Anemias- Lecture Flashcards

1
Q
A

Purple blotches in the background that look like dirt are platelets

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2
Q

What does hematocrit (Hct) represent?

A

Hematocrit (Hct) is the percentage of blood composed of RBCs

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3
Q

MCH vs MCHC

A

Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH) is the average weight of hemoglobin per RBC

Mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is the average concentration of hemoglobin per RBC

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4
Q

Relative erythrocytosis occurs due to _
Absolute erythrocytosis occurs due to _

A

Relative erythrocytosis occurs due to decreased plasma volume
Absolute erythrocytosis occurs due to increased RBC mass

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5
Q

(True/ False) Anemia is a decrease in red blood cell mass

A

True; this comes with decreased oxygen and carbon dioxide transport

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6
Q

(True/ False) All anemias will have decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, and RBC count

A

True; All anemias will have decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, and RBC count

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7
Q

Normal sized RBCs are _
Large RBCs are _
Small RBCs are _

A

Normal sized RBCs are normocytic
Large RBCs are macrocytic
Small RBCs are microcytic

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8
Q

Anisocytosis

A

Anisocytosis means the RBCs vary in size

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9
Q

If RBCs vary in shape we call this _

A

If RBCs vary in shape we call this poikilocytosis

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10
Q

“Normochromic, hypochromic, and hyperchromic” reflect the amount of _ and is measured with _ or _

A

“Normochromic, hypochromic, and hyperchromic” reflects the amount of hemoglobin and is measured with MCH or MCHC

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11
Q

Classify as normocytic, microcytic, or macrocytic

A

Normocytic: normal RBCs are the size of a lymphocyte nucleus

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12
Q

When might you see the following?

A

Acanthocyte (spur cell): seen with liver disease

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13
Q

When might you see the following?

A

Bite cell: seen in G6PD deficiency

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14
Q

When might you see the following?

A

Target cell (aka codocyte): thalassemia

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15
Q

When might you see the following?

A

Echinocyte (burr cell): kidney disease

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16
Q

When might you see the following?

A

Schistocyte: microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

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17
Q

When might you see the following?

A

Sickle cell: sickle cell anemia

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18
Q

When might you see the following?

A

Spherocyte: either warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia or hereditary spherocytosis

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19
Q

_ are younger RBCs that have not yet ejected all of their genetic material

A

Reticulocytes are younger RBCs that have not yet ejected all of their genetic material
* They are visualized using a supravital stain

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20
Q

Supravital stain (for reticulocyte count) will highlight _

A

Supravital stain (for reticulocyte count) will highlight rRNA
* Uses crystal violet and brilliant cresyl blue

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21
Q

How can the reticulocyte count be interpreted?

A

Increased reticulocyte: bone marrow is responding to the anemia

Normal or decreased reticulocyte: bone marrow is not responding to anemia (hypoproliferative anemia)

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22
Q

What are the general symptoms of anemia?

A
  • Dyspnea (short of breath)
  • Fatigue
  • Dizziness
  • Tachycardia
  • Conjunctival pallor
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23
Q

Jaundice is a sx that is exclusive to _ anemias

A

Jaundice is a sx that is exclusive to hemolytic anemias

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24
Q

Megaloblastic anemia falls into the (decreased production/ increased destruction) category

A

Megaloblastic anemia falls into the decreased production category

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25
Q

Sideroblastic anemia falls into the (decreased production/ increased destruction) category

A

Sideroblastic anemia falls into the decreased production category

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26
Q

Name the 3 microcytic anemias

A
  1. Iron-deficiency anemia
  2. Thalassemia
  3. Sideroblastic anemia
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27
Q

Name the two macrocytic anemias

A
  1. Megaloblastic anemia
  2. Nonmegaloblastic anemia (alcohol related)
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28
Q

Megaloblastic anemias result from decreased RBC production due to the missing _ which is caused by a deficiency in _ or _

A

Megaloblastic anemias result from decreased RBC production due to the missing building blocks of DNA synthesis which is caused by a deficiency in folate (B9) or vitamin B12

methionine is an important component of DNA!
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29
Q

Megaloblastic anemia can be caused by medications like _ , _ , _

A

Megaloblastic anemia can be caused by medications like chemo , anti-retroviral drugs , hydroxyurea

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30
Q

Cells in our bone marrow rapidly turn over –> this means they require a lot of _ and _ to constantly synthesize DNA

A

Cells in our bone marrow rapidly turn over –> this means they require a lot of folate and B12 to constantly synthesize DNA
* A deficiency in these will decrease cell division

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31
Q

Megaloblastoid changes occur in the bone marrow including cytoplasmic assynchrony, which means _

A

Megaloblastoid changes occur in the bone marrow including cytoplasmic assynchrony, which means cytoplasm continues to grow while the nucleus is stunted –> ineffective erythropoiesis

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32
Q

To get from homocysteine –> methionine we need THF to _ and we need the presence of _

A

To get from homocysteine –> methionine –> DNA we need THF to donate a methyl group and we need the presence of B12 and folate

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33
Q

Methylmalonyl CoA –> Succinyl CoA –> myelin requires only _

A

Methylmalonyl CoA –> Succinyl CoA –> myelin requires only B12
* Therefore only B12 deficiency is associated with neuro deficits

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34
Q

B12 deficiency will result in an accumulation of _

A

B12 deficiency will result in an accumulation of homocysteine and methylmalonic acid

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35
Q

Folate deficiency will result in an accumulation of _

A

Folate deficiency will result in an accumulation of homocysteine only

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36
Q

Vitamin B12 gets absorbed in the _

A

Vitamin B12 gets absorbed in the ileum (last part of the small intestine)
* Needs to be bound to intrinsic factor (IF)

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37
Q

_ occurs when there is a lack of intrinsic factor which inhibits the absorption of B12 in the small intestine and leads to megaloblastic anemia

A

Pernicious anemia occurs when there is a lack of intrinsic factor which inhibits the absorption of B12 in the small intestine and leads to megaloblastic anemia
* Begins with auto-antibodies destroying gastric parietal cells

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38
Q

Three causes of vitamin B12 AND folate deficiency

A
  1. Intestinal malabsorption (example crohn’s disease affects the terminal ileum and celiacs affects the duodenum)
  2. Alcohol (general lack of nutrients)
  3. Diet (poor diet)
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39
Q

What is non-megaloblastic anemia?

A

Non-megaloblastic anemia is a macrocytic anemia without B12 or folate deficiency
* Causes: liver disease, medications, hypothyroidism, copper deficiency

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40
Q

Vitamin B12 in our diet comes from sources like _

A

Vitamin B12 in our diet comes from sources like animal liver, meat, fish, cheese, dairy, eggs

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41
Q

Folate in our diet comes from _

A

Folate in our diet comes from dark leafy green vegetables

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42
Q

How long does it take to deplete our stores of vitamin B12 vs. folate?

A

Vitamin B12: stored in the liver; takes months-years to deplete
* Strict vegans can eventually become deficient

Folate: takes months to deplete

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43
Q

Name 5 causes specific to B12 deficiency

A
  1. Pernicious anemia
  2. Pancreatic insufficiency
  3. Medications
  4. Diphyllobotrium latum
  5. Surgically absent ileum
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44
Q

How does pancreatic insufficiency lead to B12 deficiencies?

A

Trypsin (enzyme produced in the pancreas) is needed to cleave transcobalamin and release B12

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45
Q

_ is a fish tapeworm that is known to cause vitamin B12 deficiency leading to megaloblastic anemia

A

Diphyllobotrium latum is a fish tapeworm that is known to cause vitamin B12 deficiency leading to megaloblastic anemia

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46
Q

What are 3 causes specific to folate deficiency?

A
  1. Rapid cell turnover states (pregnancy, cancer)
  2. Medications
  3. Gastric bypass surgery (shortened jejunum)
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47
Q

What is the consequence of low folate during pregnancy?

A

Low birth weight infants
Neural tube defects

48
Q

_ and _ are antimetabolite drugs which inhibit the conversion of folate to its active form

A

Trimethoprim (TMP) and Methotrexate are antimetabolite drugs which inhibit the conversion of folate to its active form

49
Q

_ is an anti-epileptic drug that inhibits folate absorption in the duodenum

A

Phenytoin is an anti-epileptic drug that inhibits folate absorption in the duodenum

50
Q

Megaloblastic anemias can be diagnosed by the presence of _ or _ on peripheral blood smear

A

Megaloblastic anemias can be diagnosed by the presence of macrocytic erythrocytes or hypersegmented neutrophils on peripheral blood smear

51
Q

Megaloblastic anemia can be diagnosed on a bone marrow biopsy by the presence of _

A

Megaloblastic anemia can be diagnosed on a bone marrow biopsy by the presence of immature-appearing nuclei with mature cytoplasm

52
Q

B12 deficiencies present with unique sx of _ and _

A

B12 deficiencies present with unique sx of glossitis and neuropsychiatric findings
* Degeneration of spinal cord
* Sensory deficits, ataxia, hyperreflexia
* Peripheral neuropathies
* Dementia, psychosis, personality changes

53
Q

Megaloblastic anemias will present with _ reticulocyte counts

A

Megaloblastic anemias will present with low reticulocyte counts
* Hypoproliferative anemia
* Ineffective hematopoiesis in general (may see leukopenia and thrombocytopenia)

54
Q

Anemia of chronic disease is most often _ cytic but can also be _ cytic

A

Anemia of chronic disease is most often normocytic but can also be microcytic

55
Q

In anemia of chronic disease, _ triggers hepcidin to (increase/decrease) which causes ferroportin to _

A

In anemia of chronic disease, IL-6 triggers hepcidin to increase which causes ferroportin to decrease
* Blocks iron release from enterocytes, macrophages, and hepatocytes
* Decreased iron availability
* Also RBCs have shorter lifespan

56
Q

Anemia of chronic disease:
Iron _
Ferritin _
TIBC _
Transferrin saturation percentage _

A

Anemia of chronic disease:
Iron low
Ferritin normal/high
TIBC low
Transferrin saturation percentage low

57
Q

_ is an inability to form the protoporphyrin ring

A

Sideroblastic anemia is an inability to form the protoporphyrin ring (problem with heme synthesis pathway)

58
Q

Heme synthesis occurs in the _ of the immature erythroid cells in the _

A

Heme synthesis occurs in the mitochondria of the immature erythroid cells in the bone marrow

59
Q

Once the protoporphyrin ring is synthesized, _ transfers iron to the mitochondria of the erythroid precursor to incorporate into the ring

A

Once the protoporphyrin ring is synthesized, macrophages transfers iron to the mitochondria of the erythroid precursor to incorporate into the ring

60
Q

In sideroblastic anemia, what happens when iron is sent to the mitochondria?

A

Iron cannot be incorporated into the ring –> build up of iron in the mitochondria –> leads to ring sideroblast in the bone marrow

61
Q
A

Pappenheimer bodies: iron deposits in the peripheral blood on a prussian blue stain
* Indicative of sideroblastic anemia

62
Q

Explain the relationship with free radicals in sideroblastic anemia

A

When iron stores in the bone marrow are increased this increases the production of free radicals –> increased RBC hemolysis –> further increasing iron –> iron overload

63
Q

The congenital cause of sideroblastic anemia is a _

A

The congenital cause of sideroblastic anemia is an x-linked deficiency in ALA synthase

64
Q

4 acquired causes of sideroblastic anemia

A
  1. Vitamin B6 deficiency (Isoniazid)
  2. Lead poisoning
  3. Copper deficiency
  4. Zinc overdose
65
Q

_ is a unique phenomenon which may be observed on peripheral blood smear for sideroblastic anemia

A

Dimorphism is a unique phenomenon which may be observed on peripheral blood smear for sideroblastic anemia
* Def: two populations of RBCs on smear; one microcytic, one normocytic

66
Q

Sideroblastic anemia:
Iron _
Ferritin _
Transferrin saturation _
TIBC _

A

Sideroblastic anemia:
Iron high
Ferritin high
Transferrin saturation high
TIBC low

67
Q

_ is a type of iron chelation therapy that may be used to treat sideroblastic anemia

A

Deferoxamine is a type of iron chelation therapy that may be used to treat sideroblastic anemia

68
Q

Pancytopenia in a peripheral blood smear is indicative of _ anemia

A

Pancytopenia in a peripheral blood smear is indicative of aplastic anemia
* Leukopenia
* Thrombocytopenia
* Anemia

69
Q

Aplastic anemia occurs from damage to _ stem cell progenitors

A

Aplastic anemia occurs from damage to myeloid hematopoietic stem cell progenitors

70
Q
A

Aplastic anemia

71
Q

5 causes of aplastic anemia

A

“Reducing volume from inside diaphysis”
* Radiation
* Viruses (EBV, hepatitis)
* Fanconi anemia
* Idipathic reasons
* Drugs (chloramphenicol, carbamazepine, azathioprine)

72
Q

_ is a hereditary mutation associated with short stature, cafe au lait spots, thumb/radial defects, and predisposition to aplastic anemia

A

Fanconi anemia is a hereditary mutation associated with short stature, cafe au lait spots, thumb/radial defects, and predisposition to aplastic anemia

73
Q

Fanconi anemia is an autosomal recessive _ defect

A

Fanconi anemia is an autosomal recessive DNA repair defect (cannot repair DNA cross-links)
* Diagnosed with chromosome breakage analysis

74
Q

To treat aplastic anemia we can give a bone marrow stimulating medication _

A

To treat aplastic anemia we can give a bone marrow stimulating medication eltrombopag (EPAG)
* Thrombopoietin receptor agonist –> increases production of myeloid cell lines

75
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of anemia of chronic liver disease

A

Liver cirrhosis impedes blood flow –> splenomegaly –> RBC sequestration in the spleen –> anemia

76
Q

Explain the pathogenesis of anemia of chronic renal disease

A

Cells that make EPO get damaged –> decreased EPO –> decreased bone marrow production of RBCs –> anemia

77
Q

What are some examples of non-hemolytic normocytic anemias?

A
  • Anemia of chronic disease
  • Aplastic anemia
78
Q

Name the hemolytic, normocytic anemias

A
  • Membrane defects: hereditary spherocytosis, paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
  • Enzyme deficiencies: G6PD, pyruvate kinase deficiencies
  • Hemoglobinopathies: sickle cell anemia, HbC disease
  • Extrinsic: autoimmune, microangiopathic, infections
79
Q

Name the common clinical features of hemolytic anemia

A
  • Normocytic
  • Elevated reticulocyte
  • High LDH
  • High unconjugated bilirubin
  • Increased red blood cells in the marrow
  • Decreased serum haptoglobin
80
Q

Hemoglobinopathy

A

Hemoglobinopathy is an inherited disease with a mutation in one of the globin chain genes, alpha or beta
* The most common hemoglobinopathy is sickle cell disease

81
Q

Sickle cell disease is a point mutation in the _ globin and exchanges _ for _ at position _

A

Sickle cell disease is a point mutation in the beta globin and exchanges valine for glutamic acid at position 6(Glu –> Val)
* Valine is hydrophobic –> formation of rods

82
Q

What does it mean to have the “sickle cell trait”

A

Sickle cell trait is one abnormal beta globin gene
* Recall that sickle cell is autosomal recessive and requries two abnormal beta globin genes
* Experience milder symptoms
* Hematuria, renal papillary necrosis, at risk for medullary renal carcinoma

83
Q

Conditions that shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the _ promote sickling; explain

A

Conditions that shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right promote sickling
* Conditions include increased lactic acid, CO2, 2-3BPG, altitude, temperature
* These promote the taut state of Hb which exposes the abnormal hydrophobic valine residues –> causes Hb to polymerize to hide valine

84
Q

What causes sickle cell to be so painful?

A

Sickle cells are not flexible like normal cells and they can polymerize into rods –>

Get trapped in capillaries throughout body and spleen –> vaso-occlusive crises –> pain and ischemia

85
Q

The lifespan of a sickle RBC is _

A

The lifespan of a sickle RBC is 10-30 days
* They lyse easier and get removed by splenic macrophages

86
Q

Identify the Hb alleles on the hemoglobin electrophoresis

A
87
Q

What unique features will be present on PBS for sickle cell?

A

Target cells (nonspecific) and Howell-Jolly bodies (DNA remnants that are usually removed by the spleen)

88
Q

Sickle Cell Anemia:
MCV:
Reticulocyte count:

A

Sickle Cell Anemia:
MCV: normocytic
Reticulocyte count: increased

89
Q

Name some of the complications associated with sickle cell anemia

A
  • Vaso-occlusive crises
  • Avascular necrosis of the hip
  • Acute chest syndrome
  • Stroke
  • Priapism
  • Osteomyelitis (salmonella)
  • Functional asplenia
90
Q

Patients with sickle cell may be treated with a medication called _ to increase the amount of fetal hemoglobin

A

Patients with sickle cell may be treated with a medication called hydroxyurea to increase the amount of fetal hemoglobin

91
Q

_ are disorders in which the body can’t make enough alpha or beta globin chains

A

Thalassemias are disorders in which the body can’t make enough alpha or beta globin chains

92
Q

We have a total of _ alpha globin genes and they are found on chromosome _

A

We have a total of 4 alpha globin genes and they are found on chromosome 16

93
Q

We have a total of _ beta globin genes on chromosome _

A

We have a total of 2 beta globin genes on chromosome 11

94
Q

Thalaseemia:
MCV:
MCHC:
RDW:
RBC count:

A

Thalaseemia:
MCV: microcytic
MCHC: low
RDW: normal, high (severe)
RBC count: low

95
Q

What is the inheritence pattern of Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase deficiency?

A

X-linked recessive

96
Q

Patients with G6PD deficiency cannot produce NADPH to regenerate reduced glutathione –> leads to _ and _

A

Patients with G6PD deficiency cannot produce NADPH to regenerate reduced glutathione –> leads to oxidative stress and lysis

97
Q

Signs of hemolytic crisis in G6PD deficiency

A
  • Hemoglobinuria
  • Jaundice
  • Acute kidney injury
  • Flank pain
98
Q

G6PD deficiency is mainly (intravascular/ extravascular) hemolysis and we often see _ haptoglobin

A

G6PD deficiency is mainly intravascular hemolysis and we often see low haptoglobin

99
Q

Trigges of hemolytic crisis in G6PD deficiency

A
  • Fava beans
  • Medications (sulfa drugs, anti-malarials, hydrogen peroxide, asprin, chloramphenicol)
  • Infection (Parvo B19)
100
Q

What two findings may be seen on G6PD deficiency PBS?

A

Heinz bodies (denatured hemoglobin chains) and Bite cells (spleen takes a bite out of these cells)

101
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis is a genetic defect that leads to abnormal formation of _

A

Hereditary spherocytosis is a genetic defect that leads to abnormal formation of
* Cytoskeletal proteins: ankyrin, spectrin
* Anchoring protein (holds cytoskeleton to RBC membrane): band 3, band 4.1, band 4.2

102
Q

Triad of symptoms for hereditary spherocytosis

A
  1. Jaundice
  2. Anemia
  3. Splenomegaly
103
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis:
MCV:
RDW:
MCHC:
Other:

A

Hereditary spherocytosis:
MCV: normocytic
RDW: high
MCHC: high
Other: elevated bilirubin, LDH, positive osmotic fragility test

104
Q

How do we diagnose hereditary spherocytosis using eosin-5-maleimide binding test

A

eosin-5-maleimide binding test binds cytoskeleton proteins
* We would see decreased fluorescence on flow cytometry because they don’t have as many normal cytoskeletal proteins

105
Q

_ is a condition in which the body attacks itself with anti-RBC antibodies, marking them for destruction, leading to decreased RBC mass

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is a condition in which the body attacks itself with anti-RBC antibodies, marking them for destruction, leading to decreased RBC mass

106
Q

In warm AIHA, antibodies activate in _ regions of the body

A

In warm AIHA, antibodies activate in central regions of the body

107
Q

In AIHA, the body makes _ antibodies that recognize self-RBC antigens –> splenic macrophages recognize the _ portion of the antibodies and bite the RBCs repeatedly –> _ cells

A

In warm AIHA, the body makes IgG antibodies that recognize self-RBC antigens –> splenic macrophages recognize the Fc portion of the antibodies and bite the RBCs repeatedly –> spherocytes

108
Q

Warm AIHA is an example of (intravascular/ extravascular) hemolysis

A

Warm AIHA is an example of extravascular hemolysis –> the antibody coated RBC gets removed by the spleen

109
Q

When might we see spherocytes?

A
  • Hereditary spherocytosis
  • AIHA
  • G6PD deficiency
110
Q

Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia is usually caused by antibody formation secondary to _

A
  • Acute infection
  • Lymphoproliferative disorders
  • Lupus
  • Solid tumors
  • Chronic inflammatory disease
  • Medication
  • Idiopathic
111
Q

Cold AIHA antibodies activate in _ regions of the body

A

Cold AIHA antibodies activate in peripheral regions of the body, like the finger tips
* Patients experience cyanosis and pain in the extremities

112
Q

In cold AIHA, the body makes _ antibodies

A

In cold AIHA, the body makes IgM antibodies
* Causes agglutination of RBCs

113
Q

Cold AIHA is an example of (intravascular/ extravascular) hemolysis

A

Cold AIHA is an example of both intravascular and extravascular hemolysis
* Intravascular –> IgM activates complement to destroy RBCs
* Extravascular –> the spleenic macrophages remove RBCs

114
Q

Cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is usually caused by antibody formation secondary to _

A
  • Idiopathic
  • Mycoplasma infection
  • Mono infection
  • Lymphoproliferative disorders
115
Q

AIHA lab values:
MCV:
Reticulocyte count:
Haptoglobin:
Bilirubin:
Other:

A

AIHA lab values:
MCV: normocytic
Reticulocyte count: high
Haptoglobin: low (cold AHA)
Bilirubin: high
Other: positive direct coombs test (DAT)

116
Q

_ is a condition in which RBCs are torn apart within tiny vessels creating RBC fragments (schistocytes) on PBS

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is a condition in which RBCs are torn apart within tiny vessels creating RBC fragments (schistocytes) on PBS
* Usually caused by draping of fibrin strands across the vessel lumen

117
Q

Causes of microangiopathic hemolytic anemia:

A
  • DIC
  • TTP
  • HUS
  • HELLP
  • Hypertensive emergency
  • Prosthetic heart valve