Flying increases VTE risk
Place car seatbelts above and below the bump

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What can alcohol in pregnancy lead to?

A

Miscarriage
Being small for the dates
Preterm delivery
Fetal alcohol syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

Certain characteristics that can occur in children of mothers that consumed during pregnancy, the features include…

. Microcephaly (small head) 
. Thin upper lip 
. Smooth flat philtrum (groove between the nose and upper lip) 
. Behavioural difficulties 
. Hearing and vision problems 
. Cerebral palsy 
. Short palpebral fissure 
. Learning difficulties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does smoking in pregnancy increase the risk of?

A
Fetal growth restriction 
Miscarriage 
Still birth 
Preterm labour and delivery 
Placental abruption 
Pre eclampsia 
Cleft lip or palate 
Sudden infant death syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is flying in pregnancy acceptable?

A

37 weeks in a single pregnancy
32 weeks in a twin pregnancy

(After 28 weeks gestation most airlines need a note from midwife, GP, obstretician to state the pregnancy is going well and there’s no additional risks)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the combined screening test for Downs syndrome?

A

It is performed between 11 and 14 weeks
Involves combining results from ultrasound and maternal blood tests

Ultrasound- measures nuchal translucency (the thickness of the back of the neck of the foetus), nuchal thickness greater than 6mm indicates Down syndrome

Blood tests-

Beta hCG (higher result means a greater risk)

pregnancy associated plasma protein A (lower result means a greater risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The screening test provides a risk score for the foetus having Down syndrome, at what risk is the woman then offered amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling?

A

1 in 150 (occurs in around 5% of tested women)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the risk of hypothyroidism in pregnancy?

A

Miscarriage, anaemia, small for gestational age and pre eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What drugs can/ can’t be used in hypertension in a pregnant woman?

A

Medications that should be stopped…
. ACE- I (ramipril)
. ARBs (losartan)
. Thiazide and thiazide like diuretics

Medications which aren’t known to be harmful…
. Labetalol (bets blocker)
. Calcium channel blocker (nifedipine)
. Alpha blockers (doxasozin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What can women who have epilepsy in pregnancy take?

A

Should take folic acid 5mg daily before conception to reduce the risk of neural tube defects

Levetiracetam, Iamotrigine and carbamazepine are the safer anti epileptic medications in pregnancy.

Should be well controlled in pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What medication is considered safe in pregnancy in terms of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Hydroxychloroquine

Sulfasalazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Should NSAIDS be used in pregnancy?

A

Generally avoided as they work by blocking prostaglandins, which soften the cervix and stimulate uterine contractions at the time of delivery
Particularly avoided in the 3rd trimester- can cause premature closure of the ductus arteriosus. Can also delay labour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Can beta blockers be used? What effects may they have

A

Labetalol is the main choose to use in pre eclampsia

However they can cause…
. Foetal growth restriction
. Hypoglycaemia in the neonate
. Bradycardia in the neonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is congenital rubella syndrome?

A

Also known as German measles, caused by the maternal infection with the rubella virus in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, the risk is highest before ten weeks gestation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the signs of congenital rubella syndrome to be aware of..

A

Congenital deafness, cataracts, heart disease (PDA)learning disability, cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Why is chickenpox dangerous in pregnancy?

A

More severe cases in the mother- varicella pneumonitis, hepatitis, encephalitis
Fetal varicella syndrome
Severe neonatal varicella infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens if the woman is exposed to chickenpox in pregnancy?

A

When the woman has previously had chicken pox, they are safe

When they are not sure about their immunity then varicella zoster IgG levels can be tested

When they are not immune they can be treated with IV varicella immunoglobulins as prophylaxis of developing chickenpox, should be given within ten days of exposure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the typical features of congenital varicella syndrome?

A

Fetal growth restriction
Microcephaly, hydrocephalus and learning disability
Scars and significant skin changes located in specific dermatomes
Limb hypoplasia (underdeveloped limbs)
Cataracts and inflammation in the eye (chorioretinitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is listeria typically transmitted by?

A

Unpasteurised dairy products, processed meats and contaminated foods. Avoid blue cheese and practise good food hygiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is congenital cytomegalovirus ?

A

Occurs due to a cytomegalovirus infection in the mother during pregnancy. The virus is mostly spread via. The infected saliva or urine of asymptomatic children. Most cases of cytomegalovirus in pregnancy do not actually cause congenital cytomegalovirus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the signs of congenital CMV?

A
Fetal growth restriction 
Microcephaly 
Hearing loss 
Vision loss 
Learning disability 
Seizures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is meant by small for gestational age?

A

An infant with a birth weight which is <10th centile for its gestational age
(Severe SGA <3rd centile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is fetal SGA?

A

An estimated fetal weight (EFW) or abdominal circumference <10th centile

(Severe <3rd centile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is fetal growth restriction?

A

When a pathological process has restricted genetic growth potential. This can present with features of fetal compromise including reduced liquor volume or abnormal Doppler studies.

(Likelihood of this is higher in a severe SGA foetus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is meant by low birth weight?

A

An infant who has a birth weight <2500g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the KLEIHAUER test?

A

Checks how much fetal blood has passed into the mothers blood during a sensitisation event, this can be used after any sensitising event past 20 weeks gestation, to assess whether further doses of anti D are needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does the KLEIHAUER test involve?

A

Adding acid to a sample of the mothers blood, fetal haemoglobin is more resistant to the acid, therefore fetal haemoglobin persists in response to the added acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What measurements are used on ultrasound to assess the fetal size?

A

Estimated fetal weight

Fetal abdominal circumference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the causes of small gestational age?

A

Constitutionally small, matching the mother and others in the family (customised growth charts are made for each fetus, these are based on the ethnic group, weight, height and parity).

Fetal growth restriction (also known as intrauterine growth restriction)

54
Q

What is fetal growth restriction?

A

Also known as intrauterine growth restriction

When there is a small foetus (or a foetus not growing as expected) due to a pathology reducing the amount of nutrients and oxygen being delivery to the foetus through the placenta).

55
Q

What can the causes of fetal growth restricted be divided into…?

A

Placenta mediated growth restriction

Non placenta mediated growth restriction (baby is small due to a genetic or structural abnormality)

56
Q

What is the cause of placenta mediated growth restriction?

A
Conditions which affect the transfer of nutrients across the placenta..
Idiopathic 
Pre eclampsia 
Maternal smoking
Maternal alcohol 
Anaemia 
Malnutrition 
Infection 
Maternal health conditions
57
Q

What are the non placenta mediated growth restriction causes?

A

Genetic abnormalities
Structural abnormalities
Fetal infection
Errors of metabolism

58
Q

What other signs are there of fetal growth restriction, apart from being small for gestational age?

A

Reduced amniotic fluid volume
Abnormal Doppler studies
Reduced fetal movements
Abnormal CTGS

59
Q

What are the complications of fetal growth restriction?

A

Fetal death or stillbirth
Birth asphyxia (deprivation of oxygen to a newborn infant which lasts long enough during the birth process to cause physical harm, usually to the brain).
Neonatal hypothermia
Neonatal hypoglycaemia

60
Q

What are growth restricted babies at long term risk of?

A

Cardiovascular diseases, particularly hypertension
Type2 diabetes
Obesity
Mood and behaviour problems

61
Q

What are the risk factors for SGA?

A
Previous SGA baby 
Smoking 
Obesity 
Diabetes 
Existing hypertension 
Pre eclampsia 
Older mother (over 35) 
Multiple pregnancy 
Low pregnancy associated plasma protein A 
Antepartum haemorrhage 
Anti phospholipid syndrome
62
Q

When are women booked for serial growth scans with umbilical artery Doppler?

A

If at 24 weeks gestation the symphysis fundal height is less than the 10th centile

3 or more minor risk factors
One or more major risk factors
Issues with measuring the symphysis fundal height (large fibroids or a BMI >35)

63
Q

What is measured at the serial growth scans?

A

Estimated fetal weight and abdominal circumference to determine the growth velocity
Umbilical arterial pulsatility index to measure the flow through the umbilical artery
Amniotic fluid volume

64
Q

What are the critical management steps for a fetus which is SGA?

A

Identifying those at risk of SGA
Aspirin given to those at risk of pre eclampsia
Treating modifiable risk factors ie: stop smoking
Serial growth scans to monitor growth
Early delivery where growth is static or there are other concerns

65
Q

What investigations are done for SGA?

A

Blood pressure and urine dipstick for pre eclampsia
Uterine artery Doppler scanning
Detailed fetal anatomy scan by fetal medicine
Karyotyping for chromosomal abnormalities
Testing for infections (toxoplasmosis, cytomegalovirus, syphilis and malaria)

66
Q

What is large for gestational age?

A

It is also known as macrosomia
When the weight of the newborn is more than 4.5kg at birth
During pregnancy, an estimated fetal weight above the 90th centile is considered large for gestational age

67
Q

What are the causes of macrosomia?

A
Constitutional 
Maternal diabetes 
Previous macrosomia 
Maternal obesity or rapid weight gain 
Overdue 
Male baby
68
Q

What are the risks to the mother of a fetus being large for gestational age?

A
Shoulder dystocia 
Failure to progress 
Perineal tears 
Instrumental delivery or caesarean 
Postpartum haemorrhage 
Uterine rupture (rare)
69
Q

What are the risks to the baby when it is large for gestational age?

A

Birth injury (erbs palsy, clavicular fracture, fetal distress and hypoxia)
Neonatal hypoglycaemia
Obesity in childhood and later life
Type 2 diabetes in adulthood

70
Q

What investigations should you perform for a large for gestational age baby?

A

Ultrasound to exclude Polyhydramnios and estimate the fetal weight
Oral glucose tolerance test for gestational diabetes

71
Q

What does monozygotic mean?

A

Identical twins (from a single zygote)

72
Q

What is dizygotic?

A

Non identical (from two different zygotes)

73
Q

What is meant by monoamniotic and diamniotic?

A
Monoamniotic= one amniotic sac 
Diamniotic= two amniotic sacs
74
Q

What is meant by monochorionic and dichorionic?

A

Mono- share a single placenta

Dichorionic- two separate placentas

75
Q

What is ultrasound used to determine for multiple pregnancy?

A

Gestational age
Number of placentas and amniotic sacs
Risks of Down syndrome (part of the combined)

76
Q

What are the risks to the mother with multiple pregnancy?

A
Anaemia 
Polyhydramnios 
Hypertension 
Malpresentation 
Spontaneous preterm birth 
Instrumental delivery or caesarean 
Postpartum haemorrhage
77
Q

What are the risks to the foetuses and neonates of multiple pregnancy?

A
Miscarriage 
Stillbirth 
Fetal growth restriction 
Prematurity 
Twin-twin transfusion syndrome 
Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence 
Congenital abnormalities
78
Q

What is twin twin transfusion syndrome?

A

This is where the foetuses share a placenta, one fetus (the recipient) will get the majority of the blood from the placenta, while the other fetus (the donor) is starved of the blood. The recipient will become overloaded with fluid with heart failure and Polyhydramnios while the donor has growth restriction, anaemia and oligohydramnios. There will be a discrepancy between the size of the foetuses.

79
Q

How can you treat twin-twin transfusion syndrome?

A

Laser treatment can be used to destroy the connection between the two blood supplies.

80
Q

What is twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence?

A

Similar to twin-twin transfusion syndrome, but less acute, one twin becomes anaemic while the other develops polycythaemia (raised Hb).

81
Q

Women with multiple pregnancy require more antenatal care, what extra care do they get?

A

Additional monitoring for anaemia, with full blood counts at:
. Booking clinic, 20 weeks gestation, 28 weeks gestation

Additional ultrasound scans required to monitor fetal growth restriction, unequal growth and twin-twin transfusion syndrome

2 weekly scans from 16 weeks gestation for monochorionic, while 4 weekly scans from 20 weeks for dichorionic

82
Q

What is the presentation of UTI in pregnancy?

A
Dysuria (pain, stinging or burning when passing urine) 
Suprapubic pain or discomfort 
Increased frequency of urination 
Urgency 
Incontinence 
Haematuria 
Renal angle tenderness on examination
83
Q

What does pyelonephritis present with?

A

Fever (more prominent than in lower UTI)
Loin, suprapubic or back pain (bilateral or unilateral)
Looking and feeling generally unwell
Vomiting
Loss of appetite
Haematuria
Renal angle tenderness on examination

84
Q

What are the most common causes of UTI?

A

Eschericia coli

Others…

. Klebsiella pneumoniae (gram -ve anaerobic rod) 
. Enterococcus 
. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 
. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 
. Candida albicans (fungal)
85
Q

What is the management of urinary tract infection in pregnant women?

A

Nitrofurantoin (avoid in the third trimester)
Amoxicillin (only after sensitivities are known)
Cefalexin

86
Q

Can nitrofurantoin be used in pregnancy?

A

Should be avoided in the third trimester as there is a risk of neonatal haemolysis (destruction of the neonatal red blood cells)

87
Q

Can you use trimethoprim in pregnancy?

A

Can’t use in the first trimester as it works as a folate antagonist, folate is important in early pregnancy for the normal development of the fetus

In early pregnancy it can cause congenital malformations particularly neural tube defects (spina bifida) it is not known to be harmful later in pregnancy but is general avoided unless necessary

88
Q

When are women screened for anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Booking clinic

28 weeks gestation

89
Q

Why are pregnant women at risk of anaemia?

A

The plasma volume increases which results in a reduction in the haemoglobin concentration, the blood is diluted due to the higher plasma volume.

90
Q

What is the presentation of anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Shortness of breath
Fatigue
Dizziness
Pallor

91
Q

What are the normal ranges of haemoglobin during pregnancy?

A

At the booking bloods the haemoglobin concentration should be >110g/L

At 28 weeks gestation the haemoglobin concentration should be >105g/l

Post partum the haemoglobin concentration should be >100g/l

92
Q

Mean cell volume can indicate the cause of the anaemia, what do the following indicate..

1) low MCV
2) normal MCV
3) raised MCV

A
Low= iron deficiency 
Normal= may just be the physiological anaemia due to increased plasma volume of pregnancy 
Raised= B12 or folate deficiency
93
Q

What is haemoglobinopathy screening?

A

Offered to all women at the booking clinic
It screens for..
Thalassaemia (all women)
Sickle cell (women at risk)

94
Q

What is the management of anaemia in pregnancy?

A

Women with anaemia in pregnancy are started on iron replacement, they also may be started on iron if they have low Ferritin but are not anaemic.

B12
Low b12 levels should be tested for pernicious anaemia (checking for intrinsic factor antibodies)
Intramuscular hydroxocobalamin injections, oral cyanocobalamin tablets

Folate- all women should be taking folic acid 400mcg per day, women with folate deficiency are started on 5mg daily

Thalassaemia and sickle cell anaemia
High dose folic acid, close monitoring, transfusions when required, managed jointly with a specialist haematologist

95
Q

Why are pregnant women more likely to develop VTE?

A

So for a VTE there are 3 main things which cause one:

  • hypercoagulable states
  • change in stasis of blood flow
  • damage to vessel wall

In pregnancy the woman is in a hyper-coagulable state

96
Q

What are the risk factors for VTE in pregnancy?

A
Smoking 
Parity > or equal to 3 
Age >35 years 
BMI >30 
Reduced mobility 
Multiple pregnancy 
Pre eclampsia 
Gross varicose veins 
Immobility 
Family history of VTE 
Thrombophilia 
IVF Pregnancy
97
Q

What VTE prophylaxis is offered to pregnant women?

A

LMWH- enoxaparin, dalteparin, tinzaparin unless contra indicated
It is continued throughout the antenatal period and 6 weeks postnatal, started immediately for very high risk and at 28 weeks for high risk.

98
Q

What can be used in women with contraindications to LMWH?

A

Anti embolic compression stockings

Intermittent pneumatic compressions

99
Q

How do DVTs present?

A
Unilateral...
Calf or leg swelling 
Dilated superficial veins 
Tenderness to the calf 
Oedema 
Colour changes to the leg
100
Q

How can you measure whether leg swelling is significant or not?

A

Measure the circumference of the calf 10cm below the tibial tuberosity, more than 3cm between calves is significant

101
Q

What can pulmonary embolism present with?

A

Can present with subtle signs and symptoms…
. Shortness of breath
. Cough with or without blood (haemoptysis)
. Pleuritic chest pain
. Hypoxia
. Tachycardia
. Raised resp rate
. Low grade fever
. Haemodynamic instability causing hypotension.

102
Q

How do you diagnose VTE ?

A

Doppler ultrasound scan for DVT

CXR and ECG for women with suspected PE
And either V/Q or CTPA

103
Q

Would you do a wells score for a pregnant woman?

A

A wells score is not validated for use in pregnant women, D dimers are not helpful in pregnant women, as pregnancy is a cause of raised D diner.

104
Q

What is the management of VTE?

A

LMWH- enoxaparin, dalteparin etc….

LMWH should be started immediately before confirming the diagnosis

105
Q

How would you manage a pregnant woman with a massive PE and haemodynamic compromise?

A

Unfractionated heparin
Thrombolysis
Surgical embolectomy

106
Q

What is pre eclampsia?

A

New high blood pressure (hypertension) in pregnancy with end organ dysfunction, notably with proteinuria

107
Q

When and how does pre eclampsia occur?

A

It occurs after twenty weeks gestation when the spiral arteries of the placenta form abnormally leading to a high vascular resistance in these vessels.

108
Q

What is the triad of pre eclampsia?

A

Hypertension
Proteinuria
Oedema

109
Q

What is chronic hypertension?

A

High blood pressure which exists before 20 weeks gestation, it is long-standing, not caused by dysfunction in the placenta and is not classed as pre eclampsia.

110
Q

What is pregnancy induced/gestational diabetes??

A

Hypertension occurring after 20 weeks gestation without proteinuria.

111
Q

What is eclampsia?

A

Where seizures occur as a result of pre eclampsia

112
Q

What are the high risk factors for pre eclampsia?

A
High risk 
Pre existing hypertension 
Previous hypertension in pregnancy 
Excising autoimmune conditions ie: lupus 
Diabetes 
CKD
113
Q

What are the moderate risk factors for pre clampsia?

A
Older than 40 
BMI >35 
More than ten years since previous pregnancy 
Multiple pregnancy 
First pregnancy 
Family history of pre eclampsia 

Risk factors are important as they are used to determine which women are offered aspirin as prophylaxis against pre eclampsia

Women are offered aspirin from 12 weeks gestation until birth if they have one high risk factor or two or more moderate risk factors

114
Q

What are the symptoms of pre eclampsia?

A
Headache 
Visual disturbance and blurriness 
Nausea and vomiting 
Upper abdominal or epigastric pain (due to liver swelling) 
Oedema 
Reduced jeans output 
Brisk reflexes
115
Q

How can a diagnosis of pre eclampsia be made?

A
Systolic blood pressure >140mmHg 
Diastolic blood pressure >90mmHg 
Plus any of...
. Proteinuria (1+ on dipstick) 
. Organ dysfunction 
. Placental dysfunction
116
Q

What is placental growth factor used for?

A

A protein releases by the placenta that functions to stimulate the development of new blood vessels, in pre eclampsia the levels of placental growth factor are low
PIGF should be used between 20 and 35 weeks to rule out pre eclampsia

117
Q

How are pregnant women routinely monitored at every antenatal clinic for evidence of pre eclampsia?

A

Blood pressure
Symptoms
Urine dipstick for proteinuria.

118
Q

What is the treatment for gestational hypertension (without proteinuria)?

A

Treating to aim for a blood pressure below 135/85mmHg
Admission for women with a blood pressure above 160/110,mHg
Urine dipstick testing weekly
Monitoring of blood tests weekly
Monitoring fetal growth by serial growth scans
PIGF testing on one occasion

119
Q

What is the management of pre eclampsia when diagnosed?

A

Scoring systems used to determine whether to admit women- fullPIERs or PREP-s
Blood pressure is monitored closely (at least every 48 hours)
USS monitoring of the fetus, amniotic fluid and Doppler performed 2 weekly

Medical management
Labetolol First line

120
Q

Why are corticosteroids given to women having a premature birth?

A

They help mature the fetal lungs

121
Q

What should patients with pre eclampsia be given for treatment AFTER delivery?

A

Enalapril (first line)
Nifedipine/AMLODIPINE (first line in black African or Caribbean patients)
Labetalol or atenolol is third line

122
Q

What is eclampsia and what is used to treat them?

A

Seizures associated with pre eclampsia

IV magnesium sulphate

123
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

Combination of features which occur as a complication of pre eclampsia and eclampsia
H= Haemolysis
E= elevated liver enzymes
L= low platelets

124
Q

What is gestational diabetes?

A

Diabetes which is triggered pregnancy but resolves after birth. It is caused by reduced insulin sensitivity during pregnancy.

125
Q

What is the most significant immediate complication of gestational diabetes?

A

A large for dates fetus and macrosomia

Poses a risk of shoulder dystocia

126
Q

How are women screened for gestational diabetes?

A

Oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks gestation

Women with previous gestational diabetes also have an OGTT soon after the booking clinic.

127
Q

What are the risk factors for gestational diabetes?

A
Previous gestational diabetes 
Previous macrosomia baby (> 4.5kg) 
BMI >30 
Ethnic origin 
FH of diabetes (first degree relative)
128
Q

What features would suggest gestational diabetes?

A

Large for dates fetus
Polyhydramnios
Glucose on a Urine dipstick

129
Q

What are normal results of an OGTT?

A

Fasting <5.6mmol/l
At 2 hours <7.8mmol/l

Can remember by 5678

130
Q

What are the management options for gestational diabetes?

A

If the fasting glucose is less than 7 then trial diet and exercise for 1-2 weeks, followed by metformin and insulin.

If the fasting glucose is above 7 start metformin and insulin

If the fasting glucose is above 6 plus macrosomia then start insulin +/- metformin.

131
Q

What can be used if the woman can’t tolerate insulin or decline it?

A

Sulfonyurea

132
Q

In pregnant women with pre existing diabetes what is one really important screening test and when would you do it?

A

Retinopathy screening after booking and at 28 weeks gestation.