Angina Flashcards

1
Q
  • discuss the cause, pathophysiology and presentation of angina.
A
  • angina is chest pain caused by an imbalance between oxygen supply to/demand of the cardiac tissue.
    • an increase in O2 demand can be caused by an increase in:
      • HR, contractility, ventricular wall tension
    • a decrease in O2 supply can be caused by:
      • an increase in coronary artery diameter, perfusion pressure, collateral blood flow
      • a decrease in HR
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2
Q

how does perfusion pressure effect myocardial oxygen supply?

what cardiac events might effect perfusion pressure?

A
  • myocardial O2 supply is contingent upon an adequate perfusion pressure.
    • in this case, perfusion pressure = the pressure gradient from the aorta down to the coronary arteries, which branch from it.
    • an increase in LV end-diastolic pressure can decrease this gradient, slowing O2 supply to the heart
      • (the coronary arteries fill during diastole, and the aorta must overcome the pressure the heart puts on them)
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3
Q

how does heart rate effect myocardial O2 supply?

A
  • HR is inversely related to myocardial O2 supply.
    • the coronary arteries fill during diastole. a faster HR slows down diastole, thus slowing the time for the coronary arteries to fill and perfuse to heart tissue
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4
Q

what characterizes stable angina?

A
  • stable angina is due a to a fixed atherosclerotic lesion that causes narrowing of the major coronary arteries.
    • this plaque does NOT rupture or embolize
    • stable angina tends to present during exertion/stress.
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5
Q

what characterizes unstable angina?

A
  • unstable angina is due to plaque rupture/clot formation in the major coronary arteries. the pain often presents during rest
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6
Q

what characterizes variant angina?

A
  • variant angina is caused by a transient vasospasm (spasm of coronary vessel muscles) in the large coronary arteries rather than a fixed atherosclerotic lesion.
    • it presents during rest
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7
Q

what characterizes microvascular angina?

A
  • microvascular angina is caused by a transient vasospasm in the small coronary arteries
    • like with variant angina, there is no atherosclerotic lesion involved.
    • presents during rest
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8
Q

what is the general phamaceutical approaches to managing angina?

A
  • treat angina be either
      1. reducing oxygen demand
        * lower HR, BP (afterload, preload) and contractility
      1. increasing O2 supply
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9
Q

nitrate esters

  • MOA
  • pharmokinetics
  • what drugs are included in this class?
A
  • drugs:
    • nitroglycerine
    • isosorbide dinitrate
    • isosorbide mononitrate
  • MOA:
    • nitrate esters are vasorelaxants.
      • they are all prodrugs.
        • ​in the liver, dinitrates are broken down to mononitrates.
        • in smooth muscle mitrochondria, mononitrates are converted to NO2 by aldehyde dehyrogenase 2 (ALDH2)
        • in the cytosol, NO2 is converted to NO (active drug) by P540 reductase
          • NO2 activates guanylyl cyclase –> active guanylyl cyclase cleaves GTP to cGMP –> cGMP phosphorylates an activates MLC phsophotase –> dephosphorylates and inactivates myosin light chain kinase –> relaxation
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10
Q

what is ALDH2*2 and what is its clinical significance?

A
  • a mutated version of the aldehyde dehydrogenase 2 enzyme (results from a single nucleotide polymorphism).
  • clinical:
    • ALDH2*2 is seen in 30-50% of Asians
    • results in less NO production from nitrate esters. thus, nitrates are less effective vasorelaxer in these patients.
    • ALDH2 is also involved in ethanol metabolism, and patients with this mutation will experience facial flushing when drinking (a way to identify pts with mutation)
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11
Q

what are the primary effects of nitrates

A

venous dilation. this ultimately lowers the end diastolic wall pressure (lowering O2 demand) while increasing O2 supply.

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12
Q

which nitrate is immediate release? what are its indications and other characteristics?

A
  • nitroglycerine in the form of sublingual/buccal oral spray
    • has a rapid onset of action and short duration
    • used to treat an acute angina attack (all four types)
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13
Q

which nitrates are long-acting? what are their indications and characteristics?

A
  • nitroglycerine in transdermal patch/ointment form
  • isosorbided mono-nitrate
  • isosorbide dinatates
  • indications:
    • prevention of stable, unstable, and variant angina
    • treatment of stable angina:
      • used as an alternative to beta blockers
      • or combined w/ a beta blocker or calcium channel blocker
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14
Q

what are the acute and chronic adverse effects of nitrates?

A
  • acute AEs
    • headache
    • flushing
    • syncope
    • orthostatic hypotension
    • reflex tachycardia
  • chronic AEs
    • development of tolerance to nitrates (in long acting nitrates)
    • methemoglobinemia - a lack of oxygenation to systemic tissues
      • seen only at high doses
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15
Q

how do we prevent development of tolerance to nitrates?

A

by mandating a 8-10 hour drug-free period every 24 hrs while using long acting nitrates

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16
Q

potential drug drug interactions of nitrates

A
  • PDE5 inhibitors (-“fils”: sildenafil, taladafil) - the additive effects can cause extreme vasodilation
  • CYP-3A4 inhibitors/inducers
  • dapsone - poses a risk of methemobloginemia
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17
Q

contraindications of nitrates

A
  • hypotension
  • PDE inhibitors (- “fls”)
  • soluble guanylyl cyclase inhibitors
  • elevated intracranial pressure
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18
Q

use of beta blockers to treat angina

  • what is their MOA
  • what are their indications?
  • when are they NOT to be used?
A
  • MOA: decrease O2 demand by decreasing contractility and heart rate
  • indications: first line treatment of stable & unstable angina
    • decrease the frequency and severity of ischemic events
    • prevention of nitrate induced reflex tachycardia in these types of angina
  • NOT used for variant angina!! (vasospasm of large coronary arteries)
19
Q

what are the non-selective and cardioselective beta blockers?

A
  • non-selective: propanolol, nadolol
  • cardioselective: atenolol, metoprolol
20
Q

adverse effects of beta blockers (indicate which AE correponds to which receptor blockade)

A
  • B1 blockage
    • bradycardia
    • AV block
    • reduced exercise tolerance
  • B2 blockage (propanolol, nadolol)
    • bronchospasm
    • cold extremities
    • claudication
    • erectile dysfunction
    • hypoglycemia
  • lipophilic beta blockers (propanolol)
    • CNS effects: nightmares, fatigue, depression
  • all beta blockers:
    • long term use can cause compensatory upregulation of beta blockers after cessation of use
21
Q

drug drug interactions of beta blockers in the treatment of angina?

A
  • non-DHP CCBs (verapamil, diltiazem): these further reduce HR/contractility
  • digoxin: further reduces HR (can cause bradycardia)
22
Q

contraindications of beta blockers

A
  • for non-selective blockers (propanolol, nadolol)
    • asthma
    • COPD
  • for all
    • severe bradycardia
    • AV block
23
Q

calcium channel blockers (CCPs)

  • what are the two subsets within this class?
  • what are their MOAs in the treatment of angina?
A
  • calcium channel blockers promote smooth muscle relaxation. there are two classes
    • DHPs: “-dipines
      • reduce myocardiac O2 demand by relaxing cardiac muscle, which reduces HR and contractility
    • non-DHPs: verapamil, diltiazem
      • reduce myocardial O2 demand AND increase O2 supply by relaxation vascular muscle. this dilates arteries, which 1. increases coronary blood flow to cardiac tissue and 2. reduces afterload against the heart
24
Q

specific indications of calcium channel blockers (DHP vs non-DHP)

A
  • stable angina: both non-DHPs (veramapil, diatiazem) & DHPs (dipines):
    • like long-acting nitates, they are used as an alternative to/in combination with a beta blocker
  • arrythmias: non-DHPs only
  • FIRST LINE treatment for variant angina: DHPs only
  • HTN: DHPs only
  • Reynaud’s phenomenom: DHPs only
25
Q

AEs of CCBs (DHP vs non-DHP)

A
  • both non-DHPs and DHPs:
    • peripheral edema
    • headache
    • flushing
  • short acting DHPs (rarely used)
    • reflex tachycardia
    • MI risk
    • dizziness
  • non-DHPs
    • cardiac related AEs
      • bradycardia
      • AV block
      • cardiac depression
    • gingiva hyperplasia
    • nausea
    • constipation (verapamil only**)
26
Q

drug drug interactions of CCBs

A
  • both DHPs and non-DHPs: CYP-3A4 inhibitors
  • non-DHPs only:
    • B-blockers - can cause bradycardia
    • digoxin - can cause bradycardia
    • P-glycoprotein inhibitors
27
Q

contraindications of CCBs

A
  • both DHPs and non-DHPs
    • hypotension
    • aortic stenosis
  • non-DHPs only:
    • bradycardia
    • AV block
28
Q

which drugs are non-DHP CCBs?

what are the indications, AEs, and contraindications of non-DHPs that are not shared by DHPs?

A

= verapamil, diltiazem

  • unique indications:
    • arrythmias
  • unique AES:
    • cardiac AEs: bradycardia, AV block, cardiac depression
    • gingival hyperplasia
    • constipation (verapamil only)
  • unique drug-drug interactions:
    • B-clockers
    • digoxin
    • p-glycoprotein inhibitors
29
Q

which drugs are DHP CCBs?

what are their clinical uses, AEs and contraindications that they do not share with non-DHPs?

A

= “dipines”

  • unique clinical uses:
    • variant angina
    • hypertension
    • raynaud’s dynrome
  • don’t have AEs/contraindications that don’t also apply to non-DHPs.
30
Q

which angina drug has constipation as a side effect?

A

verapamil (non-DHP CCB)

31
Q

which drugs are the first line treatment for stable and unstable angina?

A

beta blockers

32
Q

which drugs are first line treatment for variant angina?

A

DHP calcium channel blockers (- dipines)

33
Q

what is the late phase sodium current and what is its physiological role in cardiac muscle relaxation?

A
  • in cardiac myocytes, the late phase of sodium current is point of the action potential during which intracellular Na+ is low
  • this low intracellular Na+ favors creates a favorable gradient for Na+ influx, which will drive the Na-Ca exchanger (NCX) to bring in Na+ in exchange for Ca++
    • the consequent decrease in intracellular calcium allows for muscle relaxation
34
Q

how does the late phase sodium channel play a role in cardiac ischemia?

A
  • in pathological circumstances, is a higher intracellular [Na+] during the late phase than there should be.
    • this high intracellular Na+ reverses the NCX channel, which drives Na+ out and pulls Ca++ in the high intracellular [Ca++] causes myocyte contraction, which will increase workload on the heart
      • –> myocardial ischemia
35
Q

what is the MOA of ranolazine?

A
  • inhibits late phase sodium current
  • this lowers intracellular [Na+]
  • this drives Na+ in and Ca+ out
  • –> relaxation
36
Q

what are the effects of ranolazine?

A
  • increases O2 demand and decreases O2 supply
  • does NOT affect HR or blood pressure (only angina drug that does not effect BP)
37
Q

clinical uses of ranolazine:

A
  • second-line agent for the treatment of chronic stable angina
    • (beta blockers are 1st line for stable angina)
  • typically used for:
    • as an alternative pts who cannot tolerate B-blockers/CCBs
    • as an add-onn for pts who cannot reach therapuetic goal with B-blockers/CCBs/nitrates
    • who have hypotension: works because ranolazine does NOT lower BP
38
Q

AEs of ranolazine

A
  • serious: increased QT interval via block of IKr
  • others:
    • dizziness
    • headache
    • constipation
39
Q

what are the main drug drug interactions of ranolzine & how to manage minimize the effects from these interactions?

A

(ranolzine interacts with substrate of CYP-3A4 and p-glycoprotein)

  • AVOID giving ranolazine it pt taking:
    • strong CYP-3A4 inhibitors/inducers
    • drugs that decrease QT interval
  • lower ranolazine dose if patient taking:
    • moderate CYP-3A4 inhibitors
40
Q

contraindications of ranolazine

A
  • stong CYP-3A4 inhibitors/inducers
  • pts with long QT interval
  • pts with hepatic dysfunction
41
Q

summarize the unique uses of each class of angina drugs

A
  • nitrates:
    • rapid relase are for acute symptom release
    • long acting: for prevention
  • B-receptor blockers:
    • first line prevention of stable/unstable angina
    • reduce morality after MI
  • ranolazine:
    • treatment of stable angina if other tx inadequate or hypotensive patients
  • CCBs:
    • prevention of stable/variant angina
  • anti-platelets:
    • for unstable angina
  • antihyperlipidemic agents:
    • decreased incidence of ischemia/adverse CV events
42
Q

what key angina drugs are to prevent stable angina?

A
  • b-blockers (1st line)
  • CCBs: both DHPs (dipines) and non-DHPs (diltiazem, verapamil)
  • long-acting nitrates
  • ranolazine (only treats unstable)
  • lipid-lowering medications

B-blockers/non-DHPs reduce O2 use, long acting nitrates/ DHPs increase O2 supply, ranolzine does both

43
Q

what drugs are used to prevent unstable angina attacks

A
  • B-blockers: first line
  • long-acting nitrates
  • lipid lowering agents
  • anti-platelets/anti-coagulants (only treats unstable)
44
Q

what drugs are used to prevent variant and microvascular angina?

A
  • DHPs (-dipines): first line
  • + long acting nitrates