Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Y1 FHD > Anatomy workbooks > Flashcards

Anatomy workbooks Flashcards

1
Q

What is the duration of pre-embryonic period?

A

First two weeks of prenatal development is referred to as pre-embryonic period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you define fetal period?

A

The time of prenatal development from week 9-till birth is referred to as fetal period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define zygote

A

A fertilised ovum (oocyte, egg) is referred to as zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define zona pellucida; what is its function?

A

Zona pellucida (means transparent zone) is a specialised extracellular matrix that surrounds the developing oocyte (egg, ovum). It is made up of glycoproteins; provides nutritional and mechanical support; helps in binding of sperm; promotes acrosomal reaction; prevents polyspermy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the outcomes of fertilisation?

A
  • Restores the normal diploid number of chromosomes (46).
  • Secondary oocyte completes meiosis.
  • The sex of the embryo is established
  • Initiation of cell division (cleavage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Define the word ‘Cleavage’ in what is the outcome of ‘cleavage’?

A

Cleavage is the rapid mitotic division of cells in a zygote.
Zygote undergoes rapid cell divisions (cleavage) with no overall growth, producing a cluster of cells.
Different cells derived as a result of cleavage are called blastomeres resulting in a compact mass/ball of cells called morula.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the significance of ‘embryonic period’?

A

During the embryonic period most of the organ systems are established. This is the period from week 2 to week 8.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the normal sites of implantation of embryo?

A

Normal site for implantation is the upper (fundus), or posterior wall of the uterus (also may establish on side walls)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the outcome of implantation of embryo in fallopian (uterine) tubes?

A

Ectopic / tubal pregnancy, which usually results in rupture of the tube (a medical
emergency)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the names of the three major germ layers in an embryo?

A

Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the structural unit of:

Epithelium_________
Connective tissue___________
Muscle tissue__________
Nervous tissue_________

A

Epithelium_____cell_____
Connective tissue___cells, fibres, matrix_________
Muscle tissue_____muscle cell_______
Nervous tissue____neuron________

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How do you define the term ‘Tissues’’? Name the four basic/main tissues of the human body.

A

Tissue is a group of cells that have similar structure and that function together as a unit.
Epithelium, Connective tissue, Muscle tissue, Nervous tissue-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the key function of each basic tissue type? (4)

A

Epithelium-protective linings, secretion, absorption
Connective tissue-connects/anchors, support, locomotion, repair
Muscle tissue-movement
Nervous tissue-generates, conducts nerve impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

State the embryonic origin of each basic tissue type

A 
Epithelium-outer linings/skin =ectoderm; 
inner linings endoderm
Connective tissue-mesoderm
Muscle tissue-mesoderm
Nervous tissue-ectoderm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Define the word ‘endothelium’

A

‘ENDOTHELIUM’ is the inner epithelial lining of blood vessels (and lymphatic vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the functions of the adipose tissue in the human body?

A

Insulation, protection (creates padding around organs e.g. eyeball)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of ‘cartilage’ in our body?

A

Flexible support to skeleton, framework

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is bone tissue referred to as ‘Modified Connective Tissue’

A

Bone tissue referred to as ‘Modified connective tissue’ because its matrix is modified due to mineralisation i.e. mineralised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which main body system is derived from ‘ectoderm’ germ layer?

A

Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name any two surface modifications of epithelium (epithelial cells)

A

Cilia, microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define the term ‘gland’

A

A gland is a cell or group of cells modified to secrete chemical substances that are either released into its surroundings (exocrine gland) or into blood stream (endocrine gland)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name at least three primary functions of the SKIN.

A

Protection, heat/thermo regulation, sensation (secretion, absorption, vit-D metabolism).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name the two histological layers of skin?

A

Dermis and epidermis (also then sub-cutis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do the two layers of the skin differ?

A

Epidermis, is made of closely packed epithelial cells (stratified squamous epithelium), and
Dermis, made of dense, irregular connective tissue that houses blood vessels, hair follicles, sweat glands, etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is an arrector pili and what is its function?

A

This is tiny muscle that anchors to bases of hair follicles and also anchored to dermal tissue at their other end.
Function: In order to generate heat or when body is cold, or in fear situations-arrector pili muscles contract all at once, causing the hair to “stand up straight” on skin (goose bumps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Embryologically, which germ layer gives rise to skin?

A

Ectoderm (ecto-means outside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function of sebaceous glands and sebum?

A

Sebum is produced by sebaceous glands (holocrine-when whole gland disintegrates). The gland cells last about a week, (from formation to discharge). These sebaceous glands produce a lipid-based substance-SEBUM which is broken down by bacterial enzymes (lipases) in sebaceous duct

The oil on surface of skin is a mixture of sebum, lipids (from the surface skin cells), sweat and environmental particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Can the different types of nerve endings/receptors in the skin be related to various types of sensations (e.g. pain, touch, temperature, pressure)?

A

Yes, skin has nerve endings and sensory receptors (in epidermis and dermis) for various sensations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the key functions of muscle tissue?

A

Muscle tissue/ Muscle functions include maintenance of posture, locomotion, and circulation, digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the three histological varieties of muscles?

A

Three distinct muscle types are: skeletal, cardiac and smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which types of muscles are under involuntary control?

A

Cardiac and smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Why is skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle also referred to as striated muscle’?

A

Striated means stipes: the striped appearance of muscles is due to discrete arrangement of contractile protein; arranged in myofibrils as discrete well-aligned units, this gives appearance of light and dark bands under microscope (hence striated)
Both cardiac and skeletal muscle have striated appearance under the microscope.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How may they then be differentiated? (between cardiac and skeletal muscle)

A

Cardiac muscle can be differentiated from skeletal muscle by the presence of intercalated discs which accelerate APs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the structural and functional unit of a skeletal muscle at histological (microscopic) level called?

A

A sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How are the functional pairs of skeletal muscle named?

A 
Prime movers (agonist) 
Antagonist (muscles acting from opposite side of joints)
[although they do not really oppose each other’s actions rather facilitate each other’s actions)
Synergists/ supporting muscles
OR
Flexors-extensors
Abductors-adductors
Medial rotators-lateral rotators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the role of connective tissue coverings of muscles (Skeletal muscle)?

A

Epimysium, perimysium and endomysium are the connective coverings; their role is to form protective coverings and also enhance the efficacy of muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name three regions where smooth muscle is found.

A

Arteries, uterus, bladder (walls of other internal organs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle referred to as?

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum (sarco-means flesh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What result would be expected from premature closure of epiphysial plates?

A

Short height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where is red marrow found in an adult?

A

In flat bones; sternum, ribs, skull, hip bones,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which portion of the body is examined most frequently in the assessment of skeletal maturation?

A

Hand, wrist radiographs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Are epiphysial centers visible on a radiograph (X-Ray) in the knee at birth?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which parts of the limb bones are cartilaginous (or have cartilage covering) in the adult?

A

Ends of long bones and joint surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Is there a cartilage present in the adult skeleton?

A

Yes, at ends of long bones (joint surfaces), and ends of ribs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is membrane bone?

A

A bone that develops in membranous tissue or within membranous tissue (ribs) (intramembranous ossification is the formation method)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Provide examples of (a) plane, (b) hinge, and (c) ball-and-socket joints.

A

a) wrist
b) elbow, knee
c) shoulder, hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is (a) the origin and (b) the functions of synovial fluid?

A

(a) Synovial membrane of joints

(b) Lubricates joint surfaces, facilitates friction-free movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the total number of bones in the adult human body?

A

206 (more in younger children due to non-fusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the functional difference between ‘osteoblast’ and ‘osteoclast’?

A

Osteoblast is immature bone cell -a bone forming cell

Osteoclast -bone eating / bone remodeling cell (responsible for resorption of bone)

50
Q

In adulthood, bones continue to increase in thickness or diameter throughout life in response to stress from increased muscle activity or to weight.
What is this type of bone growth called?

A

The increase in diameter is called ‘appositional growth’.

51
Q

What is ‘endosteum’ in a bone?

A

Endosteum: it is a vascular connective tissue membrane which lines the medullary (bone marrow) cavity of a long bone

52
Q

Name two terms used for describing bone formation/development

A

Osteogenesis and ossification are used interchangeably to indicate the process of bone formation.

53
Q

Name the key components of the vascular system

A

Heart, arteries, arterioles, veins, venules and capillaries

54
Q

Describe the flow of blood through the chambers of the heart.

A

Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle, and then is pumped to the lungs to receive oxygen. From the lungs, the blood flows to the left atrium, then to the left ventricle. From left ventricle, it is pumped to the systemic circulation.

55
Q

Name the histological layers that form the wall of a large elastic artery.

A

The wall consists of three layers. The inner layer is called tunica intima, the middle layer is called tunica media (with elastic tissue), and the outer most layer is the tunica adventitia.

56
Q

What is anastomosis?

A

The word “anastomosis” is used for connections between various branches of an artery; these form an alternative route (collateral circulation) for blow flow if one branch is blocked.

57
Q

Define an end-artery?

A

An end artery (or terminal artery) is an artery that is the only supply of oxygenated blood to an organ or a tissue. This means that this organ or tissue will not have an alternative route of blood circulation if this end artery gets blocked (as there is no anastomosis of arteries)

58
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

An aneurysm is an abnormal dilatation (bulge) or ballooning of the wall of an artery. This may be due to weakness in arterial wall (either developmental or acquired disease); it may rupture, cause bleeding and result in complications.

An artery is said to have developed an ‘aneurysm’ when it becomes wider in size than the average for that age, sex and body size.

59
Q

What is the functional role of the capillaries?

A

Transport function.
Nutrients and other essential materials pass from capillary blood into fluids surrounding the cells and tissue and waste products are removed.

60
Q

To which chamber of the heart does the venous blood from the lower half of the body returns? What is the name of this venous channel?

A

Right atrium

Inferior vena cava (IVC)

61
Q

What is the name of the venous channel (vein) that brings the venous blood from the head and neck region to the heart?

A

Superior vena cava (SVC)

62
Q

What is the functional role of pulmonary artery?

A

Although an artery as it emerges from right ventricle of the heart yet has deoxygenated blood; Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs for oxygenation.

63
Q

Arteries themselves also need continuous supply of oxygen and nutrients to function efficiently
How is the nutrition and oxygenation to the arterial wall supplied?

A

Tunica adventitia of arteries has small arteries called ‘vasa vasorum’ that supply oxygen to the arteries themselves

64
Q

Name the key components of the lymphatic system.

A

Lymph, L. nodes, lymph vessels, lymphatic channels, lymphatic ducts,

65
Q

What is functional role of the lymphatic system?

A

It is a network of vessels that collects the excess tissue (interstitial) fluid and moves it along and ultimately returns it into the circulatory system.
• It absorbs fats from the digestive tract
• Protects your body against antigens, bacteria, toxins etc. by producing and storing lymphocytes
• Lymph also transports white blood cells (lymphocytes), for infection
• Transports and removes waste products and abnormal cells from the lymph.
Hence also plays a role in Maintenance of fluid balance of the body

66
Q

Define the word ‘lymph’/lymphatic fluid

A
  • Lymph, or lymphatic fluid, is the excess fluid in tissues (that has not not been reabsorbed into the capillaries) plus other substances; substances include proteins, minerals, fats, nutrients, damaged cells, cancer cells and bacteria, viruses.
  • Lymph also transports infection-fighting white blood cells (lymphocytes).
67
Q

What is the functional role of lymph nodes?

A
  • Lymph nodes monitor cleanse the lymph as it filters through them.
  • L nodes filter out the damaged cells and cancer cells.
  • Lymph nodes also produce and store lymphocytes and other immune system cells that fight and destroy bacteria and other harmful substances traveling in lymphatic fluid.
68
Q

Name the major channels of the lymphatic system that ultimately return the lymph into the blood stream.

A

Right lymphatic duct

Left lymphatic duct (thoracic duct)

69
Q

Name the organs or tissues in the body that may not have lymphatic vessels in them? And WHY?

A

Cornea, brain
Brain requires homeostatic environment and cannot accommodate any accumulation of lymph

Cornea is also an avascular and a-lymphatic structure thus keeping it transparent and this also limits antigen reactions occurring in cornea and also making it an immune privileged tissue of our body

70
Q

What are the small masses of lymphatic tissue in the mucous membrane of small intestine named as?

A

Peyer patches

71
Q

What will be the functional consequence of blockage/surgical removal of lymph nodes?

A

Lymphedema can result from a blockage in the lymphatic system or removal of local lymph nodes; and tissue fluid may start accumulating in regions/tissues (edema) distal to those removed nodes

72
Q

Name the parts of the central nervous system (CNS)

A

Brain & spinal cord

73
Q

Name the three principal parts of a neuron:

A

Three principal parts of a neuron: the dendrites, the cell body, and one axon.

74
Q

What is the function of glial cells in the nervous tissue?

A

Glial cells (neuroglial cells), are the supporting cells in nervous tissue. These are non-excitable; bind / support neurons; insulate the neurons.

75
Q

What is the function of the autonomic nervous system?

A

It controls the activity of internal organs and vessels

76
Q

How are the 31 pairs of spinal nerves subdivided?

A

8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1-2 coccygeal

77
Q

What is the basic functional distinction between ventral and dorsal roots of spinal nerves?

A

Ventral roots carry motor fibres

Dorsal roots carry sensory fibres

78
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

A dermatome is the area of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve root

79
Q

In which disease may a dermatome be outlined?

A

Shingles (herpes zoster-chicken pox virus)

80
Q

Why are the cranial nerves called cranial nerves?

A

They are called cranial because they emerge from cranium (cranial cavity/skull)

81
Q

What are the main differences between cranial and spinal nerves?

A

Cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain or the brainstem, whereas spinal nerves emerge from segments of the spinal cord

82
Q

Arrange the following in the order of increasing radio-opacity:
Air, metallic foreign body, soft tissues, bones, fat

A

Air, fat, soft tissue, bones, foreign body

83
Q

In Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) what type of sections of Anatomy are created?

A

Magnetic resonance images results in creation of cross-sectional images.

84
Q

Computerized Axial Tomography (C.A.T. or CT) scan was the first of revolutionary cross-sectional imaging procedures; what is the major challenge/difficulty when a person is being subject to CAT scanning

A

Limitations for the technology include the necessity for the patient to be quite still

85
Q

Certain ultrasound machines are capable of Doppler Ultrasound, a special ultrasound technique; Which structures are evaluated using Doppler Ultrasound?

A

Doppler Ultrasound evaluates blood flow through a blood vessel, including the patient’s major arteries and veins.

86
Q

What is another word for the ultrasound term Anechoic, which means “echo free”?

A

Sonolucent

87
Q

Is air bright or dark on ultrasound?

A

Bright

88
Q

Name two structures of the body that you think are superficial and two structures that are deep.

A

Superficial: Skin, muscles (superficial to bones) Deep: Stomach. Lungs, heart

89
Q

What is ‘The Anatomical Position’?.

Describe three / four features using the most appropriate anatomical terminology.

A

1) Standing upright
2) Face faces to the anteriorly / forwards to the front
3) Palms of hands facing anteriorly / forwards to the front
4) Arms by the side
5) Both feet together
6) Toes pointing forwards to the front

90
Q

Fill in the blanks regarding the anatomical location of the following joints?
a. The shoulder joint is _______________to the elbow joint.

b. The knee joint is ____________to the hip joint.
c. The sternum is _____________to the shoulder joint.
d. The feet are ____________and the head is ______________.

A

a. The shoulder joint is ____Proximal___to the elbow joint.
b. The knee joint is ___Distal___to the hip joint.
c. The sternum is ____Medial___to the shoulder joint.
d. The feet are ___Caudal__and the head is ____ Cranial___.

91
Q

What is unilateral/bilateral/contralateral?

A

Unilateral - one sided

bilateral - both sides of midline

92
Q

Name and Define the two divisions of the skeleton.

____________________means reduction of an angle at a joint.

___________plane divides the body into equal left and right halves.

A

Axial (head, spine, pelvis) Appendicular
_____Flexion_____means reduction of an angle at a joint.

____Sagittal plane____plane divides the body into equal left and right halves.

93
Q

Dorsal body cavities include ____________ cavity and the_________ cavity.

A

Dorsal body cavities include ____Cranial ___ cavity and the__ Spinal ___ cavity.

94
Q 
The word caudal is a directional term that means
A. Towards the head end of the body 
B. Towards the feet
C. Towards the midline of the body 
D. Away from the midline of the body
A

B. Towards the feet

95
Q 
The anatomical plane that divides the body into equal right and left halves is
called the
1. Horizontal.
2. Median.
3. Transverse. 
4. Para-Sagittal. 
5. Coronal.
A
  1. Median.
96
Q 
The hand is located at the
A. proximal
 B. medial 
C. Interior 
D. distal end of the forearm.
A

D. distal end of the forearm.

97
Q 
The body system responsible for structural support and movement is the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. cardiovascular system
 B. endocrine system
C. muscular system
D. skeletal system
A

D. skeletal system

98
Q 
Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
A. shoulder bones 
B. thigh bone
C. foot bones
D. vertebral column
E. shoulder blades
F. clavicle
A

D. vertebral column

99
Q 
Coronal plane that divides the body or any of its parts into an anterior and a posterior part. It passes through the body:
A. Transversely
B. from front to back 
C. from side to side 
D. through midline
A

C. from side to side

100
Q

__________Parallel to median plane but divides the body into unequal parts as right and left halves

A

Parasagittal plane

101
Q

___________plane divides the body into equal left and right halves.

A

Sagittal plane

102
Q

Regarding the terminology of location, ‘medial and ‘lateral’ Write the definition of each one.

A

1) Medial—to be closer to the midline of the body or a structure, being internal as opposed to external
2) Lateral—to be farther away, in the direction of either side, from the midline of the body or a structure

103
Q

Regarding the terminology of movement, name the movement of foot up and down (e.g. held out flat in front of you)

A

(1) Dorsiflexion (up)
(2) Neutral
(3) Plantarflexion (down)

104
Q

Superior Thoracic Aperture / Thoracic inlet Name its boundaries?

A

Posteriorly: T1 vertebral body

laterally: first ribs & their cartilages
anteriorly: superior border of manubrium and medial end of clavicle most anteriorly

(Top hole!)

105
Q

Name three structures (one respiratory, one cardiovascular and one gastrointestinal) that passes through the aperture of thoracic inlet

A

Trachea, internal jugular veins, oesophagus

106
Q

Describe limits of Inferior Thoracic Aperture / Thoracic outlet

A

It is formed by body of 12th thoracic vertebra, 12th rib, 11th rib, 10th rib, 10th, 9, 8th and 7th costal cartilage and xiphoid process

107
Q

How is this aperture (inferior thoracic aperture) closed off in a living subject?

A

The inferior thoracic aperture is closed by ‘diaphragm

108
Q

Which rib attaches (forms a joint) with sternum at the level of manubriosternal joint?

A

2nd Rib (through its costal cartilage)

109
Q

What is Structural & Functional significance of manubriosternal joint (Angle of Louis)?

A

Manubriosternal joint (Angle of Louis) is a fibrocartilaginous type of joint; and permits few degrees of movement between the manubrium and the body of sternum. This movement is enough to lift the body of sternum anteriorly and plays a very significant role in mechanics of respiration.

110
Q

Sternum and the clavicle (collar bone) / sternoclavicular joint : What may be the functional significance of these joints?

A

Sternoclavicular joint is site where clavicle forms a joint with manubrium of sternum and it plays a role in transmitting the weight of the upper limb (appendicular skeleton) is conveyed into sternum (axial skeleton)

111
Q

1st Rib and the clavicle (collar bone) / costoclavicular,
Sternum and ribs / sternocostal (costo-sternal) joints;
What may be the functional significance of these joints?

A

Movement at Manubriosternal joint (Angle of Louis) lifts the body of sternum anteriorly and since the sternocostal ribs attach to body of sternum; these ribs are lifted with sternum, increasing the anteroposterior diameter of thorax and plays a very significant role in mechanics of respiration.

112
Q

Ribs and their cartilages / costochondral region;

What may be the functional significance of these joints?

A

These are cartilaginous types of joints allowing some flexibility and facilitating respiratory movements of the rib cage

113
Q

Costoclavicular?

A

The costoclavicular joint is a variant of the ligamentous connection between the medial part of the clavicle and the first rib.

114
Q

Sternoclavicular?

A

The sternoclavicular (SC) joint is one of the four joints that complete the shoulder. The joint is located in the spot where the clavicle (collarbone) meets the sternum (breastbone) at the base of the neck.

115
Q

Costochondral?

A

The costochondral joints are the joints between the ribs and costal cartilage in the front of the rib cage. They are hyaline cartilaginous joints (i.e. synchondrosis or primary cartilagenous joint). Each rib has a depression shaped like a cup that the costal cartilage articulates with.

116
Q

Sternocostal?

A

The sternocostal joints are formed between the medial end of the costal cartilages of ribs one to seven.

117
Q

Name the ribs that form the costal margin

A

Costal margin (costal arch) is formed by 12th rib, 11th rib,and costal cartilage of 10th rib, 9th, 8th and 7th ribs

118
Q

How many pairs of ribs form joints with the sternum directly?

What are these ribs referred to as?

A

1st 7 pairs of ribs form joints with sternum Vertebrosternal ribs. These are also called true ribs

119
Q

How many floating ribs do we have?

Which pairs of ribs are these?

A

2

11 and 12 th pairs

120
Q

External v internal intercostal muscles?

A

Externals go out and up, internals go down and in

121
Q

What is the total number of pairs of intercostal spaces?

A

11 intercostal spaces. Intercostal spaces are closed in a living subject are closed by muscles

Y1 FHD (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions