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VetTechPrep > Animal Care and Nursing > Flashcards

Animal Care and Nursing Flashcards

1
Q

Castration is a common procedure performed in horses. How is a horse commonly positioned for a procedure?

A

Lateral Recumbency with upper leg tied around neck

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication of epidural placement in the dog?

a. Obesity
b. Skin infection in the area of needle insertion
c. Coagulopathy
d. Fractures of the sacrum or pelvis

A

a. Obesity

Not a contraindication but can make finding the landmarks difficult while placing an epidural.

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3
Q

A urinalysis should ideally be performed within 30 minutes of collection. How should urine be stored prior to evaluation if it cannot be evaluated immediately?

A

Refrigerate

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4
Q

The medication Mirtazipine and Cyproheptadine can both be used for which purpose?

A

Appetite stimulation

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5
Q

A canine patient presents for his annual exam. The owner states they will be taking a long road trip and “Bailey” gets extremely car sick. What medication has been FDA approved for motion sickness in dogs?

A

Maropitant (Cerenia) is the only medication that has been approved for motion sickness in dogs.

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6
Q

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the use of Humulin insulin?

a. Shake well before use
b. It causes blood sugar to decrease when administered
c. It can be given intramucularly
d. Keep refrigerated

A

a. Shake well before use

Most insulin types should never be shaken, only rolled prior to use.

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered good surgical instrument care?

a. Using a brush to scrub the instruments
b. Using tap water
c. Using an ultrasonic cleaner
d. Using cleaning agents at a pH of approximately 10

A

b. Using tap water

The use of tap water is not recommended as it can leave mineral deposits on the instruments

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8
Q

Which of the following tests amplifies DNA?

a. ELISA (Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay)
b. PCR (Polymerase chain reaction)
c. Flow cytometry
d. Cytology
e. Histopathology

A

b. PCR

PCR is a method of amplifying a segment of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) segments

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9
Q

When discussing the equine hoof, which structure produces cells that become the hoof wall?

A

Coronary band

The coronary corium produces sells that become the horn of the hoof wall

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10
Q

Microbiology materials or media that are not in use should be stored where?

A

Refrigerator

Best stored in a refrigerator and brought to room temperature just before use.

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11
Q

When performing orthopedic surgery, it is sometimes necessary to advance a pin into the medullary canal of a bone. Which instrument would a surgeon use to advance a pin?

A

Jacobs chuck

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12
Q

What quantity of drug is found in 200 mLs of a 10% solution?

A

20 grams

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13
Q

When viewing a slide on a microscope, the objects themselves are in focus but there appear to be haloes or fuzzy rings around the objects you are viewing that you cannot eliminate using the focus knobs. What is probably not adjusted correctly?

A

The condenser

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14
Q

Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches?

A

CN V

CN V is the Trigeminal nerve and has three major branches

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15
Q

Canine parvovirus causes which of the following changes?

a. Thrombocytopenia
b. Hemolytic anemia
c. Neutrophilia
d. Neutropenia

A

d. Neutropenia

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16
Q

What is neutropenia?

A

Low neutrophil count

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17
Q

A 4-year old male Thoroughbred horse presents for colic due to verminous arteritis caused by an equine parasite. An egg of this parasite is shown below. What is the parasite that causes verminous arteritis of the cranial mesenteric artery in horses?

A

Strongylus vulgaris

Colic with an associated painful mass at the root of the mesenery is seen with verminous arteritis, caused by damage to the cranial mesenteric artery and its branches by Strongylus vulgaris

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18
Q

Accumulations of desquamated cells, food particles, and bacteria along the teeth are known as which of the following?

a. Calculus
b. Tartar
c. Caries
d. Plaque

A

d. Plaque

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19
Q

When collecting an arterial blood sample, the best location to obtain arterial blood in a standing adult horse is where?

A

Transverse facial artery

Typically located caudal and ventral to the eye.

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20
Q

A surgeon clamps off a bleeding blood vessel. It could be said that the surgeon achieved which of the following?

a. Coagluation
b. Hemolysis
c. Hemostasis
d. Fibrinolysis

A

c. Hemostasis

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21
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

The process of breaking down of clot

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22
Q

What is hemolysis?

A

The rupturing of erythrocytes

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23
Q

What is coagulation?

A

The complex process by which blood forms clots

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes the therapeutic index of a drug?

a. The range of microbial species that a drug is effective against
b. The number of milligrams of a drug that is needed to be effective divided by 100
c. The ratio between the effective dose and the toxic dose
d. The ratio between the maximum effective dose and the minimum effective dose
e. The amount of variability in the response of a population to a drug

A

c. The ratio between the effective dose and the toxic dose

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25
Q

Four patients present to your emergency clinic at the same time:
a) 2-year old male domestic short hair with urethral obstruction
b) 5-year old female Labrador with tracheal foreign body and cyanosis
c) 10-year old male standard poodle with a laceration on its forelimb
d) 4-year old male hamster with elongated teeth

In what order should these patients be triaged?

A

b, a, c, d

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26
Q

What species offspring is labeled “precocious”?

A

Guinea Pig

Due to the long gestation period, the development of fetus occurs in utero. After 58 days, the young are born with their eyes open, fully furred and able to walk. This is known as “precocious”.

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27
Q

What does the term “altricial” mean?

A

To be born with eyes closed, hairless and helpless. The opposite of “precocious”

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28
Q

A puppy presents to your clinic for surgery because he has an intussusception. What happened to the puppy?

A

Part of his intestine has telescoped inside of itself

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29
Q

What is a tear in the body wall known as?

A

Hernia

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30
Q

What is mesenteric volvulus known as?

A

Twisting of the intestine at the root of the mesentery. Immediately life threatening.

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31
Q

How much 2% lidocaine should be drawn up if performing and intra-articular injection at a dose of 2mg/kg in a 38 kg dog?

A

3.8 ml

2% lidocaine is equivalent to 20 mg/ml

38 kg x (2mg/kg) = 76 mg
76 mg / (20 mg/ml) = 3.8 ml

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32
Q

Which medication is considered a gastric “band-aid”?

A

Sucralfate
- Acts as a sticky paste that binds with proteins found in ulcers and adheres there like a band-aid to aid in protection and healing

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33
Q

What is Pepcid (famotidine)?

A

An antacid that helps to decrease the gastric acid that can cause an ulcer to occur

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34
Q

What is Metaclopramide?

A

A pro-motility agent that helps to reduce vomiting

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35
Q

What is Metronidazole?

A

An antibiotic often used in treating diarrhea.

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36
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

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37
Q

What is the purpose of the rheostat of the light source on a microscope?

A

To adjust light intensity

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38
Q

What is the purpose of the condenser on a microscope?

A

Focuses light on the object and can be raised and lowered relative to the stage

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39
Q

What is the ideal age for tail docking in puppies?

A

3 to 5 days after birth

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40
Q

You want to give a 22 pound cat a 5 mg/kg dose of a drug. The drug comes as a 2.5% solution. How many milliliters should you give the cat?

A

2 ml

22 lbs x (1kg/2.2 lbs) x 5 mg/kg x (1ml/25mg) = 2 ml

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41
Q

Which type of shock may cause brick-red mucous membrane color?

A

Septic shock

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42
Q

A veterinarian diagnosis a tension pneumothorax in a dog that was hit by a car. What does this mean?

A

Air is building upon in the pleural space and can’t escape

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43
Q

Which of the following cats would be most prone to having a hairball problem?

a. Sphinx
b. Persian
c. Abyssinian
d. Domestic short hair

A

b. Persian

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44
Q

Which components or settings influence x-ray beam quality?

A

kVp and filtration

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45
Q

What is the normal sulcus depth of the teeth in dogs when examining with a periodontal probe?

A

0-3 mm

depth greater than 3 mm are suggestive of periodontal disease

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46
Q

What is the normal sulcus depth of the teeth in dogs when examining with a periodontal probe?

A

0-1 mm

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47
Q

A dirty wound has edges and tissue that need to be removed. What is the term for removing questionable tissue?

A

Debridement

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48
Q

Which structure in the body is most sensitive to radiation?

A

Ocular lens

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49
Q

The parotid gland is responsible for making and secreting what?

A

Saliva

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50
Q

What is the largest of the salivary glands?

A

Parotid

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51
Q

What is made by the sebaceous glands?

A

Sebum

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52
Q

What is made by the adrenal glands?

A

Epinephrine

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53
Q

What is made by the hypothalamus and released by the pituitary gland?

A

Oxytocin

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54
Q

What is produced by the lacrimal gland?

A

Tears

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55
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate of a cat?

A

24-42 breaths per minute

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56
Q

You volunteered at the zoo and spent the day handling tortoises. A day later you have gastrointestinal symptoms. Reptiles are a major source for which disease?

A

Salmonella

Turtles/tortoises, iguanas and snakes are especially known to harbor the bacteria.

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57
Q

A breeder calls and wants to know how long sperm may be viable to fertilize an egg after dogs have mated. What will you tell her?

A

Canine sperm may live or be able to fertilize an ovum for about 7 days.

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58
Q

You are reading a report from an oncologist and read that the popliteal lymph nodes were enlarged. Where are these nodes located?

A

In the caudal portion of the hindlimbs at the level of the stifle and back of the thigh.

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59
Q

Where are the pre-scapular lymph nodes located?

A

At the chest over the pectoral muscles

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60
Q

Where are the Mandibular lymph nodes located?

A

Under the jaw, rostral to the salivary glands

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61
Q

Where are the inguinal lymph nodes located?

A

Inside of each thigh at the inguinal region.

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62
Q

What is the most rostral structure of the eye?

A

Cornea

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63
Q

Where in the eye is the retina located?

A

At the back of the eye and is the location of the photoreceptors.

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64
Q

Where in the eye is the lens located?

A

Caudal to the pupil and iris. Responsible for focusing light into the retina.

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65
Q

How long after birth can foals absorb protective maternal antibodies?

A

18-24 hours. They should get at least 1 liter of colostrum before the gut closes for direct transfer (calves should get at least 2 liters). Adequate colostrum helps prevent against failure of passive transfer which can lead to increased risk of infections.

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66
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is LEAST COMMONLY observed in horses with colic?

a. Repeated laying down and getting up
b. Flank watching
c. Fever
d. Frequent rolling
e. Pawing with the forelimb
f. Kicking at the abdomen with the hindlimbs

A

c. Fever

Occasionally, diseases such as infectious peritonitis or metritis can result in fever and signs of colic, but are less common.

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67
Q

Which disease occurs when the body is unable to make or utilize insulin?

A

Diabetes

68
Q

What is the best way to restrain an unwilling rat for an exam?

A

Thumb and forefinger under front legs, other hand at base of tail.

69
Q

Tularemia would most likely be carried by which animal?

A

Rabbits

70
Q

What is Tularemia?

A

A zoonotic disease caused by rabbits known as rabbit fever. The bacteria can gain entrance through a cut or scratch when handling an infected animal. It leads to a skin ulcer and then swollen glands, fever, headache, and rash. It can also be transmitted to humans via tick bites or deer flies.

71
Q

A parrot presents because it is bleeding profusely from one of its feathers. What would likely be the best course of action to take after examination by the veterinarian?

A

Pull the feather out

72
Q

The designation of VTS in someone’s credentials stands for which of the following?

a. Veterinary Technician Scientist
b. Veterinarian of Technical Surgeries
c. Veterinary Technician Specialist
d. Veterinary Technical Surgeon

A

c. Veterinary Technician Specialist

73
Q

A horse with extended forelimbs and an arched and tense back that is painful when turning most likely has which condition?

A

Laminitis (founder)

74
Q

Endoscopy can be a beneficial diagnostic tool for which of the following conditions?

a. Coughing
b. Nephrolithiasis
c. Portosystemic shunt
d. Pancreatitis
e. Chronic vomiting

A

e. Chronic vomiting

75
Q

What is endoscopy?

A

A scope that is used in the upper GI tract to take biopsies of the stomach and small intestine, and to examine for underlying disease grossly and microscopically

76
Q

What is colonoscopy?

A

A scope that is used to examine the large intestine.

77
Q

What is bronchoscopy?

A

A scope that is used in the airways and would be useful in a case of chronic coughing

78
Q

You are examining a blind dog and want to know if the dog has a sense of smell. You wave a treat in front of the dog’s nose, and he smells it right away. Which nerve were you testing?

A

Cranial Nerve I (Olfactory nerve)

79
Q

What is the term given to the end of the spinal cord?

A

Cauda equina

80
Q

The natural ovulatory season for mares in the northern hemisphere occurs during approximately which months?

A

April-August

81
Q

A rabbit is brought in for skin problems. Upon exam, you notice large flakes of dead skin over the dorsum. Some of these flakes appear to move. What might you be seeing?

A

Cheyletiella

82
Q

What is Cheyletiella?

A

An 8 legged mite that can live on the skin of rabbits, dogs, cats and humans. They do not bury in the skin but live in the keratin layer. They have a 21 day life cycle and cannot live more than 10 days off the host. Known as “walking dandruff”.

83
Q

What is the best construction form for a tortoise outdoor enclosure?

A

Cement blocks mortared together will prevent falling as tortoise digs, and is sturdy enough for even the biggest tortoise.

84
Q

What is the most common blood type in cats in the United States?

A

Type A

85
Q

Which type of gas is formed due to rumenal fermentation?

A

Methane

86
Q

What is the term used for increased urine output?

A

Polyuria

87
Q

What is the term used for increased frequency in urination?

A

Pollakiuria

88
Q

What is the term used to describe a decrease in urination?

A

Oliguria

89
Q

What is the term that refers to the complete absence of urine formation?

A

Anuria

90
Q

The doctor is performing a physical exam on a horse and notices the horse has some ticks in the ears. The ticks have large spines on their bodies. He refers to them as “spinous ear ticks”. What is the proper name for this parasite?

A

Otobius megnini

91
Q

Which structure is the white part of the eye?

A

Sclera

92
Q

At what age should pigs be castrated?

A

5-14 days

Piglets are castrated at a very young age due to ease of handling.

93
Q

You are asked to administer an intramuscular injection to a beef cow. Where should you administer it?

A

Neck muscles

94
Q

A new client presents her puppy and is inquiring about crate training. You tell her that crate training can be used for all of the following except:

a. Sleeping
b. Traveling
c. Potty-training
d. Punishment

A

d. Punishment

95
Q

Which organism causes pinkeye in cattle?

A

Moraxella bovis

96
Q

What is fluorescein stain used for?

A

To look for a corneal ulcer

97
Q

Which of the following fluid types is a colloid?

a. 5% dextrose in saline
b. Hypertonic saline
c. Lactated ringers
d. Hetastarch
e. Sodium chloride 0.9%

A

d. Hetastarch

98
Q

Harderian glands are associated with which part of the anatomy?

A

Eyes

99
Q

A puppy presents for his first distemper-parvo shot. He is currently 8 weeks of age. When should he receive his next set of vaccines?

A

3 weeks from now

100
Q

All of the following are examples of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) that require special treatment or handling EXCEPT which of the choices listed?

a. Needle and syringe used to give chemotherapy to a dog
b. Carcass of a cat that was brought to your clinic dead on arrival upon which you performed a necropsy
c. Paint-stripping solvents that may release toxic fumes
d. Scalpel blades that was used to make a spay incision on a healthy cat
e. Gauze sponges used in equine surgery to soak up blood

A

c. Paint-stripping solvents that may release toxic fumes

101
Q

A client calls to schedule an appointment with the doctor because her dog has been shaking his head and now his ear flap feels swollen, warm to the touch, and is squishy. What should you book the appointment as?

A

Ear Hematoma

102
Q

What is an ear Hematoma?

A

An ear Hematoma occurs when the vessels inside the pinna rupture (from shaking the head, trauma, or vasculitis). The pinna fills with blood.

103
Q

What is the most common treatment for an ear Hematoma?

A

Placing a drain in the pinna that stays in place for a couple of weeks. Underlying ear disease should be treated as well.

104
Q

You remove an IV catheter from a peripheral vein and place a pressure bandage. What is the amount of time this bandage should stay on?

A

4 hours MAX
It is best to remove the pressure bandage once the bleeding has stopped so that the bandage is not forgotten and venous return is not compromised.

105
Q

What is the most common location of an intravenous catheter in a horse?

A

Jugular vein

106
Q

Which of the following is a chelonian?

a. Goat
b. Tortoise
c. Rabbit
d. Bird

A

b. Tortoise

107
Q

What is colic in a horse?

A

Abdominal pain that can be secondary to multiple etiologies.

108
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Drofilaria immitis, the parasite that causes heartworms?

a. The mosquito is the definitive host
b. The mosquito is the intermediate host
c. The dog is the reservoir host
d. The dog is the intermediate host
e. The mosquito is the paratenic host
f. The dog is the paratenic host

A

b. The mosquito is the intermediate host

The mosquito is an intermediate host, but not a paratenic host because the first, second, and third larval stages are found within the mosquito.

109
Q

Rostral indicates which direction?

A

Towards the nose.

110
Q

Caudal indicates which direction?

A

Towards the tail.

111
Q

Dorsal indicates which direction?

A

Towards the back.

112
Q

Cranial refers to which direction?

A

Towards the head.

113
Q

What is the average gestation length of a horse?

A

340 days

114
Q

What is the average gestation length in cows?

A

285 days

115
Q

What is the average gestation length in dogs and cats?

A

63 days

116
Q

What is the number one cause of spreading nosocomial infections in a hospital setting?

A

Hands of hospital staff

117
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

Infections that are acquired in the hospital.

118
Q

A cat is starting weekly subcutaneous fluid administration for renal failure at the clinic where you work. The client asks how long it will take for him to absorb the fluids after they are given. You tell him most cats will absorb the fluids within:

A

5-8 hours

119
Q

Of the following options, oral ulceration is most common in patients with which condition?

a. Liver failure
b. Diabetes
c. Pancreatitis
d. Renal failure

A

d. Renal failure

120
Q

If a snake is undergoing “dysecdysis”, what does this mean?

A

Abnormal shedding of the skin.

121
Q

What does “ecdysis” mean?

A

The shedding or sloughing of the skin and occurs in reptiles including snakes.

122
Q

What is another term for the type of parasite known as a fluke?

A

Trematode

Trematodes, or flukes, are leaf-shaped flatworms with unsegmented bodies.

123
Q

What type of diet should a cat or dog in renal failure be fed?

A

Low in phosphorous and protein

124
Q

A bird that is laying eggs with thin, soft egg shells likely has:

A

Hypocalcemia

125
Q

Where should you palpate a standing animal for the urinary bladder?

A

Caudoventral

126
Q

The cat in this picture is having an IV catheter placed into which vein?

A

Medial Saphenous

127
Q

Which food is a good source of calcium for large animals?

A

Alfalfa

128
Q

What is the name of the reflective layer behind the retina that allows animals to have improved night vision?

A

Tapetum

129
Q

The gestation period for hamsters makes them a valuable research model. What is their gestation period?

A

15-22 days

130
Q

Rats are known to produce a substance called “red tears” or chromadacyorrhea. Where are red tears produced?

A

Harderian gland

The red color is from a porphyrin pigment in the tears.

131
Q

Which area of the horse is generally referred to as the withers?

A

Where the dorsal neck joins the thorax

132
Q

You are working with an aggressive Chihuahua, and the standard muzzles available in the practice will not fit his dog. Which alternative could you try?

A

Gauze muzzle

133
Q

Horses with laminitis should be fed which type of diet?

A

Mostly grass hay

134
Q

What is the meaning of the term multiparous?

A

Has more than one offspring at birth

135
Q

The egg is fertilized in which of the following structures?

A

Oviduct

136
Q

When looking at the bottom of a horse’s hoof, what is the term of the triangular shaped structure behind the sole of the foot?

A

The frog

137
Q

A 3-year old male neutered Maltese presents to your clinic because the owner saw some “white rice-looking things” around his anus. They were small and flat and seemed to be moving. Some of them were dried up. Which of the following drugs is effective against this organism?

a. Salmalectin (Revolution)
b. Fipronil (Frontline)
c. Praziquantel (Droncit)
d. Fenbendazole (Panacur)
e. Pyrantel (Strongid)

A

c. Praziquantel (Droncit)

138
Q

Which internal parasite is a threat to young (but typically not adult) horses?

A

Parascaris equorum

139
Q

What is another term for the type of parasite known as a tapeworm?

A

Cestode

140
Q

The dog penis differs from that of other animals in what way?

A

It has a non-articulating bone known as the os penis

141
Q

Which of the following are treatments for hyperthyroidism?

a. Levamisole and I-131
b. Methimazole and radioactive iodine
c. Metronidazole and Levothyroxine
d. Levothyroxine and I-131

A

b. Methimazole and radioactive iodine

142
Q

A 3-year old female spayed DSH cat presents for evaluation of a fistulous swelling of the centrum. Physical exam is unremarkable, except for an area of matted hair over an erythematous 1 cm swelling on the centrum that exudes a small amount of purulent material which you shave and examine. The cat has no history of fighting; what parasite can cause a lesion like this?

A

Cuterebra

143
Q

What is a Cuterebra?

A

Botfly

144
Q

A young male cat with symptoms of feline lower urinary tract disease and struvite crystalluria should receive:

A

Acidifying diet

145
Q

Which of the following is a general term for giving birth that can be applied to all species?

a. Parturition
b. Pyometra
c. Whelping
d. Queening

A

Parturition is the act of giving birth

146
Q

Pyuria indicates:

A

White blood cells in the urine

147
Q

Flea allergy dermatitis is a very common cause of pruritis in dogs in endemic areas. This is usually an allergy to what?

A

Flea saliva

148
Q

Harderian glands are associated with which part of the anatomy?

A

Eyes

149
Q

The National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America adopting a code of ethics is an example of which branch of ethics?

A

Official ethics

150
Q

What is a common presenting complaint in patients with megaesophagus?

A

Regurgitation

151
Q

There is a 5-year-old 7kg spayed female Maine Coon being prescribed liquid Gabapentin for stress. The doctor has ordered a 10mg/kg dose by mouth BID for 10 days as a trial. The Gabapentin concentration is 50mg/mL. How many milliliters will be sent home with this patient?

A

28 mL

10mg x 7kg = 70mg
70mg/50mg/mL = 1.4mL
1.4mL x 2 BID) = 2.8mL (per day)
2.8mL x 10 days = 28mL

152
Q

Which of the following diseases would be most likely to cause the development of cataracts in dogs?

a. Toxacara canis
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Hypoadrenocorticism
d. Diabetes mellitus

A

d. Diabetes mellitus

153
Q

The clinician has been unsuccessfully treating a chronic cough. A culture of the lower airways is needed. What is the best method for this?

A

Transtracheal wash

154
Q

What hormone stimulates uterine contractions?

A

Oxytocin

155
Q

What breed most commonly has con Willebrand’s disease?

A

Doberman Pinscher

156
Q

Which of the following is known as Addison’s disease?

a. Hypoadrenocortcism
b. Hyperadrenocorticism
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Hypoparathyroidism

A

a. Hypoadrenocorticism

157
Q

Parrots have the unique ability to mimic sound. What anatomical structure in birds is responsible for producing sound?

A

Syrinx

158
Q

You are getting the weight of a patient in the exam room and are going to write it in the record. What part of a SOAP record would you put the weight in?

A

O - Objective

159
Q

The respiratory rate for an adult horse should be?

A

8-20 breaths per minute

160
Q

Which of the following is a term for a method of urine collection from a patient in a sterile manner?

a. Cystocentesis
b. Free catch
c. Cystogram
d. Cystotomy

A

a. Cystocentesis

161
Q

Purkinje Fibers are found in which organ?

A

The heart.

Purkinje fibers are conductive fibers within the ventricular walls that relay cardiac impulses to ventricular cells, which allow contraction.

162
Q

What three parts make up the uveal tract in the eye?

A

Iris, choroid, ciliary body

163
Q

Which hormone is the trigger for ovulation and development of the corpus luteum?

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH)

164
Q

Socialization plays an important role in companion animal behavior. At what age is it vital that painful and/or traumatic experiences be avoided?

A

8-10 weeks

165
Q

The sac containing the testicles is known as what?

A

Scrotum

166
Q

A dog presents for stumbling, has a head tilt, and you notice his eyes are moving back and forth rapidly in a horizontal motion. What is the term for this type of eye movement?

A

Nystagmus

167
Q
A

VetTechPrep (3 decks)

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