Animal Management and Welfare Flashcards

1
Q

Cattle routine procedures

a) IM injection sites
b) Subcutaneous injection sites
c) IV injection sites
d) Blood sampling sites
e) Methods of oral administration

A

a) Neck (common in beef cattle as less valuable meat), Gluteals (common), Triceps (uncommon), Semimembranosus/semitendinosis (uncommon, small volumes)
b) Neck, Shoulder region (safer in head crush)
c) Jugular vein (common), Middle caudal vein (tail vein) for small volumes, Mammary vein (only emergency), Cephalic or dorsal metatarsal (occasionally in calves if jugular veins are thrombosed)
d) Jugular vein, Tail vein
e) Bolus (balling) guns, Drench guns, Stomach tubes (relieves rumen bloat and rumen fluid collection)

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2
Q

Cattle routine procedures

a) Caudal epidural anaesthesia
b) Blood/plasma transfusions

A

a) Common sites for administration: between Cd1-Cd2, can be S5-Cd1 (first movable joint). Dose is 1ml/100kg local anaesthetic
b) Donor can give 10-15ml blood per kg. In anaemic cow, 5L donated blood can raise PVC from 10%-14% (life-threatening to survival). Use catheter to donate over 30-45 mins

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3
Q

Cattle routine procedures

Methods of Disbudding/Dehorning

A
  • Disbudding recommended by 2 weeks of age
  • Corneal nerve block + ring block around horn
  • Avoid dehorning during fly season
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4
Q

Cattle routine procedures

Methods of castration and possible complication

A

Complication - Scirrhous cord:
- Retention and infection of testicular tunics following infection
- Requires blunt dissection of scirrhous cord
- Spermatic cord ligated and incised, removing infected tissue

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5
Q

Cattle routine procedures

a) Bull ringing procedure
b) Supernumerary teat removal (restraint and anaesthesia, and technique)
c) Abscess drainage

A

a) 1. Bull in crush and sedated 2. Infra-orbital nerve block 3. Local anaesthetic at site 4. Fibrous septum punched, ring placed and secured 5. Antibiotic cream post-op
b) Restraint - dorsal recumbency in younger animals, standing in older. Anaesthetic - cattle > 3 months. Surgical technique: Isolated teats removed with burdizzo and shark scissors. Haemorrhage uncommon, but buturing may be required in adults
c) 1. Abscess drained using liberal (>5cm) incision 2. Incision should end at most dependent site 3. Large necrotic lumps and debris removed 4. Cavity flushed with antiseptic solution daily for 7 days

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6
Q

Animal welfare concepts

a) Define a sentient animal
b) What abilities does a sentient animal have (5)
c) Define emotions

A

a) Having awareness and cognitive ability necessary to have feelings
b) 1. Evaluate actions of others in relation to itself and third parties
2. Remember some of its own actions and consequences
3. Assess risks and benefits
4. Have feelings
5. Have a degree of awareness
c) An intense affective response to an event that is associated with specific bodily changes

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7
Q

Animal welfare concepts

a) Categorisation of needs (4)
b) FAWC’s Five Freedoms
c) EU Welfare quality scheme (4)

A

a) 1. Nutritional needs 2. Environmental needs 3. Health needs 4. Behavioural needs
b) 1. Freedom from hunger/thirst 2. Freedom from discomfort 3. Freedom from pain 4. Freedom to express normal behaviour 5. Freedom from fear and distress
c) 1. Good feeding 2. Good housing 3. Good health 4. Appropriate behaviour

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7
Q

Animal welfare concepts

a) Methods of determining an animal’s needs (4)
b) Describe these methods

A

a) 1. Ethogram 2. Preference/choice test 3. Aversion testing 4. Deprivation testing

b)
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8
Q

Animal welfare concepts

a) Define stress
b) What type of responses are triggered by stress (4)
c) 4 Pathways that stress elicits CNS responses

A

a) Biological response elicited when an individual perceives a threat to its homeostasis
b) 1. Behavioural response 2. Autonomic nervous system response 3. Neuro-endocrine response 4. Immune response

c)
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9
Q

Animal welfare concepts

a) Describe Morberg’s Stress and Strain Graph (A to D)
b) Define frustration
c) Define distress
d) Define suffering

A

b) When an aim generated by causal events cannot be achieved
c) High levels of stress that has a high biological cost
d) Unpleasant subjective feeling that is severe or prolongued

a)
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10
Q

Animal welfare assessment

Physiological responses to stressors
a) Emotional stress (5)
b) Pain - acute (3)

A

a)
- Adrenergic response
- Adrenal cortex response
- Reduced LH, GRH, Prolactin
- Reduced core body temperature
- Reduced ghrelin
b)
- Adrenergic response
- Adrenal cortex response
- Enzymes related by trauma (CK, IDH, CRP)

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11
Q

Animal welfare assessment

Physiological responses to stressors
a) Osmotic stress
b) Energy depletion
c) Thermal stress

A

a)
- Adrenergic response
- Adrenal cortex response
- PCV, TP, Albumin, Electrolytes
b)
- Insulin, glucagon, leptin
- FFA, beta hydroxyl butyrate, glucose, urea
c)
- Prolactin
- Core temperature
- Skin temperature
- Panting, sweating

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12
Q

Animal welfare assessment

a) What sort of response to stress is adrenaline
b) Ways of measuring the biological effect of adrenaline (5)
c) Limitations to these measures

A

a) Acute response
b)
- Heart rate
- Heart Rate Variability
- Pupil Dilation
- Skin Temperature
- Fight or flight response
c) Changes in biometric parameters may be due to causes other than elevated adrenaline release

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13
Q

Animal welfare assessment

a) What sort of response to stress is cortisol/corticosterone
b) Consequences of chronic elevated cortisol (3)
c) Limitations of using cortisol to measure stress (5)

A

a) Chronic response
b)
- Immuno-suppression
- Mediated by IL-1 ; IL-2 ; IL-β
- Production of cardiac lesions and gastric ulceration
c)
- Levels vary with age, circadian rhythm, reproductive status
- Levels decline over time due to negative feedback
- Levels rise in normal life events
- Levels do not rise or stay high for stressors such as heat, confinement and pain
- No single cortisol level you can use to define when an animal is stressed

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14
Q

Animal welfare assessment

Physiological measures of stress
a) Reproductive capacity (1)
b) Stress-induced hyperthermia (2)
c) Production (1)
d) Hormone tests (1)
e) Limitations of physiological measures of stress (4)

A

a) LH and FSH levels affected by physical and emotional stress
b) Mediated via interleukins, prostaglandins and vasopressin. Common in captured wildlife
c) BCS, growth, leptin levels
d) Oxytocin, vasopressin, beta endorphins, ghrelin etc.
e) 1. Limited specificity
2. Invasive techniques may themselves cause stress
3. Presence of human observers may cause stress
4. Pulsatile nature of some hormonal parameters

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15
Q

Animal welfare assessment

Behavioural parameters for abnormal behaviour (7)

A
  1. Self-directed (e.g. Self-mutilation / self-licking or plucking)
  2. Environmentally directed (e.g. eating bedding, chewing on fence)
  3. Normal behaviour inappropriately directed to other animals (e.g. injurious pecking, dogs humping owners, inappropriate suckling)
  4. Failure of function (e.g. silent heat in cattle, neonatal rejection, infanticide)
  5. Prolonged inactivity
  6. Hyper-reactivity and hysteria
  7. Stereotypic behaviours
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16
Q

Animal welfare assessment

a) Overview of outcome-based measures
b) Welfare and productivity trade-off scale - label graph
c) Benefits of resource based methods (FAWC’s 5 freedoms) (4)

A

a) Relate to effect of resources and management on the
individual. Requires representative sample of individuals in the flock/herd
b) A – B : Symbiotic. B : Maximum animal welfare. B – C : Output increases at the cost of animal welfare. D : Max animal output. > D: Welfare is so egregious that it adversely impacts productivity
c) 1. Much easier than OBM’s 2. Quick and Easy 3. Cheaper 4. Used in (older) registration

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16
Q

Animal welfare assessment

Stereotypic behaviours
a) Predisposing factors (4)
b) Mechanism (3)
c) Examples (4)

A

a) 1. Lack of control of environment
2. Frustration
3. Unpredictability
4. Barren environment
b) 1. Dopaminergic neural systems stimulated by amphetamines, blocked by naloxone
2. Self-narcotisation with endogenous endorphins to enable animals to cope better in adverse environments
3. In low input environments oral stereotypies are associated with high input receptors
c) 1. Pacing and tracing
2. Circling and tail chasing
3. Head shaking and nodding
4. Bar biting

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17
Q

Animal welfare assessment

Hazard analysis and critical control points (HAACP) (7)

A
  1. Conduct hazard analysis
  2. Identify critical control points
  3. Establish critical limits for CCPs
  4. Establish CCP monitoring requirements
  5. Establish corrective actions
  6. Establish procedures to ensure methodology is working
  7. Establish record keeping procedures
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18
Q

Housing farm livestock

Welfare criteria
a) Good feeding (2)
b) Good housing (3)
c) Good health (3)
d) Appropriate behaviour (4)

A

a) 1. Absence of prolongued hunger 2. Absence of prolongued thirst
b) 3. Comfort around resting 4. Thermal comfort 5. Ease of movement
c) 6. Absence of injuries 7. Absence of disease 8. Absence of pain due to management
d) 9. Expression of social behaviours 10. Expression of other behaviours 11. Good human-animal relationship 12. Absence of general fear

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19
Q

Housing farm livestock

Describe thermoneutral zones

A
  • Range of environmental temperatures which an animals metabolism is: constant, at a minimum & independent of environmental temperature
  • Within the thermoneutral zone the animal regulates its body temperature without altering its heat production by adjusting its heat loss
  • Preferred environment for optimum production and welfare
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20
Q

Housing farm livestock

Thermal comfort in housing of pigs and poultry (what type of housing used, what limits, when are animals most susceptible to death, how do older animals differ)

A
  • Intensive housing evolved to keep air temperature as high as possible, maximising feed conversion (too cold and use energy to keep warm, too hot and use energy to keep cool)
  • Limited by costs of maintaining a high temperature
  • Most susceptible to death from heat stress during transport
  • Older animals have wider thermoneutral zones
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21
Q

Housing farm livestock

Thermal comfort in housing of ruminants and horses

A
  • Wide thermoneutral zone due to excellent regulation of heat loss by evaporation
  • Climatic housing to protect against elements
  • Housing is most economically profitable when it protects stock against extreme temperatures and facilitates heat loss by evaporation where necessary
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22
Q

Housing farm livestock

Livestock contribution to climate change
What are main contributing species
Enteric CH4 production and land use

A
  • Cattle are main contributor (65%), pigs, poultry, buffaloes, small ruminants ~7-10%
  • Livestock production and associated activities account for 10-20% global emissions
  • Methane ~ 30% these emissions
  • Land use ~ 38%
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23
Q

Animal welfare law

What acts protect the following animals
a) Domesticated vertebrates
b) Research animals
c) Wild vertebrates

A

a) Animal welfare act 2006
b) Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act 1986
c) Wild Mammals Protection Act 1996

24
Q

Animal Welfare Law

Animal Welfare Act 2006
a) Main offences (2)
b) Related offences (3)

A

a) 1. Unnecessary suffering 2. Welfare offence
b) 1. Mutilations (including tail docking in England) 2. Poisoning 3. Fighting and baiting

25
Q

Animal Welfare Law

Define the following reasons for prosecution
a) Commission
b) Omission
c) Vicarious liability

A

a) Conducting an illegal action under the act
b) Causing suffering by failing to do something (eg no food/water)
c) Failing to take reasonable steps to ensure someone else doesn’t commit an offence against an animal for which they are responsible

26
Q

Animal Welfare Law

Animal Welfare Act 2006 - what offence is covered in section 4
Criteria of the offence

A

Offence of unnecessary suffering
1. could suffering have been reasonably avoided or reduced
2. was the conduct which caused suffering in compliance with any relevant enactment, or relevant provisions of a license or code of practice issued under an enactment
3. was the conduct which caused suffering for a legitimate purpose
4. was the suffering proportionate to the purpose of conduct concerned
5. was the conduct in all the circumstances that of a reasonably competent and human person

27
Q

Animal welfare law

Animal Welfare Act 2006 - what offence is covered in section 9

A

The Welfare offence
Offence is committed if - ‘the responsible person does not take such steps as are reasonable, in all the circumstances, to ensure that the needs of an animal for which they are responsible are met to the extent required by good practice’

28
Q

Ruminant nutrition

Dry matter intake
a) What percentage of body weight should dry matter intake be (6)
b) Animal factors affecting intake
c) Feed factors affecting intake (4)
d) Management factors affecting intake (3)

A

a) 2.5%
b) 1. Size 2. Breed 3. Age 4. Lactation 5. Gestation 6. Body condition score
c) 1. Fibre content of diet 2. Protein 3. Processing, moisture 4. Digestibility
d) 1. Feed and water access 2. Feeding frequency and spoilage 3. Ration changes and palatability

29
Q

Clinical examination of cattle housing

a) Three stages of examining housing
b) What is the main disease to look out for in calves

A

a)
1. Assess exterior (site, structure, ventilation)
2. Examine interior (animals, shed surfaces, air inlets, air movement)
3. Take measurements (temperature, humidity, stocking density, ventilation)

b) Calf pneumonia - respiratory disease

30
Q

Clinical examination of cattle housing

Examination of the exterior of the housing

A
  1. Suitability for stick type (climatic housing, older animals next to younger)
  2. Air inlets - are there adequate, any interconnected air spaces, are there dead spots -> can increase humidity and allow pathogen growth
31
Q

Clinical examination of cattle housing

a) What to note in examination of the animals themselves
b) Why are cattle prone to respiratory issues
c) What to note in examination of housing surfaces

A

a)
- Why have they chosen to lie in certain places (draughts, damp)
- Any variability in weight
- Coughing, nasal discharge

b) Due to oxygen damand of cows being higher per body mass
c)
- condensation due to lack of ventilation
- static cobwebs due to lack of ventilation
- ammonia ‘cow smell’ due to poor drainage/management

32
Q

Clinical examination of cattle housing

a) How should inlets and outlets be sized
b) How can the stack effect aid ventilation

A

a) Inlets should be twice the area of outlets
b) Livestock produce heat and drive warm air to rise and escape, drawing in more fresh air. But only effective if stock density is sufficient and inlets/outlets are right size and position

33
Q

Clinical examination of cattle housing

a) Consequence of cold stress on animals
b) Effect of draughts on animals
c) Importance of relative humidity

A

a) Immuno-suppression, disease, decreased growth
b) Reduce ability of animal to withstand cold temperatures. Lower critical temperature much higher with an increased wind speed
c) RH should be 60-80% in summer and 80-95% in winter. Higher than this is likely to encourage airborne bacteria

34
Q

Laboratory animals

Describe how clinical research can be included in routine veterinary practice and what is not considered acts of routine practice

A
  • Routine porcedures undertaken for the benefit of the animal with intention to benefit animals in the future
  • Not an act of RVP - investigations that don’t benefit animal, experimental procedure not necessary for the animal’s treatment, withholding routine treatment, deliberately exposing animals to trauma/infectious agents that risks health/wellbeing
35
Q

Laboratory animals

The animals (scientific procedures) act 1986
a) Animal species protected and ages
b) Describe what protection against ‘regulated procedures’ means

A

a) Any living vertebrate other than man, any living cephalopod. Mammals, birds, reptiles protected from the last third of gestation/incubation. Fish/amphibians protected from when can feed independently
b) Regulated procedure is one that can cause a level of pain equivalent/higher than caused by inserting a hypodermic needle

36
Q

Laboratory animals

Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act 1986 licences
a) Three main licences
b) Who grants licences

A

a)
1. Establishment licence (where) - held by EL holder
2. Personal licence (who) - must be specifically licenced for that establishment
3. Project licence (what) - must set out purpose, where happening, type and number of animals, degree of harm to animals (how replacement, reduction and refinement, 3 Rs, applied), realistic likely benefits

b) AWERB (Animal welfare and ethical review body) and then Home office

37
Q

Laboratory animals

Animals (Scientific Procedures) Act 1986
a) 4 classifications of severity of severity considered before granting project licences
b) Minimum requirements who need to be on an AWERB

A

a) 1. Mild 2. Moderate 3. Severe 4. Non-recovery (Death as an end point is generally not acceptable)
b) Minimum - named veterinary surgeon, named animal care and welfare officer, senior scientist (may wish to include lay persons, ethicists, other named persons)

38
Q

Laboratory animals

Animals (Scientific procedures) Act 1986
Types of animal found in a licenced establishment (4)

A
  1. Outbred (large genetic diversity)
  2. Inbred (animals from same lineage bred together more than 20 times - genetically identical)
  3. Harmful mutants (naturally occurring)
  4. GM animals (artificially altered genetic code)
39
Q

Ruminant nutrition

a) Percentage of body weight for dry matter intake
b) Factors affecting dry matter intake (3)

A

a) 2.5% (although high yield dairy farms increase this)
b)
1. Animal factors (size, breed, age, lactation/gestation, body condition)
2. Feed factors (fibre content, protein, moisture, digestibility)
3. Management factors (feed access, water access, feeding frequency, palatibility, spoilage)

40
Q

Ruminant nutrition

a) Where is primary site of digestion and absorption of nutrients
b) What are produced by microbes
c) How are VFAs absorbed
d) Importance of saliva
e) Rumen pH

A

a) Rumen (function depends on microbial population)
b) Volatile fatty acids, CO2, CH4
c) Propionate, butyrate, acetate absorbed through rumen wall (used as energy source)
d) Dilutes/lubricates food. High levels of bicarbonate to buffer pH
e) 5.5-6.5

41
Q

Ruminant nutrition

Energy metabolism in a typical cow
a) Average maintenance energy requirement
b) Average energy requirement for a lactating cow
c) Where does energy in food predominantly come from

A

a) 70 MJ/day
b) 5 MJ/kg of milk (1L ~ 1kg)
c) Carbohydrates (available for rumen microflora - fermentable metabolic energy), Fats (passed to small intestine for digestion), Volatile fatty acids (absorbed through rumen wall)

42
Q

Ruminant nutrition

Protein metabolism in ruminants
a) Main principle
b) Calculating crude protein
c) High-quality proteins produced by microbes
d) Protein not degraded by microbes
e) Effective rumen degradable protein

A

a) Microbes can convert nitrogen compounfs into high-quality protein
b) Nitrogen content x 6.25
c) Rumen degradable proteins (split into quickly degradable protein - QDP, and slowly degradable protein - SDP)
d) Undegraded protein (split into digestible undegraded protein - DUP, and non-digestible undegraded protein - ADIN)
e) QDP + SDP = ERDP

43
Q

Ruminant nutrition

Protein metabolism
a) What is microbial protein production - MCP - dependent on
b) What percentage of protein produced by microbes is absorbed through digestive tract

A

a) 1. Degradable protein intake 2. Fermentable metabolisable energy (carbohydrates)
b) 64% -> metabolisable protein = (MCP x 0.64) + DUP

44
Q

Ruminant nutrition

Complete the table for examples of crude protein content in protein feed

A
45
Q

Ruminant nutrition

Fibre
a) What is acid detergent fibre (ADF) + minimum needed in ration
b) What is neutral detergent fibre (NDF) + ration needs

A

a) Cellulose and lignin (min 19%)
b) Cellulose, lignin and hemicellulose (recommend 30%, min 21%)

46
Q

Ruminant nutrition

Water
a) Minimum maintenance requirement of water

A

a) 50ml/kg/day. Significantly more when lactating

47
Q

Sheep nutrition

Body condition scoring and decisions made
a) 8 weeks post lambing
b) Weaning (12 weeks)
c) Tupping

A

a) Thin ewes can be weaned to recover BCS
b) Fat ewes encourgaged to lose weight
c) Flushing ideal (increase nutrition 3-4 weeks before mating) to increase ovulation rate. Most effective in thinner ewes. At tupping time, if ewes have low BCS, could indicate disease

48
Q

Sheep nutrition

Inadequate feeding problems
a) Under feeding (6)
b) Over feeding (7)

A

a)
- Low lamb birthweight and survival
- Reduced udder weight and mammary development
- Weakened ewe/lamb bond
- Pregnancy toxaemia
- Ewe slow to lactate and poor supplies of colostrum and milk
- Reduced lamb growth

b)
- Over-sized lambs and dystocia
- Prolapsed vagina
- Weakened ewe/lamb bond
- Pregnancy toxaemia
- Lambing difficulties and delayed lactation
- Reduced lamb vigour
- Potential for high BCS to impact future performance

49
Q

Sheep nutrition

Consideration of nutrition around colostrogenesis
a) when does ewe udder development occur
b) what does colostrum production depend on
c) consequence of under fed ewes

A

a) last 1/3 of pregnancy
b) energy intake, especially glucose
c) produce significantly les colostrum, reduced milk yield by 7-35%

50
Q

Sheep nutrition

a) What factors influence lamb birth weight (5)
b) What weight should lambs reach at weaning time
c) Colustrum feeding for first feed of orphan lambs
d) What is importance of monitoring daily live-weight gain (DLWG) of lambs
e) Finishing end weight of lambs

A

a) 1. Breed of sire and dam 2. Dam parity 3. Maternal nutrition during pregnancy 4. Litter size 5. Uterine disease
b) Should exceed 25kg. Growth rates should drop below 200g/day
c) 50ml/kg. Should not wean artificially-reared lambs before 4 weeks
d) Reduced DLWG can show 1. change in nutrition 2. presence of disease (parasite control)
e) around 40kg

51
Q

Sheep nutrition

Main important macro-elements/micronutrients in sheep (6)

A
  1. Calcium
  2. Magnesium
  3. Cobalt
  4. Copper
  5. Selenium
  6. Iodine
52
Q

Pig nutrition

a) What are the constituents of a pig diet (5)
b) Advantages and problems with processed ingredients

A

a)
- High energy cereals
- Vegetable proteins
- Animal proteins
- Fats
- Vitamins and minerals (Dicalcium Phosphate especially)

b)
- Processing increases digestibility
- But can cause gastric ulcers

53
Q

Pig nutrition

a) Main considerations of nutrient content of pig diets (3)
b) What is always supplemented in pig feed

A

a)
- Digestible energy (DE)
- Crude protein (CP)
- % Lysine

b)
- Lysine, the first limiting amino acid in the pig (determining growth)
- Cereals are low in lysine, so must supplement

54
Q

Pig nutrition

a) Important times to monitor body condition of sows (4)
b) Main aim for feeding targets in sows

A

a)
- At weaning (target of 3): likely at poorest condition
- At servive: allows time for any loss in condition to be regained
- Mid-pregnancy: guide to whether feeding strategy is successful
- At farrowing (target 3.5-3.75): can review feeding strategies if haven’t been successful (although too late to change for current litter)

b) To minimise loss of condition during lactation (use high energy, high protein feed)

55
Q

Pig nutrition

Thin sow syndrome
a) Causes (6)
b) Related decubital ulcers

A

a)
- inadequate bodily condition control
- feeding too little (or too much, leading to loss of appetite at lactation) in pregnancy
- feeding too little in lactation
- bullying (especially in outdoor systems)
- excess energy loss (cold)
- parasitism

b)
- Only thin subcutaneous fat, no cushioning of bony prominences
- Particulary common in indoor farrowing
- High herd prevalence can indicate poor sow feeding

56
Q

Pig nutrition

Age and target weight range
a) Weaners
b) Growers
c) Finishers

A

a)
- 4-8 weeks old
- 7-20kg

b)
- 9-14 weeks old
- 20-50kg

c)
- 15-21 weeks old
- 50-90kg

57
Q

Pig nutrition

Weaner pig nutrition
Features of creep feed (3)

A
  • Highly digestible: cooked cereals and milk products (young pigs have immature digestive system) - poor digestability leads to diarrhoea
  • High in nutrients: low intakes so high protein, high energy
  • Very palatable: sweetners and flavourings
58
Q

Pig nutrition

Grower-finisher pig
a) What is feed conversion energy (FCE)
b) Average FCE and genetic potential FCE
c) Daily weight gain target, and genetic potential

A

a) Amount of feed needed to produce 1kg growth (eg 2.3kg for 1kg growth = 2.3)
b)
- Average: 2.5
- Genetic potential: 2

c)
- Average: 700g per day
- Genetic potential: 1100g per day

59
Q

Pig nutrition

Grower-finisher pigs
Advantages and disadvantages
a) Pellets
b) Meal
c) Liquid

A

a)
- Advantages: less dust, less food wasted (better FCE)
- Disadvantages: more expensive, can cause colitis

b)
- Advantages: cheaper
- Disadvantages: more dusty, higher wastage

c)
- Advantages: uses by-products of food industry, improves FCE by 3-8%, increases acidity of diet (inhibit E.coli growth, enhance protein and vitamin availability), improve phorus availability, improve digestability