Anemia (pt 3/3) Other drugs, Fibrinolysis Flashcards

1
Q

What is Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)?

A

Direct Acting Factor 10 (activated) inhibitor: Common Pathway.
-Inc Bioavailability
-1/2 life 5-9 hrs
-Substrate for CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein transporter*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is Apixaban (Eliquis)?

A

Direct Acting Factor 10 (activated) inhibitor: Common Pathway.
-50% Bioavailable
-1/2 life 12 hrs
-Substrate for CYP3A4 and P-glycoprotein transporter*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Edoxaban (Savaysa)?

A

Direct Acting Factor 10 (activated) inhibitor: Common Pathway.
-Once daily dosing
-62% bioavailable
-1/2 life 10-14 hrs
-No CYP issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is Betrixaban (Bevyxxxa)?

A

Direct Acting Factor 10 (activated) inhibitor: Common Pathway.
-Once daily
-34% bioavailable
-1/2 life 19-27 hrs
-Dec dose in renal fx and P-glycoprotein transporter inhibitors
-Excreted primarily by Liver (caution in Liver Dz).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is important to know with Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and Apixaban (Eliquis)?

A

Drugs inhibiting CPY3A4 and P-glycoprotein transporters, impaired renal or hepatic function increase their effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the uses for Rivaroxaban (Xarelto) and Apixaban (Eliquis)?

A

-Prevention of Embolic stroke in Afib without valvular disease
-Prevention of Venous embolism after hip or knee sx
-Treatment of Venous embolism = VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the uses for Edoxaban (Savaysa)?

A

Treatment of VTE after Heparin or LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When is Edoxaban (Savaysa) contraindicated?

A

Edoxaban is C/I in pts with Afib and CC > 95mL/min due to ↑ risk of ischemic stroke compared to those pts taking Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is important to know regarding administration of Betrixaban (Bevyxxa)?

A

Take at the same time each day
Take with food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the reversal for the Oral Direct Acting Xa Inhibitors?
Rivaroxavan (Xarelto)
Apixaban (Eliquis)
Edoxaban (Savaysa)
Betrixaban (Bevyxxa)

A

1) Andexanet alfa – FDA approved 2018 for life threatening bleeding in pts taking Rivaroxaban & Apixaban
-Factor Xa decoy molecule that lacks anticoagulant activity that completes for binding to the anti-Xa drugs
-IV dosing = rapid reversal of anti-Xa effects

Reversal dose determined by:
-Last dose of Anti-Xa
-Dose taking

Risk of thrombotic complications, cardiac arrest and sudden death

2) 4F PCC (Prothrombin Complex Concentrate) may be considered as an alternate approach to life threatening bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do Direct Thrombin Inhibitors work?

A

-Directly bind to the active site of Thrombin thereby inhibiting Thrombin’s downstream effects
-Oral and parenteral agents
-Work predominantly in Common Pathway (Factor 2)
-Inhibits plt activation as well (remember: Thrombin is needed to activate platelets)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the Parenteral Direct Acting Thrombin Inhibitors?

A

-Bivalirudin
-Argatroban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is Bivalirudin?

A

-Large bivalent molecule that binds to the active site of thrombin and the substrate recognition site
-IV agent with rapid on/offset
-Short half-life
-Clearance 20% renal and otherwise metabolic
-Also inhibits platelet activation
-FDA approved for use in percutaneous coronary angioplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Argatroban?

A

-Small molecule that binds to the active site of thrombin
-IV continuous infusion
-Short half-life
-Clearance is liver dependent
-FDA approved for HIT and coronary angioplasty in pts with HIT
-↑INR = difficult transition to Warfarin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What lab test do you use to monitor Argatroban? (Blue Box!)

A

aPTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Hirudin?

A

An irreversible thrombin inhibitor from leech saliva that was available in a recombinant form as Lepirudin.
-Lepuridin was approved by the FDA for use in patients with thrombosis related to HIT
-It was discontinued by the manufacturer in 2012

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are Direct Oral Anti-Coagulants better than Warfarin?

A

-Equivalent antithrombotic efficacy
-Lower bleeding rates
-Rapid therapeutic effect
-No monitoring
-Fewer drug interactions
-Shorter half-life (impact of non-compliance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Dabigatran? (Dabigatran Etexilate Mesylate aka Pradaxa)

A

-The only FDA approved oral direct thrombin inhibitor
-A prodrug(!) converted to Dabigatran in the body
Dabigatran and its metabolites are direct thrombin inhibitors
-↑PTT, Thrombin time, and Ecarin Clotting Time
Ecarin Clotting Time (ECT)
-Predictable response, no monitoring needed
-Toxicity: - bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is Ecarin Clotting Time (ECT)?

A

Clotting test based on the use of a protein isolated from viper venom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is Dabigatran Metabolized and excreted?

A

-Substrate for the P-glycoprotein transporter
-Avoid P-glycoprotein inhibitors in patients with impaired renal function.
-Renal impairment results in prolonged drug clearance
-Dec dose if creatinine clearance is 15-30 mL/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the reversal for Dabigatran?

A

Idarucizumab: humanized monoclonal antibody Fab fragment (binding site) that binds to Dabigatran and reverses the anti-coagulant effect
-Approved for life threatening bleeding or situations requiring emergency surgery
-5gm IV, can be repeated once if bleeding recurs
-Exposes pt to the underlying thrombotic disease that they were being treated for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How are Fibrin clots broken down?

A

-Plasminogen (inactive) is converted to Plasmin (active)
-Plasmin breaks down fibrin into Fibrin Split Products (aka Fibrin Degradation Products). Lab = D-Dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is Plasminogen?

A

-The inactive form of plasmin
-Enzyme synthesized in the liver
-Circulates in the blood
-Incorporated into the clot as it is developed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What activates Plasminogen to Plasmin?

A

tissue-type plasminogen activator and urokinase-type plasminogen activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How do fibrinolytics break down clots?

A

Fibrinolytics (activators of Plasminogen) rapidly lyse thrombi by catalyzing the formation of plasmin from plasminogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What do exogenous Fibrinolytics do?

A

Create a generalized lytic state when administered IV.
-Cause the destruction of both protective hemostatic thrombi as well as the target thromboemboli
-Streptokinase – a protein synthesized by streptococci that combines with plasminogen
-Urokinase – human enzyme synthesized in the kidney that directly converts plasminogen to plasmin
-t-PA – preferentially activate plasminogen that is bound to fibrin which should confine the fibrinolysis to the formed thrombus and avoid systemic activation (Altepase – recombinant human t-PA, or Reteplase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the steps of Fibrinolysis?

A

1) Inactive Plasminogen is converted to Plasmin by TPA
-TPA is released by endothelial cells in response to injury
2) Plasmin digests Fibrin

28
Q

What is Plasmin?

A

An active fibrinolytic enzyme that degrades Fibrin to Fibrin Split Products
-Activated by Tissue Plasminogen Activator (TPA)
-Plasmin remodels a clot and limits its growth

29
Q

What does Aminocaproic Acid do?

A

Inhibits the activation of plasminogen to plasmin and is useful in some bleeding disorders.

30
Q

What are the indications for IV administration of Fibrinolytics?

A

-PE with hemodynamic instability
-DVT with superior vena caval syndrome
-Ascending thrombophlebitis of the iliofemoral vein
-Management of the acute MI
-Ischemic stroke within 3 hrs of onset of symptoms

31
Q

What would be the indication for intra-arterial administration of fibrinolytics?

A

Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD)

32
Q

What do the IV Fibrinolytics do?

A

Create a lytic state.
-Disrupts static thrombi (protective) and target thromboemboli.
-Break down any clot in your system

33
Q

What are the 3 examples of IV Fibrinolytics?

A

1) Streptokinase: synthesized from streptococci
2) Urokinase: Synthesized in kidney, directly converts plasminogen to plasmin
3) TPA: supposedly the best, preferentially activates plasminogen already in the fibrin clot. Only breaks down target thromboemboli - Alteplase/Reteplase

34
Q

What are the 3 categories of substances that regulate platelet function?

A

1) Agents generated outside of the platelet that interact with the platelet membrane receptors
-Catecholamines, collagen, thrombin, prostacyclin
2) Agents generated within the platelet that interact with the membrane receptors
-ADP, prostaglandin D2, prostaglandin E2, serotonin
3) Agents generated within the platelet that work within the platelet
-Prostaglandin endoperoxides and thromboxane A2, cAMP & cGMP, calcium

35
Q

What are the new recommendations for ASA?

A

-2014 – FDA said that ASA for primary prophylaxis (pts without a history of MI or stroke) was not supported by available data but significantly ↑ the risk of bleeding

-2019 – American College of Cardiology and the AHA recommended low-dose ASA (75-100 mg/d) be considered for the primary prevention in adults 40-70 years old with high risk of atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease and no increased bleeding risk

36
Q

What are the 3 targets for platelet inhibitory drugs?

A

1) Inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis (ASA)
2) Inhibition of ADP-induced platelet aggregation
3) Blockade of Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors on platelets (where fibrinogen attaches)

37
Q

What are the 3 Thienopyridines?

A

1) Ticlopidine
2) Clopidogrel
3) Prasurgrel

38
Q

What is Ticlopidine used for?

A

1) Prevention of stroke in pts with history of TIA or thrombic state
2) With ASA for coronary stent thrombosis

39
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with Ticlopidine?

A

-Nausea, dyspnea, diarrhea
-Hemorrhage, leukopenia
-Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
-*Recommended for pts who are intolerant or failed ASA tx.

40
Q

What is the MOA of the Thienopyridines (Ticlopidine, Clopidogrel, and Prasurgrel)?

A

-Reduce platelet aggregation by inhibiting the ADP pathway of platelets (remember: ADP is needed for plt aggregation to take cap off of GP receptor so that fibrinogen can attach to it)
-Irreversibly block the ADP P2Y12 receptor
-No effect on prostaglandin metabolism
-Standard practice in patients undergoing coronary stent placement

41
Q

What are the uses for Clopidogrel?

A

-Unstable angina or non-STEMI in combo with -ASA
-STEMI
-Recent MI, stroke or PAD

*Preferred over Ticlopidine
*80% inhibition within 5 hrs of loading dose
*Prodrug requiring CYP2C19 (use caution with drugs that impair CYP, such as Omeprazole)

42
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with Clopidogrel?

A

Fewer adv effects
Rarely causes neutropenia
TTP

43
Q

What are the uses for Prasurgrel?

A

-Unstable angina or non-STEMI in combo with -ASA
-STEMI
-Recent MI, stroke or PAD

44
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with Prasurgrel?

A

-↑bleeding risk as compared to Clopidogrel
-C/I in TIA or stroke 2/2 bleeding risk

45
Q

What do the GP IIb/IIIa Receptor Inhibitors do?

A

The GP IIb/IIIa Receptor is activated during plt aggregation, binding site for fibrinogen, vitro, fibronectin, vWF, etc. Can block this to prevent fibrin connection with platelets.
-Abciximab (Reopro)
-Dipryimadole
-Cilstazol

46
Q

What is Abciximab (Reopro)?

A

A GP IIb/IIIa Receptor Inhibitor.
-First agent in the class
-Used in percutaneous coronary intervention and acute coronary syndromes
-Short half-lives
-Administer via continuous infusion

47
Q

What is Dipyrimadole?

A

An anti-platelet directed drug.
-Vasodilator that inhibits platelet function by inhibiting adenosine update and cGMP phosphodiesterase activity
-Not effect as monotherapy
-Therapeutic use of this agent is primary in combo with ASA to prevent CVA and ischemia
-Used with warfarin for primary prophylaxis of thromboemboli in patients with prosthetic heart valves

48
Q

What is Cilstazol?

A

An anti-platelet directed drug.
-Phosphodiesterase inhibitor that promotes vasodilation and inhibition of platelet aggregation
-Used primarily to treat intermittent claudication

49
Q

What is Vitamin K administered for?

A

-For the treatment or prevention of hypoprothrombinemia due to vitamin K deficiency and oral anticoagulant-induced hypoprothrombinemia (ex. Warfarin)
-Vit K is currently administered to all newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease of Vit K deficiency (Common in premature infants)`

50
Q

What is Vitamin K?

A

-Fat soluble substance
-Found primarily in leafy green vegs
-Dietary requirement is low
-Synthesized in the intestines
-Require bile salts for GI absorption
-High incidence of deficiency in ICUs (Poor diet, TPN, surgery, Multiple ABX Tx, Uremia)
-Dose influenced by route, age, gender, and cause of deficiency or bleeding

51
Q

Which Vitamin K do we administer?

A

Vitamin K1

52
Q

What is Vitamin K1?

A

AKA Phytanadione
-Found in food
-Oral & parenteral forms
-Slow IV
-Rapid infusion = dyspnea, chest pain, back pain, death
-Erratic bioavailability after SQ admin
-Onset delayed for 6 hours
-Complete effect within 24 hours

53
Q

What is Vitamin K2?

A

Menaquinone
-Found in human tissues
-Synthesized by intestinal bacteria

54
Q

What is the BBW associated with Vitamin K?

A

Intramuscular administration, intravenous administration, serious hypersensitivity reactions or anaphylaxis

55
Q

Which disorders account for most of the inheritable coagulation defects?

A

Factor VIII Deficiency (Classic hemophilia/Hemophilia A) and Factor IX Deficiency (Christmas Disease/Hemophilia B)

56
Q

Which is preferred treatment, Concentrated plasma fractions or Recombinant Protein Preparations?

A

Recombinant factors are recommended for treatment whenever possible
-Pooled plasma can be pasteurized to remove Hep B, Hep C and HIV but other transmissible diseases (prions) are not removed with either solvents or detergents.

57
Q

When is FFP used?

A

For factor deficiencies for which no recombinant form of the protein is available

58
Q

What is Cryoprecipitate?

A

-Fibrinogen, Factor 8, vWF, and 13
-Plasma protein fraction obtainable from whole blood
-1 Unit of Cryo = 300mg Fibrinogen
-ABO compatible not identical
-Not treated to decrease the risk of viral exposure
-For infusion – cryo is thawed and dissolved in a small volume of sterile citrate-saline solution and pooled with other units
-Rh- women with potential for child bearing should only receive Rh- cryo b/c of the possibility of contamination with Rh+ RBCs

59
Q

What are the uses for Cryo?

A

-Deficiencies or qualitative abnormalities of Fibrinogen (ex. DIC, Liver Disease)
-VIII deficiency
-vWF disease if Desmopressin Acetate is not indicated or a pathogen-inactivated, recombinant, or plasma-derived product is not available
-Note: the concentration of VIII and vWF in cryo are not as high as those in the concentrated plasma fractions compared to recombinant

60
Q

What is Recombinant Factor VIIa used for?

A

-VIIa initiates activation of the clotting pathway by activating factor IX and factor X in association with III (Tissue Factor)
-Extrinsic pathway

Uses:
-Hemophilia A or B with inhibitors
-Treatment of bleeding associated with invasive procedures in congenital or acquired Hemophilia or Factor VII deficiency

61
Q

What are the off-label uses for Recombinant Factor VII?

A

-Bleeding with trauma
-Surgery
-Intracerebral hemorrhage
-Warfarin toxicity

Note: Concern for thrombotic events

62
Q

What are Fibrinolytic Inhibitors (Aminocaproic Acid and Tranexamic Acid) Used for?

A

-Promotes clotting
-Adjunct for Hemophilia
-Treatment of fibrinolytic therapy
-Prophylaxis for rebleeding from intracranial aneurysms

Also:
-Post surgical GI-bleed
-Postprostatectomy bleeding
-Bladder hemorrhage secondary to radiation and drug induced cystitis

63
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with Fibrinolytic Inhibitors (Aminocaproic Acid and Tranexamic Acid)

A

-Thrombosis from inhibition of plasminogen activator
-Hypotension
-Myopathy
-Abdominal discomfort
-Diarrhea
-Nasal stuffiness

64
Q

What are the C/Is associated with Fibrinolytic Inhibitors (Aminocaproic Acid and Tranexamic Acid)

A

-DIC
-Bleeding of the kidneys/ureters due to the potential for excessive clotting (Can lead to kidney/ureter destruction)

65
Q

What is Aminocaproic Acid (EACA or Amicar)?

A

-Synthetic
-Competitively inhibits Plasminogen activation
-PO admin, rapidly absorbed
-Available IV – infuse over 30 min (Avoid hypotension)
-Renal clearance

66
Q

What is Tranexamic Acid?

A

-Analog of EACA
-PO and IV