ANP 1115 - Blood (Pt. 2) & Intro to Heart Flashcards

1
Q

What is Fibrinolysis?

A

Removal of clot when no longer needed

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2
Q

What is the Key enzyme for Fibrinolysis?

A

Plasmin (precursor is plasminogen - plasma protein that gets incorporated into the clot)
- Plasminogen is the inactive form of plasmin
- Plasmin breaks down blood clot

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3
Q

What is Plasminogen Activated by?

A

Activated by tPA - Tissue Plasminogen Activator
- released by endothelial cells

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4
Q

When does Fibrinolysis begin and end?

A

Begins within 2 days and continues until clot is dissolved

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5
Q

What are the two Homeostatic Mechanisms to Control Size of Clot?

A
  1. Swift removal of coagulation factors
  2. Inhibition of activated clotting factors
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6
Q

What does Clot Formation Require?

A

Requires [procoagulation factors] > [anticoagulation factors]

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7
Q

What is the Importance of Vascular Spasms in response to Injury?

A

flowing blood washes away procoagulants
- Vascular spasms cause vasoconstriction, hence decrease in blood flow to maintain [procoagulants]

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8
Q

What happens to Thrombin as it is formed?

A

As thrombin forms, it is adsorbed onto fibrin threads (limits clot size)

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9
Q

What is the Role of Antithrombin III?

A

antithrombin III (plasma protein) inactivates any escaping thrombin
- antithrombin III & protein C (plasma protein) inactivate many intrinsic pathway procoagulants

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10
Q

What is Heparin and its Role?

A

basophils & mast cells
- enhances activity of antithrombin III and inhibits intrinsic pathway

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11
Q

What does Smooth Endothelial Lining of undamaged blood vessels prevent?

A

prevents undesirable clotting
- no access to collagen
- endothelial-derived NO & prostacyclin

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12
Q

What is a Thrombus?

A

A clot that develops and persists in an unbroken blood vessel
- can block critical blood circulation to those tissues

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13
Q

What might promote Thrombus formation in an unbroken blood vessel?

A
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14
Q

What is an Embolus?

A

A thrombus which ha broken free
- can get stuck in a vessel of small diameter

e.g., pulmonary or cerebral emboli

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15
Q

How do you treat a Thrombus?

A

Treat with drugs such as tPA, streptokinase to dissolve clots via plasmin

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16
Q

Why is a low does of Aspirin a good Preventative Therapy in heart attack risk patients?

A

Aspirin interferes with the production of prostaglandins
- Low dose because you still need blood clotting
- Preventative measure

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17
Q

What are the Three Bleeding Disorders?

A
  1. Thrombocytopenia
  2. Impaired Liver Function
  3. Hemophilias
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18
Q

What is Thrombocytopenia?

A

Any condition harmful to bone marrow (malignancy, radiation, drugs)
- Interference with normal levels of production of platelets
- Easy bruising due to internal hemorrhage
- Petechiae: tiny area of damage to capillary

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19
Q

What is Hemorrhage?

A

Escape of blood from a ruptured blood vessel?

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20
Q

Why does Whole Blood Transfusion only give TEMPORARY relief for Thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelet life span is only 10 days

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21
Q

What are some Impaired Liver Functions?

A

Hepatitis, cirrhosis (procoagulants come from liver)
- Liver disease also associated with reduced bile production
- Bile is required to absorb vitamin k

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22
Q

What is the Role of Bile?

A

Assists with digestion of fats in GI system

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23
Q

What is Hemophilias?

A

Hereditary bleeding disorders due to deficiencies in intrinsic pathway factors

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24
Q

What is the Difference between Hemophilia A and Hemophilia B?

A

Hemophilia A (83% of cases): lack factor VIII
Hemophilia B: lack factor IX

  • both sex-linked and require regular transfusion
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25
Q

How does the body compensate for Blood Loss?

A
  1. Generalized vasoconstriction to decrease blood vessel volume
  2. increasing the rate of erythropoiesis
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26
Q

What can a loss of 15-30% of blood cause?

A

weakness, pallor (paleness)
- loss of > 30% can induce shock

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27
Q

When is Whole Blood Transfusion performed?

A

If substantial blood loss or thrombocytopenia
- often packed red cells for anemia

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28
Q

What is the Donor’s blood mixed with?

A

donor blood mixed with an anticoagulant (citrate dextrose – a calcium chelator)
- can be stored several weeks @ 40C

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29
Q

What is the importance of Citrate Dextrose?

A

Binds calcium ions
- important cofactor in blood clotting

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30
Q

What do RBC Antigens promote?

A

Agglutination

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31
Q

What causes Agglutination problems during Transfusion?

A

Only the ABO and Rh antigens cause serious agglutination problems during transfusion

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32
Q

Why is Type O the Universal Donor?

A

No antigens

33
Q

Why is Type AB the Universal Recipient?

A

No antibodies

34
Q

Where was Rh D first identified?

A

Rh D first identified in Rhesus monkeys, then in humans (~85% North Americans Rh+

35
Q

How do Rh Antibodies differ from those of ABO Antibodies?

A

Rh antibodies NOT spontaneously formed in blood of Rh- individuals
- individuals become sensitized upon first exposure to Rh antigens (transfusion, carrying an Rh+ fetus)
- antibodies will attack donor RBCs in response to second & subsequent exposures

36
Q

How is erythroblastosis fetalis prevented in Rh- Mothers?

A

Rh- mothers carrying second Rh+ fetus treated with RhoGAM (anti-Rh serum) to prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of the newborn)

37
Q

Why is the problem with transfusion the recipient’s agglutinins and not the donors?

A

Donors have a finite amount of antibodies
- recipients can produce more antibodies

38
Q

What is Agglutination?

A

clogging of small blood vessels

39
Q

What happens to Clumped RBCs?

A

Clumped RBCs rupture or are destroyed by phagocytes & Hb released

40
Q

What is the Overall Result of Agglutination & Hemolysis?

A
  1. Blocked flow to tissues
  2. Reduced O2-carrying ability of blood
  3. Hb Precipitates / clogs kidney tubules (possible kidney failure)
41
Q

What are the Symptoms of Agglutination?

A

Fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, general toxicity

42
Q

How is kidney failure prevented?

A

Critical to prevent kidney failure by administering alkaline fluids to dilute & dissolve Hb
- Diuretics also work

43
Q

What is Autologous Transfusion?

A

Storage of patients own blood pre-surgery

e.g., 1 unit / 3-4 days before surgery

44
Q

What is Blood Typing?

A
  • Use serum containing anti-A or Anti-B agglutinins
  • Similar procedure for Rh factor typing
45
Q

What is the Heart?

A

simply a transport system pump
- hollow blood vessels provide delivery routes

46
Q

What is the Heart enclosed by?

A

enclosed within mediastinum of thorax
- Region in the thoracic cavity that holds the heart

47
Q

Where is the Base and Apex o the heart?

A
  • broad, flat base toward right shoulder
  • apex points toward left hip
48
Q

What are the Three Layers of the Heart?

A

pericardium, myocardium, endocardium

49
Q

What is the Pericardium?

A

Double-walled, firbo-serous sac

a) fibrous pericardium (thicker part)
b) serous pericardium (thinner part)

50
Q

What is the purpose of Fibrous Pericardium of the Heart?

A
  • protects and anchors heart
  • prevents overfilling of heart (puts an upper limit on how much the heart can be filled to prevent tearing or damaging)
51
Q

What is the Serous Pericardium?

A

parietal & visceral (epicardium) layers + fluid-filled pericardial cavity
- deep to the fibrous pericardium

52
Q

What is the Pericardial Cavity?

A

Contains serous fluid to allow the heart to fill and contract comfortably
- frictionless surface

52
Q

What is the Myocardium?

A
  • cardiac muscle
  • branching cardiac muscle cells arranged into bundles
53
Q

What is cardiac muscle?

A

bulk of the heart
- very electrical
- conducts electrical impulses from one cell to the next

54
Q

What is the role of Connective Tissue Wrappings of Cardiac Muscle bundles?

A
  • Insulation around bundles to direct flow of electricity through the atria and ventricles of the heart
  • reinforce myocardium internally
  • anchor cardiac muscle fibers
  • provide additional support for great vessels and valves
  • direct spread of action potentials across heart to specific pathways
55
Q

What is the Endocardium?

A

Layer of endothelium + CT layer on inner myocardial surface
- continuous with endothelium of vessels leaving & entering heart

56
Q

What are the two Exterior Grooves?

A
  • Coronary Sulcus
    Anterior-Posterior Interventricular Sulcus
57
Q

What is the Coronary Sulcus?

A
  • runs horizontally
  • provides a pathway to vessels for coronary circulation
58
Q

What is the Anterior-Posterior Interventricular Sulcus?

A
  • Passageway between left + right ventricles
  • depression on surface of heart to provide passageway for coronary vessels
  • branch into smaller vessels into muscular of the heart in order to develop
  • deliver oxygen and nutrients
59
Q

What are the Atria?

A

Receiving Chambers
- small, thin-walled
- need only convey blood to ventricles

60
Q

Where does Deoxygenated, Systemic Blood enter?

A

Enters through right atrium via:
- Superior vena cava (receives oxygen poor blood from above the heart)
- inferior vena cava (receives oxygen poor blood from areas below the heart)
- Coronary sinus from myocardium (receives oxygen poor blood from the walls of the heart)

61
Q

Where does Oxygenated blood enter?

A

Oxygenated blood to left atrium via 4 pulmonary veins

62
Q

What are Pectinate Muscles?

A

muscle bundles found especially in the right atrium
- Fossa Ovalis
- Foramen Ovale

63
Q

What is the Foramen Ovale?

A

Opening between left and right atrium in developing fetus that allow the two bloods to mix

64
Q

What is the Foss Ovalis?

A

Closure of foramen ovale
- make shallow depression

65
Q

What are Ventricles?

A

Discharging Chambers
- the real pumps of the heart
- walls much thicker (especially left ventricle - 3x thicker)

66
Q

What do the Left and Right Ventricles pump?

A

Right Ventricle: pumps blood oxygen-poor to the pulmonary trunk
Left Ventricle: pumps oxygen-rich blood to the aorta

67
Q

What are the Muscle Bundles of the Ventricles?

A

Internal walls have muscle bundles:
- trabeculae carneae
- papillary muscles (link the chordae tendineae)

68
Q

What direction is blood flow?

A

Blood flow is unidirectional
- enforced by 4 valves

69
Q

What is the importance of Chordae Tendineae and Papillary Muscles?

A

keeps valves closed

70
Q

What are the Heart Valves?

A
  1. Atrioventricular Valves
  2. Semilunar Valves
71
Q

What are the Atrioventricular Valves?

A

Paired between left and right
i) tricuspid valve: right atrium to right ventricle
ii) mitral (bicuspid) valve: left atrium to left ventricle

72
Q

What are the Semilunar Valves?

A

Paired, from ventricles to either pulmonary or systemic circuits
i) Pulmonary valve: right ventricle to pulmonary trunk (then arteries)
ii) aortic valve: left ventricle to aorta

73
Q

What are the Valve Problems?

A

Valvular Insufficiency: incompetent valves that don’t close 100%
Valvular Stenosis: valves stiff due to calcification and/or scar tissue; doesn’t open all the way

74
Q

What is the difference between Pulmonary and Systemic Circuit?

A

pulmonary circuit (right ventricle): short, low-pressure circulation
systemic circuit (left ventricle): long pathway with 5X resistance

75
Q

What is Coronary Circulation?

A
  • shortest, but one of the most important, circulations in the body
  • Left & right coronary arteries branch from the base of the aorta
  • encircle the heart in the coronary sulcus (atrioventricular groove)
76
Q

What are Anastomoses?

A

Vessels that join up together
- Provides alternate routes for nourishment if a given artery begins to be occluded (blocked)

77
Q

What are the Diseases of Coronary Vessels?

A

Angina Pectoris: chest pains
- vessels narrow (many occlusions)

Myocardial Infarction: Heart attack due to total occlusion
- complete blockage of O2 and nutrients to particular area of heart muscle