Anatomy III Netter Clinical/ Challenge Yourself Questions Flashcards

1
Q
A 56-year-old man presents with a history of pain for the last 18 months over the right buttock and radiating down the posterior aspect of the thigh and leg. A radiographic examination reveals a herniated disc between the L5 and the S1 vertebral levels. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected by this herniated disc?
A. L3
B. L4
C. L5
D. S1
E. S2
A

S1

The nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral discs usually herniates in a posterolateral direction, where it can impinge on the nerve roots passing through the intervertebral foramen. A disc herniating at the L4-L5 level usually impinges on the L5 roots, and herniation at the L5-S1 level involves the S1 roots.

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2
Q

A 19-year-old man sustained an apparent cervical
spine hyperextension (“whiplash”) injury after a rear-end roller-coaster crash at a local amusement park. Radiographic examination reveals several cervical vertebral body fractures and the rupture of an adjacent vertebral ligament. Which of the following vertebral
ligaments was most likely ruptured during this hyperextension injury?
A. Anterior longitudinal ligament
B. Cruciate ligament
C. Interspinous ligament
D. Ligamentum flavum
E. Nuchal ligament

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament.

Hyperextension-hyperflexion (whiplash) of the cervical spine can occur when the relaxed neck is thrown backward (hyperextension), tearing the anterior longitudinal ligament. Hyperflexion is usually limited
when one’s chin hits the sternum. Properly adjusted headrests, if available, can limit the hyperextension.

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3
Q
A 34-year-old woman presents with a spider bite and a circumscribed area of inflammation on the back of her neck over the T4 dermatome region. Which of the following types of nerve fibers mediate this sensation?
A. Somatic afferents in T4 ventral root
B. Somatic afferents in T4 dorsal root
C. Somatic afferents in T4 ventral ramus
D. Somatic efferents in T4 ventral root
E. Somatic efferents in T4 dorsal root
F. Somatic efferents in T4 ventral ramus
A

Somatic afferents in T4 dorsal root.

Sensation from the skin is mediated by somatic afferents (fibers in dorsal root), and the cell bodies of these sensory neurons (pseudounipolar) associated with the T4 dermatome reside in the T4 dorsal root ganglion.

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4
Q
After an automobile crash, a 39-year-old man presents with a headache and midback pain. A radiographic exam reveals trauma to the thoracic spine and bleeding from the anterior and posterior internal vertebral venous plexus. In which of the following regions is this bleeding most likely accumulating?
A. Central spinal canal
B. Epidural space
C. Lumbar triangle
D. Subarachnoid space
E. Subdural space
A

Epidural space. The internal vertebral venous plexus (Batson’s plexus) resides in the epidural fat surrounding
the meningeal-encased spinal cord. The epidural space lies between the bony vertebral spinal canal and the dura mater.

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5
Q

A high school football player receives a helmet-
to-helmet blow to his head and neck and is brought into the emergency department. A radiographic examination reveals a mild dislocation of the atlanto-axial joint. When you examine his neck, you notice his range of motion is decreased. Which of following movements of the head would most likely be affected?
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. Extension
D. Flexion
E. Rotation

A

Rotation: The atlanto-axial joint (atlas and axis) functions
in the axial rotational movements of the head. The cranium and atlas move as a unit and rotate side to side on the uniaxial synovial pivot joint between the axis (C2) and atlas (C1).

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6
Q
A patient is admitted to the emergency department
with a sharp penetrating wound in the upper back region just lateral to the thoracic spine. Based on a quick examination, the physician concludes that several of the dorsal root ganglia are clearly damaged. Which of the following neural elements are most likely compromised
by this injury?
A. Postganglionic efferents
B. Somatic afferents only
C. Somatic afferents and efferents
D. Somatic and visceral afferents
E. Somatic efferents only
A

D. Somatic and visceral afferents.

The dorsal root ganglia between T1-L2 contain sensory neurons for both somatic and visceral (autonomic) afferent fibers, so both of these modalities would be compromised. Efferent (motor) fibers are not associated with the dorsal root ganglia.

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7
Q

A work-related injury results in a weakness against resistance in elevation of the scapula and atrophy of one of the lateral neck muscles. The physician suspects damage to a cranial nerve. What muscle is most likely responsible?

A

Trapezius (CN XI) or SCM (CN XI)

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8
Q

An injury results in significant weakness in extension and lateral rotation along the entire length of the spine. What muscle is most likely responsible?

A

Erector spinae: the major extensors. Spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis

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9
Q

After an automobile crash, a patient presents with radiating pain around the shoulder blades and weakness in elevating the ribs on deep breathing. What muscle is most likely responsible?

A

Serratus posterior superior

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10
Q

An injury to the back results in a weakened ability to extend and medially rotate the upper limb. What muscle is most likely responsible?

A

Latissimus dorsi

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11
Q

Sharp trauma to the back of the neck damages the suboccipital nerve, resulting in a weakened ability to extend and rotate the head to the same side against resistance. What muscle is most likely responsible?

A

Rectus capitis posterior major

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12
Q

Trauma to the lateral neck results in a lesion to the dorsal scapular nerve and a weakened ability to shrug the shoulders. What muscle is most likely responsible?

A

Levator scapulae (innervated by dorsal scapular nerve C5)

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13
Q
An elderly patient who has been minimally ambulatory is transported to the clinic with a swollen lower limb and evidence of a deep vein thrombosis. Your examination reveals a sizable clot in her small saphenous vein, and you are concerned that a thromboembolus might originate from this clot and pass to her heart and lungs. After it exits the small saphenous vein, the thromboembolus would next pass into which of the following veins on its journey to the heart?
A. Deep femoral
B. External iliac
C. Femoral
D. Great saphenous
E.  Popliteal
A

Popliteal: The small saphenous vein drains superiorly along the posterior aspect of the leg and then dives deeply to drain into the popliteal vein
deep within the knee.

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14
Q
The hip is a stable ball-and-socket synovial joint with several strong supporting ligaments. Hip flexion exhibits a significant range of motion, but hip extension is more limited. Which of the following hip ligaments is the strongest ligament and the one that limits hip extension?
A. Iliofemoral
B. Ischiofemoral
C. Ligament of head of femur
D. Pubofemoral
E. Transverse acetabular
A

Iliofemoral ligament. Forms an inverted “Y” configuration and is the strongest of the hip ligaments

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15
Q
During a routine PE, the PA taps a patient’s patellar ligament with a reflex hammer and elicits a knee-jerk reflex. Which of the following nerves mediates this patellar reflex?
A. Common fibular
B. Femoral
C. Obturator
D. Saphenous
E. Tibial
A

Femoral. Extension of the knee occurs w/ contraction of the quadriceps femoris group of muscles, which are innervated by the femoral nerve (L2-L4). Patellar reflex tests the L3-L4 component of the femoral nerve.

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16
Q
A long-distance runner is examined by her PA after c/o pain along the anteromedial aspect of her left leg, extending from just below the knee to just above the ankle. She has been running on a hard surface and notices that the pain is especially acute as she pushes off from the ground with the affected limb. Which of the following muscles of the leg is most likely affected by this stress injury?
A. Extensor digitorum longus
B. Fibularis longus
C. Gastrocnemius
D. Popliteus
E. Tibialis posterior
A

Tibialis posterior. Most affected muscle when pushing off the ground; during the action of plantarflexion at the ankle.

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17
Q
A stab injury to the buttocks results in the patient’s inability to rise from a seated position without the use of his arms, as well as weakness in climbing stairs. A nerve injury is suspected. Which of the following muscles was most likely affected by this stab injury?
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Gluteus medius
C. Obturator internus
D. Piriformis
E. Semitendinosus
A

Gluteus maximus, the most powerful extensor of the hip. Innervated by inferior gluteal nerves.

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18
Q

An inversion ankle injury results in the tearing of two of the three major ligaments that stabilize this joint. Which of the following pairs of ligaments are most likely injured?
A. Anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular
B. Calcaneofibular and deltoid
C. Deltoid and long plantar
D. Long plantar and posterior talofibular
E. Posterior talofibular and anterior
talofibular

A

Anterior talofibular and calcaneofibular. Most susceptible to inversion injuries of the ankle.

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19
Q

An 11 y/o boy jumps from a tree house 15 feet above the ground and lands on his feet
before rolling forward, immediately feeling extreme pain in his right ankle. RAD
exam reveals that he has broken the most frequently fractured tarsal bone in the
body. Which of the following tarsal bones is most likely fractured?
A. Calcaneus
B. Cuboid
C. Medial cuneiform
D. Navicular
E. Talus

A

Calcaneous. Intraarticular fracture caused by talus being driven down into the calcaneous.

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20
Q
A laceration across the back of the lower leg results in numbness over the site of the laceration that extends inferiorly over the heel and the lateral back of the sole. Which of the following nerves was mostly likely injured?
A. Lateral plantar
B. Medial plantar
C. Saphenous
D. Superficial fibular
E. Sural
A

Sural

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21
Q
A 54 y/o man presents with an inability to fully dorsiflex his foot at the ankle, although he can invert and evert his foot. Which of the following nerves may be affected?
A. Common fibular
B. Deep fibular
C. Medial plantar
D. Superficial fibular
E. Tibial
A

Deep fibular.

Since the man can evert and invert but cannot fully dorsiflex at the ankle, he most likely has injured his deep fibular nerve. If he had lost eversion alone, he would have injured the superficial fibular nerve and if dorsiflexion and eversion were weakened, then one would suspect an injury of the common fibular nerve.

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22
Q

A man is seen in the clinic waiting room who enters with a “shuffling” gait and a weakened ability to plantarflex his foot. Which of the following nerve-muscle combinations is most likely involved?
A. Deep fibular and tibialis anterior muscle
B. Deep fibular and tibialis posterior muscle
C. Superficial fibular and fibularis longus
muscle
D. Tibial and tibialis anterior muscle
E. Tibial and tibialis posterior muscle

A

Tibial and tibialis posterior muscle

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23
Q

A first-year medical student is asked to demonstrate the location of the dorsalis pedis pulse. Which of the following landmarks would be a reliable guide for finding this artery?
A. Lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon
B. Medial to the extensor digitorum longus tendons
C. Over the intermediate cuneiform bone
D. Over the second metatarsal bone
E. Web space between toes 1 and 2

A

Lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon

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24
Q
Irritation of the knee in a cleaning lady who scrubs floors on her knees results in septic bursitis and “housemaid’s knee.” Which of the following bursae is most likely involved?
A. Anserine
B. Deep infrapatellar
C. Prepatellar
D. Subcutaneous infrapatellar
E. Suprapatellar
A

Prepatellar

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25
Q

A dipping of the pelvis during the stance phase of walking may occur if there is an injury to the nerves innervating this important abductor of the femur at the hip. What muscle most likely responsible/ affected?

A

Gluteus medius. Gluteal dip aka positive Trendelenburg sign. Usually denotes injury to the superior gluteal nerves innervating the medius and minimus.

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26
Q

Weakened flexion of the thigh and abduction at the hip, and flexion of the leg at the knee would suggest an injury to this muscle or to the nerves innervating this muscle.

A

Sartorius.

The sartorius (“tailor’s”) muscle flexes and abducts the hip and flexes the knee (think about the action of sitting in a chair with one thigh crossed over the other, as a “tailor” might do while stitching). Thus, it acts on
both joints and is innervated by branches of the femoral nerve.
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27
Q
An elderly woman falls on her outstretched hand and fractures the surgical neck of her humerus. Several weeks later she presents with significant weakness in abduction of her arm and some weakened extension and flexion. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?
A. Accessory
B. Axillary
C. Radial
D. Subscapular
E. Thoracodorsal
A

Axillary

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28
Q
Cancer spreading via the lymphatics passes into the axillary group of lymph nodes. Which of these axillary groups of nodes is most likely to receive this lymph first?
A. Anterior (pectoral)
B. Apical (subclavian)
C. Central
D. Lateral (brachial)
E. Posterior (subscapular)
A

Anterior (pectoral)

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29
Q
During a routine physical examination, the physician notes an absent biceps tendon reflex. Which spinal cord level is associated with this tendon reflex?
A. C4-C5
B. C5-C6
C. C6-C7
D. C7-C8
E. C8-T1
A

C5-C6

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30
Q
A patient with a midshaft compound humeral fracture presents with bleeding and clinical signs of nerve entrapment. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured by the fracture?
A. Axillary
B. Median
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Radial
E. Ulnar
A

Radial. This nerve innervates all the extensory muscles of the upper limb (posterior compartments of the arm and forearm)

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31
Q

A baseball pitcher delivers a 97-mph fastball to a batter and suddenly feels a sharp pain in
his shoulder on release of the ball. The trainer examines the shoulder and concludes that the pitcher has a rotator cuff injury. Which muscle is most vulnerable and most likely torn by this type of injury?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Subscapularis
C. Supraspinatus
D. Teres major
E. Teres minor

A

Supraspinatus

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32
Q
A fall on an outstretched hand results in swelling and pain on the lateral aspect of the wrist. Radiographic examination confirms a Colles’ fracture. Which of the following bones is most likely fractured?
A. Distal radius
B. Distal ulna
C. Lunate
D. Scaphoid
E. Trapezium
A

Distal radius.

The Colles’ fracture (a fracture of the distal radius) presents with a classic dinner fork deformity with the dorsal and proximal displacement of the distal fragment. This is an extension-compression fracture.

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33
Q
A knife cut results in a horizontal laceration to the thoracic wall extending across the midaxillary and anterior axillary lines just above the level of the T4 dermatome. Which of the following patient presentations will the emergency department physician most likely observe on examining the patient?
A. Tingling along anterolateral forearm
B. Supinated forearm
C. Weakened elbow extension
D. Weakened elbow flexion
E. Winged scapula
A

Winged scapula. Laceration probably severed the long thoracic nerve which innervates the serratus anterior muscle.

34
Q
Which of the following tendons is most vulnerable to inflammation and sepsis in the shoulder joint?
A. Glenoid labrum
B. Infraspinatus
C. Long head of biceps
D. Long head of triceps
E. Supraspinatus
A

Long head of biceps

35
Q
Which of the following muscle-nerve combinations is tested when spreading the fingers against resistance?
A. Abductor digiti minimi–median
B. Abductor pollicis brevis–radial
C. Abductor pollicis longus–median
D. Dorsal interossei–ulnar
E. Palmar interossei–ulnar
A

Dorsal interossei–ulnar

36
Q

A patient presents with a “claw hand” deformity. What nerve is most likely affected?

A

Ulnar

37
Q

When asked to make a fist, the patient is unable to flex the first three fingers into the
palm, and the fourth and fifth fingers are partially flexed at the MCP and DIP joints. What nerve is most likely affected?

A

Median

38
Q

Despite injury to the radial nerve in the arm, a patient is still capable of supination of the forearm. What nerve is most likely responsible?

A

Musculotaneous nerve

39
Q

Dislocation of the shoulder places this nerve in jeopardy of injury.

A

Axillary

40
Q
A 31-year-old man is diagnosed with a benign pituitary adenoma that has impinged on the right aspect of the cavernous sinus. Which of the following clinical signs is most likely to be evident in this patient?
A. Bilateral painful ophthalmoplegia
B. Left-sided diplopia
C. Left-sided complete ptosis
D. Right-sided pupillary dilation
E. Right-sided dry eye
A

Right-sided pupillary dilation.

41
Q
A baseball player is hit in his left eye and orbital region by a fastball that results in a blow-out fracture. The left orbital contents show evidence of an inferior herniation into which of the following spaces?
A. Cavernous sinus
B. Ethmoid sinus
C. Frontal sinus
D. Maxillary sinus
E. Sphenoid sinus
A

Maxillary

42
Q
An elderly woman stumbles while walking down her basement stairs but catches herself before falling. On examination by her physician, she presents with diplopia when looking inferiorly. Which of the following nerves is most likely affected?
A. Abducent
B. Oculomotor
C. Ophthalmic (V1)
D. Optic
E. Trochlear
A

Trochlear (CN IV) innervates the superior oblique muscle, and the affected eye will be elevated and adducted. Pt will have difficulty looking down inferiorly and medially as she steps down stairs or off curbs and will present w/ diplopia.

43
Q
The rupture of a berry aneurysm affecting the anterior communicating artery of the circle of Willis results in significant bleeding. Into which space will this bleeding occur?
A. Cavernous sinus
B. Epidural space
C. Lateral ventricle
D. Subarachnoid space
E. Subdural space
A

Subarachnoid space.

44
Q
A 46-year-old woman presents with painful erythematous vesicular eruptions over the right upper eyelid and forehead and spreading into her hairline over the squamous portion of the temporal bone. She is diagnosed with herpes zoster (shingles). Which of the following nerves is most likely responsible for transmitting this virus?
A. Auriculotemporal nerve
B. Greater petrosal nerve
C. Nasociliary nerve
D. Supra-orbital nerve
A

Supra-orbital nerve – branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, and its distribution matches the description of the skin eruptions. HSV resides in the sensory ganglia of the nerves, in this case the semilunar ganglion of CN V.

45
Q
A 31 y/o man is diagnosed with a benign pituitary adenoma that has impinged on the right aspect of the cavernous sinus. Which of the following clinical signs is most likely to be evident in this patient?
A. Bilateral painful ophthalmoplegia
B. Left-sided diplopia
C. Left-sided complete ptosis
D. Right-sided pupillary dilation
E. Right-sided dry eye
A

Right-sided pupillary dilation.

The expansion to the right side will affect the right eye and orbit, and in this case it will affect the oculomotor nerve (CN III). The following nerves pass in close association with the cavernous sinus and can be affected by an expanding mass in this region: CN III, IV, V1, V2, and VI. The dilated pupil results from the unopposed sympathetic innervation of the dilator muscle; the constrictor of the pupil is affected by the compression on CN III, which
carries the parasympathetics to the ciliary ganglion and this muscle.

46
Q
A teenage gang member receives a knife cut inferior to the angle of the mandible and receives emergency care for the repair of the vascular damage, cleansing of the wound, and closing of the incision. Unknown to the resident in the ER, the victim’s hypoglossal nerve was completely severed. Which of the following muscles would mostly likely be affected?
A. Anterior belly of the digastric
B. Genioglossus
C. Geniohyoid
D. Mylohyoid
E. Palatoglossus
F. Stylohyoid
A

Genioglossus.

Innervated by CN XII. Other 2 muscles also innervated by CN XII: hyoglossus and styloglossus.

47
Q
56 y/o woman presents in the clinic with diplopia of the left eye, complete left-sided ptosis, and an absent corneal reflex. Where is the most likely site of a lesion that would account for this presentation?
A. Foramen ovale
B. Foramen rotundum
C. Inferior orbital fissure
D. Optic canal
E. Superior orbital fissure
A

Superior orbital fissure.

These s/s are compatible
with a lesion to CN III (denervation of four extra-ocular muscles and the levator palpebrae superioris muscle of the eyelid) and sensation over the cornea (ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve). Both these nerves enter the orbit via the superior orbital fissure.

48
Q
A young child falls while sucking on a lollipop, and the stick lacerates the posterior wall of her oropharynx, stopped by a cervical vertebral body. As a precaution, the physician prescribes a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Which of the following spaces is most likely to harbor an infection after this type of puncture wound?
A. Epidural space
B. Mediastinum
C. Pretracheal space
D. Retropharyngeal space
E. Subdural space
A

Retropharyngeal space.

Lies between the buccopharyngeal (visceral) fascia and the prevertebral fascia (specifically the alar layer) and extends from the base of the cranium to the posterior mediastinum. Infections in this space can easily spread superiorly or inferiorly via the contractions of the pharyngeal muscles and esophagus, which can “knead” the bacteria along the space.

49
Q
A baseball player is hit in his left eye and orbital region by a fastball that results in a blow-out fracture. The left orbital contents show evidence of an inferior herniation into which of the following spaces?
A. Cavernous sinus
B. Ethmoid sinus
C. Frontal sinus
D. Maxillary sinus
E. Sphenoid sinus
A

Maxillary sinus.

The floor of the orbit is the roof of the underlying maxillary sinus. Fractures in this area can result in the partial herniation of the orbital contents inferiorly, especially the orbital fat (the eye may droop but is tethered by the optic nerve and extra-ocular muscles).

50
Q
A traumatic injury to the right side of the neck requires significant surgical attention. The patient has a hoarse voice, which will not resolve with time. Which of the following nerves was most likely damaged by this injury?
A. Ansa cervicalis
B. Hypoglossal
C. Recurrent laryngeal
D. Superior laryngeal
E. Sympathetic trunk
A

Recurrent laryngeal.

The recurrent laryngeal (inferior laryngeal) nerve passes through the neck in the tracheoesophageal groove as it ascends to innervate the muscles of the larynx. If injured, the only pair of abductors of the vocal folds would be compromised ipsilaterally (hemiparalysis of the posterior crico-arytenoids), leading to a hoarse voice.

51
Q

A patient presents with diplopia and an inability to abduct the left eye. Likely nerve affected?

A

Abducent nerve (CN VI).

Inability to abduct the eye without other movement impairment suggests that the lateral rectus muscle is affected, and it is innervated by the abducent nerve (CN VI).

52
Q

Trauma to the right middle cranial fossa results in ipsilateral pupillary constriction and partial ptosis. Likely nerve affected?

A

Deep petrosal.

Partial ptosis (denervation of the superior tarsal muscle) and pupillary constriction (absence of pupillary dilation) suggest an injury to the sympathetic system somewhere along its pathway to the head. Of the listed nerves, only the deep petrosal (postganglionic fibers from the superior cervical ganglion) nerve would show exclusively sympathetic involvement as it courses on the intracranial portion of the internal carotid artery.

53
Q

Sharp trauma to the left infratemporal fossa results in the ipsilateral loss of taste on the anterior two thirds of the tongue. Likely nerve affected?

A

Chorda tympani.

If taste is the only sense affected, the answer is the chorda tympani nerve, which is
damaged before joining the ingual nerve (apparently sensation on the anterior tongue is intact). One might also expect that some parasympathetics to the submandibular ganglion
would also be affected, but this may not be immediately obvious. The chorda tympani carries taste fibers and preganglionic parasympathetic fibers.

54
Q

In a patient with some hearing loss in one ear, the Rinne test confirms that the tuning fork is heard better when placed beside the affected ear than when placed on the mastoid process. Likely nerve affected?

A

CN VIII

Normally, hearing by air conduction is better than by bone conduction. In an affected ear (decreased hearing), if the air conduction is still better than bone conduction, it suggests that the hearing loss is caused by sensorineural loss (inner ear problem vs. a middle or external ear problem) affecting the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).

55
Q

During a routine examination, when the patient is asked to say “ah,” the soft palate and uvula are elevated asymmetrically. Likely nerve affected?

A

CN X.

An ipsilateral asymmetrical elevation of the soft palate and uvula suggests that the levator veli palatini muscle is affected, which is innervated by the vagus nerve.

56
Q

A fracture of the middle cranial fossa, just along the anterior base of the petrous portion of the temporal bone, results in a decreased secretion of the ipsilateral parotid gland. Likely nerve affected?

A

Lesser petrosal nerve from tympanic plexus of CN IX.

The lesser petrosal nerve is found in this area and carries preganglionic parasympathetic secretory fibers to the otic ganglion, where the fibers synapse. Postganglionic fibers from the otic ganglion then join the auriculotemporal nerve to innervate the parotid gland. The lesser petrosal nerve arises from the tympanic plexus of CN IX (glossopharyngeal).

57
Q

You are talking and chewing gum at the same time and inadvertently bite your cheek. The site of injury is painful and begins to swell. You ask yourself, “What nerve mediates this pain?”

A

Buccal branch of mandibular vision of CN V3.

The pain is mediated by the large “sensory” nerve of the head, the trigeminal. Specifically, this buccal pain is mediated by the buccal branch of the mandibular division of CN V.

58
Q

During a routine tonsillectomy, a complication results in the loss of taste and sensation on the posterior third of the tongue. Likely nerve affected?

A

Glossopharyngeal

The glossopharyngeal nerve innervates one muscle (stylopharyngeus) and then passes into the posterior 1/2 of the tongue to provide general sensation and the special sense of taste to this portion of the tongue. As it does so, CN IX passes adjacent to the tonsillary fossa and may be damaged during a tonsillectomy.

59
Q

A severe bacterial infection of the left sphenoid sinus erodes into the bony floor of the sinus, resulting in an ipsilateral dry eye and dry nasal passage. Likely nerve affected?

A

Nerve of the pterygoid canal.

The nerve of the pterygoid canal (vidian nerve) runs in the floor of the sphenoid sinus and conveys postganglionic sympathetic fibers (from the deep petrosal nerve) and preganglionic parasympathetic fibers (from the greater petrosal nerve). In this case, the parasympathetics to the pterygopalatine ganglion are affected, and the lacrimal gland and nasal mucous glands have been denervated by the infection to this nerve.

60
Q

A small child screams in pain following a bee sting on his upper lip. Likely nerve affected?

A

Superior labial sensory branch of maxillary division of CN V.

Sensation on the upper lip is conveyed by the trigeminal nerve. Specifically, it will be by a superior labial sensory branch of the maxillary division of CN V.

61
Q

A blow to the head results in the rupture of the middle meningeal artery, causing an epidural hematoma, which is extremely painful. Likely nerve affected?

A

Trigeminal nerve CN V.

The great sensory nerve of the head is the trigeminal. CN V provides sensory innervation to most of the dura mater; the vagus nerve contributes some sensation to the posterior
dura. The arachnoid and pia mater do not possess sensory innervation.

62
Q
An elderly woman falls on her outstretched hand and fractures the surgical neck of her humerus. Several weeks later she presents with significant weakness in abduction of her arm and some weakened extension and flexion. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured?
A. Accessory
B. Axillary
C. Radial
D. Subscapular
E. Thoracodorsal
A

Axillary

Fx of this portion of the humerus can place the axillary nerve in danger of injury. Her muscle weakness confirms that the deltoid muscle especially is weakened, and the deltoid and teres minor are innervated by the axillary nerve.

63
Q
Cancer spreading via the lymphatics passes into the axillary group of lymph nodes.  Which of these axillary groups of nodes is most likely to receive this lymph first?
A. Anterior (pectoral)
B. Apical (subclavian)
C. Central
D. Lateral (brachial)
E. Posterior (subscapular)
A

Anterior (pectoral) – the nodes closest to the axillary tail of the upper outer quadrant of the breast

64
Q
During a routine PE, the
physician notes an absent  biceps tendon reflex. Which spinal cord level is associated with this tendon reflex?
A. C4-C5
B. C5-C6
C. C6-C7
D. C7-C8
E. C8-T1
A

C5-C6

65
Q
A patient with a midshaft compound humeral fracture presents with bleeding and clinical signs of nerve entrapment. Which of the following nerves is most likely injured by the fracture?
A. Axillary
B. Median
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Radial
E. Ulnar
A

Radial.

This nerve innervates all the extensoy muscles of the upper limb (posterior compartments of the arm and forearm)

66
Q

A baseball pitcher delivers a 97-mph fastball to a batter and suddenly feels a sharp pain in
his shoulder on release of the ball. The trainer examines the shoulder and concludes that the pitcher has a rotator cuff injury. Which muscle is most vulnerable and most likely torn by this type of injury?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Subscapularis
C. Supraspinatus
D. Teres major
E. Teres minor

A

Supraspinatus.

Most often torn in rotator cuff injuries. Repeated abduction + flexion can cause the tendons to rub on the acromion and coraco-acromial ligament leading to tears or ruptures

67
Q
A fall on an outstretched hand results in swelling and pain on the lateral aspect of the wrist. Radiographic examination confirms a Colles’ fracture. Which of the following bones is most likely fractured?
A. Distal radius
B. Distal ulna
C. Lunate
D. Scaphoid
E. Trapezium
A

Distal radius.

Presents w/ a classic dinner fork deformity w/ dorsal + proximal displacement of the distal fragment. This is an extension-compression fracture.

68
Q
Examining an assembly line worker’s complaint of tingling pain in her wrist with muscle weakness and atrophy, her physician diagnoses carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be atrophied?
A. Adductor pollicis
B. Dorsal interossei
C. Flexor digitorum superficialis
D. Lumbricals 3 and 4
E. Thenar
A

Thenar

69
Q
A patient presents with numbness over his medial hand and atrophy of the hypothenar muscles after an injury several days ago over his medial humeral epicondyle. Which of the following nerves most likely was injured?
A. Anterior interosseous
B. Musculocutaneous
C. Recurrent branch of median
D. Superficial radial
E. Ulnar
A

Ulnar

70
Q
During your intro course to clinical medicine, you are asked to take the radial pulse of your classmate. Which of the following muscle tendons can you use as a guide to locate the radial artery?
A. Adductor pollicis longus
B. Brachioradialis
C. Flexor carpi radialis
D. Flexor pollicis longus
E. Palmaris longus
A

Flexor carpi radialis.

Pulse is taken at the wrist where the radial artery lies just lateral to the tendon of the flexor carpi radialis muscle.

71
Q

A football player has a complete fracture of his radius just proximal to the insertion of the pronator teres muscle. As a result of the actions of the muscles attached to the proximal and distal fragments of the radius, which of the following combinations accurately reflects the orientation of the proximal and distal radial fragments?
A. Proximal extended, and distal pronated
B. Proximal extended and pronated, and
distal supinated
C. Proximal flexed, and distal pronated
D. Proximal flexed, and distal supinated
E. Proximal flexed and supinated, and distal
pronated

A

Proximal flexed and supinated, and distal pronated.

The proximal fragment will be flexed and supinated by the biceps brachii and supinator muscles, while the distal fragment will be pronated by the action of the pronator teres and pronator quadratus muscles.

72
Q
Intravenous fluid administered into the median cubital vein that enters the basilic vein would then most likely empty into which of the following veins?
A. Axillary
B. Brachial
C. Cephalic
D. Deep brachial
E. Subclavian
A

Axillary.

The median cubital vein may drain into the basilic vein, which then dives deeply and drains into the axillary vein.

73
Q
A wrestler comes off the mat holding his right forearm flexed at the elbow and pronated, with his shoulder medially rotated and displaced inferiorly. Which of his bones is most likely broken?
A. Clavicle
B. Humerus
C. Radius
D. Scapula
E. Ulna
A

Clavicle.

Fractures of the clavicle are relatively common and occur most often in the middle third of the bone. The distal fragment is displaced downward by the weight of the shoulder and drawn medially by the action of the pectoralis major, teres major, and latissimus dorsi muscles.

74
Q
A knife cut results in a horizontal laceration to the thoracic wall extending across the midaxillary and anterior axillary lines just above the level of the T4 dermatome. Which of the following patient presentations will the ED physician most likely observe on examining the patient?
A. Tingling along anterolateral forearm
B. Supinated forearm
C. Weakened elbow extension
D. Weakened elbow flexion
E. Winged scapula
A

Winged scapula.

This laceration probably severed the long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior muscle. During muscle testing, the scapula will “wing” outwardly if this muscle is denervated.

75
Q
Which of the following tendons is most vulnerable to inflammation and sepsis in the shoulder joint?
A. Glenoid labrum
B. Infraspinatus
C. Long head of biceps
D. Long head of triceps
E. Supraspinatus
A

Long head of biceps.

76
Q
Which of the following muscle nerve combinations is tested when spreading the fingers against resistance?
A. Abductor digiti minimi–median
B. Abductor pollicis brevis–radial
C. Abductor pollicis longus–median
D. Dorsal interossei–ulnar
E. Palmar interossei–ulnar
A

Dorsal interossei – ulnar

77
Q

A patient presents with a “claw hand” deformity. Which nerve likely affected?

A

Ulnar nerve

78
Q

When asked to make a fist, the patient is unable to flex the first three fingers into the palm, and the fourth and fifth fingers are partially flexed at the MCP and DIP joints. Nerve likely affected?

A

Median nerve.

This suggests a lesion to the median nerve. The thenar muscles are affected, as are the long flexors of the digits (flexor digitorum superficialis). Unopposed extension of the first three fingers occurs, and absence of flexion at the PIP joints of fingers 4 and 5 is evident. The position of the hand is that of a “papal” or “benediction” sign.

79
Q

Angina pectoris leads to referred pain, which radiates down the arm. Nerve likely responsible?

A

Medial cutaneous nerve of arm (T1) or intercostal brachial nerve (T2).

Referred pain from myocardial ischemia can be present along the medial aspect of the arm, usually on the left side, and is referred to this area by the medial cutaneous nerve of the arm (T1). The intercostal brachial nerve (T2) may also contribute.

80
Q

Despite injury to the radial nerve in the arm, a patient is still capable of supination of the forearm. Nerve likely responsible?

A

Musculotaneous nerve innervation of biceps brachii muscle.

While the supinator muscle is denervated (loss of radial nerve), the biceps brachii muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and is a powerful supinator when the elbow is flexed.

81
Q

Dislocation of the shoulder places this nerve in jeopardy of injury. Nerve likely affected?

A

Axillary nerve.

The axillary nerve (innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles) can be injured by shoulder dislocations. This nerve passes through the quadrangular space before innervating its two muscles.