Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPAN > Anesthesia > Flashcards

Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

Which anesthetic is not affected by renal disease?

A

Rocuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What kinds of effects does roc/vec have on the CV system?

A

Nothing significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If anything, what can prolong the action of roc/vec?

A

Liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drug can cause bronchospasm?

A

Atracurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain why Neostigmine and Glycopyrrolate should be given together

A

If glyco is not given, Neo can cause bradycardia, bronchospasm, secretions, intestinal spasms and pupil constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

About how long does it take for Neostigmine and glycopyrrolate to reverse the NM blockade?

A

~4-10 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What part(s) of the body do the supraclavicular and infraclavicular blocks block?

A

Arm/Elbow/Hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What do you have to think about when a patient gets a block in the upper half of the body?

A

Pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which artery do you have to be cautious of with the Supracalvicular and infraclavicular nerve blocks?

A

Subclavian A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which nerve may be spared when blocking the supraclaviular and/or infraclaviular nerves?

A

Ulnar N.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which nerve can possibly cause ipsilateral phrenic nerve paralysis?

A

Supraclavicular N. Block ~50%
Interscalene N. block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which area does the PECs blockade block?

A

Intercostal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which artery is in proximity to the PECs nerve block?

A

Thoracoacromial a.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of surgery uses an interscalene block?

A

ONLY shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are some side effects of an interscalene nerve block?

A

recurrent laryngeal paralysis (aka hoarseness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are signs of Horner syndrome?

A

drooping eyelid, blurred vision, decreased pupil size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are reasons to not give a nerve block?

A

local infection, serious coagulopathy, allergy or refusal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does giving nitrous oxide put you at high risk for?

A

PONV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some reason to not give nitrous oxide?

A

air embolism, pneumo, bowel obstruction, intra-ocular bubbles, tympanic grafting (anything where added air would make the situation worse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which inhaled anesthetic is not likely to cause a bronchospasm?

A

Sevoflurane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why shouldnt desflurane be given as an induction anesthetic?

A

Due to strong odor it could cause bronchospasm and coughing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are some reasons to not give sevoflurane or desflurane?

A

severe hypovolemia, susceptibility to MH, intracranial HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is versed metabolized?

A

Metabolized in liver, excreted in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are possible side effects of Versed?

A

Can worsen psychosis, agitation and dementia in elderly

25
Q

What is a down fall from using Versed?

A

No analgesic properties

26
Q

What is a benefit of using Nitrous oxide?

A

Has analgesic properties

27
Q

When is the best time to use Ketamine?

A

In hypvolemia, shock and trauma
asthmatics - bronchodilator

28
Q

What are some side effects of Ketamine and possible solutions?

A

Hallucinations, give with benzos to help
Salivation, give glyco

29
Q

Which patients should be monitored carefully when given Ketamine?

A

CAD, uncontrolled HTN, CHF

30
Q

What is a benefit of propofol?

A

Can be used in ESRD and heptatic failure

31
Q

What are some “issues” of propofol?

A

Burning sensation upon insertion, no analgesic effect

32
Q

What can prolong the action of succinylcholine? What actions might need to be taken?

A

hypothermia and pseudocholinesterase. If pt has the deficiency, might need to be put on mechanical ventilation and sedated until the medicine wears off.

33
Q

What is a MAJOR side effect of succinylcholine?

A

HYPERKALEMIA, MH, laryngospasm, myalgias, masseter rigidity

34
Q

What meds should not be given with succynincholine?

A

neostigmine, MAOIs, esmolol, reglan

35
Q

Which population shouldn’t be given succinylcholine

A

Pediatrics UNLESS for emergent intubation d/t possiblity of undiagnosed cardiac issues and high probability of laryngospasm

36
Q

What type of surgeries use an adductor canal block?

A

Knee and leg

37
Q

Which part of the leg does the adductor block not cover?

A

posterior or sometimes lateral knee

38
Q

Which artery is close to the adductor canal block?

A

Femoral Artery

39
Q

Which nerve(s) is/are blocked by the adductor canal block?

A

saphenous n.

40
Q

What type of surgery uses a popliteal sciatic nerve block?

A

Foot and ankle

41
Q

What is a benefit of using a popliteal sciatic nerve block?

A

Spares the hamstrings making it easier to walk

42
Q

Which vessels do you have to be cautious of around a popliteal sciatic nerve block?

A

popliteal vessels

43
Q

Which med/mixture and dosage is used for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene in Sterile water, 2.5mg/kg IV

44
Q

What are other treatments to help with malignant hyperthermia?

A

charcoal filters, 100% O2, cooling measures (cold towels) until core is 100.4
Call hot-line

45
Q

Which medications trigger malignant hyperthermia?

A

inhaled agents (sevoflurane, desflurane, isoflurane), succinylcholine, halothane

46
Q

What are some early signs of maligant hyperthermia?

A

Unanticipated doubling/tripling end tidal CO2, unexpected tachycardia, tachynpea, and JAW RIGIDITY

47
Q

What are some major things to monitor for with a patient that has malignant hyperthermia?

A

DIC, metabolic acidosis

48
Q

What are signs for DIC?

A

extreme bleeding,
Hypothermia, acidosis, coagulopathy

49
Q

What causes L.A.S.T.

A

large doses of local anesthetic from local cases or nerve blocks

50
Q

What are early signs of LAST

A

dizzy, lightheaded, metallic taste, slurred speech,

51
Q

What are late signs of LAST?

A

hypotension, bradycardia, Vtach

52
Q

How is LAST treated?

A

Lipids, O2, benzos, barbiturates

53
Q

What causes a postdural puncture HA?

A

Lumbar puncture, more commonly after an epidural

54
Q

What is the reversal of inhaled anesthetics?

A

The action of inhaled anesthetics is so quick, it just needs to be turned off

55
Q

What affect does Versed have on anesthesia?

A

Prolongs sedation

56
Q

Which patients should not receive succinylcholine?

A

pts w/ extensive burns, severe trauma, severe abd infections, NM disease, paraplegia/quad

57
Q

With what type of patient should you be careful when giving neostigmine?

A

Cardiac, can cause dysrhythmias

58
Q
A

CPAN (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions