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RUSVM Anesthesiology > Anesthesiology Exam I Material > Flashcards

Anesthesiology Exam I Material Flashcards

1
Q

Anesthetized patients encounter respiratory depression from anesthetic drugs, so we supplement their oxygen to avoid hypoxemia. What is considered the minimum FIO2?

A

Minimum FIO2 = 35%

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1
Q

T/F: It is fine to use the quick flush valve on a small patient attached to a low volume breathing system because you’re a badass and you play by your own rules

A

No. It’s not.

  • You would pop your patient.*
  • …wouldn’t be very badass then.*
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2
Q

What are the two main functions of any patient breathing system (PBS)?

A
  • Deliver oxygen +/- anesthetic gas
    • Eliminate carbon dioxide
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2
Q

According to the ACVA, how often should you record findings while an animal is under anesthesia?

A

Every 5-10 minutes

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3
Q

__________ bypasses the vaporizer and delivers O2 directly to the patient breathing circuit

A

Quick Flush

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3
Q

What flow rate is typically used with a non-rebreathing system?

A

200-300 ml/kg/min

Throughout the entire procedure

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4
Q

What is the equation you use to calculate proper size of rebreathing bag?

A

Body weight x Tidal volume x 5

  • Normal tidal volume = 10-20 mls/kg
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5
Q

The pressure reduction valve reduces cylinder pressure to a fixed _____ psi

A

50 psi

Provides a constant pressure of 50 psi to the flowmeter

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5
Q

What is the main function of the ‘pop-off’ valve?

A

limits pressure buildup within the circuit

ALWAYS keep open unless delivering manual, controlled, or assisted ventilation

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6
Q

Loss of sensitivity to pain is termed:

A

analgesia

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6
Q

At what temperature (Farenheit) do we consider the patient hypothermic?

A

96oF or less

Below 94oF anesthetic requirements are reduced, recovery may be prolonged, CV function depressed

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7
Q

How do you calculate remaining oxygen within an ‘E’ Cylinder?

A
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8
Q

A state characterized by CNS depression accompanied by drowsiness is termed:

A

sedation

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of action for Atropine?

A

Antimuscarinic

Competitively inhibits acetylcholine (and other cholinergic stimulators) at the postganglionic parasympathetic neuroeffector site

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10
Q

In order to avoid hypoxemia, N2O:O2 should not exceed a ratio of ____

A

2:1

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11
Q

What monitoring adjunct assesses the effects of anesthesia drugs on synaptic activity?

A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

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12
Q

A drug induced state of deep sleep from which a patient cannot be easily aroused:

A

narcosis

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14
Q

Is this an example of a VOC or VIC?

A

VOC

Vaporizer Out of Circuit. These are precision vaporizers.

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14
Q

What is the SVP for Desflurane at 20oC?

A

660 mmHg

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14
Q

T/F: Manual palpation of pulse provides an objective measure of adequacy of cardiac output and tissue perfusion

A

False

Manual palpation of pulse provides a _sub_jective measure of adequacy of cardiac output and tissue perfusion

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16
Q

How many liters of oxygen can fit in an E Cylinder?

A

660 L

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17
Q

What is the reversal agent for dexmedetomidine?

A

Atipamezole

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18
Q

What is the SVP for Sevoflurane at 20oC?

A

160 mmHg

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18
Q

In an anesthesia machine, what flow meter is always last in the series?

A

Oxygen Flow Meter

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21
Q

At what pressure should E and H Cylinders be changed?

A

500 psi

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22
Q

T/F: Pin Index Safety System is used for E cylinders only

A

True!

The purpose of the PISS is to avoid improper cylinder connection (i.e. oxygen mismatch)

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24
Q

T/F: If no compensating mechanism is present, altitude can have an effect on output concentration of the anesthetic vaporizer

A

True

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24
Q

T/F: There is an inverse relationship between temperature and saturated vapor pressure (SVP)

A

False

There is a direct relationship between temperature and saturated vapor pressure (SVP). As temperature increases, SVP increases.

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26
Q

As temperature increases, saturated vapor pressure (SVP) __________

A

increases

27
Q

At what stage of anesthesia are vomiting and swallowing reflexes lost?

A

Stage III (Surgical Anesthesia)

28
Q

T/F: Dogs will often experience laryngospasm during intubation

A

False

Cats will often experience laryngospasm during intubation.

29
Q

T/F: Rebreathing (circle) systems increase resistance for smaller patients

A

True

For this reason, we try to avoid using these rebreathing systems for small patients (guinea pigs, small cats, rats, etc.)

30
Q

T/F: You should always use non-rebreathing systems for patients under 3 kg

A

True

31
Q

Does this vaporizer have back-pressure compensation?

A

No.

This is a non-precision vaporizer. Only precision vaporizers have back-pressure compensation

31
Q

T/F: alpha-2 agonists cause vasoconstriction & increased BP, followed by a reflex bradycardia

A

True

32
Q

Name the agent that is used for reversal of benzodiazepines:

A

Flumazenil

33
Q

Gas passing through the oxygen flowmeter is reduced from 50 psi to about ____ psi

A

15 psi

35
Q

T/F: When inflating the cuff, there should be no escape of gas from around the endotracheal tube when the APL valve is closed and the rebreathing bag is squeezed to 30 cmH2O

A

FALSE

  • When inflating the cuff, there should be no escape of gas from around the endotracheal tube when the APL valve is closed and the rebreathing bag is squeezed to 20 cmH2O*
  • When squeezed to 30 cmH2O, air should be able to escape around the tube. if not, air should be removed from the pilot balloon to prevent over-inflation*
36
Q

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) for Acepromazine?

A

Dopamine (D1 and D2) receptor antagonist

38
Q

How many liters of oxygen can fit in an H Cylinder?

A

6600 L

39
Q

What stage of anesthesia is considered anesthetic overdose?

A

Stage IV

41
Q

T/F: Anal sphincter tone is a good indicator of anesthetic depth

A

True

Tight in Stage II; relaxes thereafter

43
Q

If the patient is holding their breath out of excitement, which stage of anesthesia is the patient likely in?

A

Stage I

44
Q

T/F: Charcoal absorption systems are useful because they absorb halogenated anesthetic gases, N2O, and CO2

A

False

Charcoal absorption systems absorb halogenated gases (iso, sevo, des), but do NOT absorb N2O or CO2

45
Q

T/F: Butorphanol is a partial mu agonist and an antagonist at kappa receptors

A

False!

Buprenorphine is a partial mu agonist and an antagonist at kappa receptors

Butorphanol is an agonist at kappa receptors and partial mu receptor agonist/antagonist

46
Q

T/F: Precision vaporizers can be used with rebreathing or non-rebreathing systems

A

True

47
Q

T/F: Doppler provides reliable detection of systolic pressure, but is generally unreliable for diastolic pressure

A

True

48
Q

T/F: Nitrous oxide can produce general anesthesia on its own

A

False

49
Q

What is the SVP for Isoflurane at 20oC?

A

240 mmHg

50
Q

The check valve prevents transfilling of one tank to another. If this valve breaks, what would happen to the temperature as a result of rapid transfilling?

A

Temperature would increase

**risk of FIRE**

51
Q

Would these hoses be used for re-breathing or non-rebreathing systems?

A

rebreathing

52
Q

Name the agent that is used to reverse pure mu and mixed agonist/antagonists because of its high affinity for mu and kappa receptors

A

Naloxone

53
Q

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of barbiturates?

A

↓ GABA dissociation from GABAA receptor

Direct activation of GABAA receptor Cl- channel

54
Q

T/F: Propofol is a rapid-acting, long duration induction agent

A

False

Propfol is rapid-acting, ultra-short duration (<20 mins)

55
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Propofol?

A

Enhances inhibitory effects of GABA at GABAA receptors

56
Q

Induction and maintenance of general anesthesia with intravenous drugs is termed:

A

Total Intravenous Anesthesia (TIVA)

57
Q

Simultaneous use of injectables and inhalant for general anesthesia is termed:

A

Partial Intravenous Anesthesia (PIVA)

58
Q

Plasma concentration (Cp) of IV anesthestic drugs is at 90% of Cp steady state after ____ half-lives

A

3.3

Plasma concentration (Cp) of IV anesthestic drugs is at 90% of Cp steady state after 3.3 half-lives

59
Q

Clearance = dose/AUC

This is not a question, but remember it anyway.

A

Yeah.

60
Q

What is the consequence of leaving the APL closed for a long period of time?

A

Build of pressure leading to barotrauma

61
Q

Induction Agents associated with which mechanism of action result in dose-related respiratory depression and apnea?

A

Enhances GABA on GABAA receptor

62
Q

The MAC of Tingflurane is 5.4%. The MAC of Stagflurane is 3.6%. Which is more potent?

A

Stagflurane

The lower the MAC, the more potent the agent

63
Q

The blood gas solubility for Tingflurane is 0.4. The blood gas solubility for Stagflurane is 1.5. Which would have a faster onset of induction?

A

Tingflurane

The lower the blood solubility, the faster the onset of induction

64
Q

What is the boiling point for Desflurane?

A

74oF

65
Q

Between halothane and sevoflurane, which has a higher vapor pressure?

A

Halothane

Desflurane > Halothane > Isoflurane > Sevoflurane

66
Q

Between halothane and sevoflurane, which has a higher blood gas solubility?

A

Halothane

Blood gas solubility: Halothane > Isoflurane > Sevoflurane > Desflurane

Halothane has the highest blood gas solubility and therefore is the most POTENT

Desflurane has the lowest blood gas solubility, which means it has the fastest onset and the fastest recovery

67
Q

T/F: The higher the MAC, the higher the potency

A

False!

  • The higher the MAC, the LOWER the potency*
  • Potency ranking: Halothane > Isoflurane > Sevoflurane > Desflurane*
68
Q

What is the basic MAC value for Isoflurane?

A

1.3%

69
Q

What is the basic MAC value for Sevoflurane?

A

2.3%

70
Q

What is the basic MAC value for Halothane?

A

0.87%

RUSVM Anesthesiology (4 decks)

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