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PLE > Anatomy (HEAD and Neck) > Flashcards

Anatomy (HEAD and Neck) Flashcards

1
Q

aponeurosis

A

central –> epicranial aponeurosis
anterior –> frontalis to skin of eyebrow and orbicularis oculi (temporal and zygomatic branches of CN VII)
posterior –> occipitalis to superior nuchal line (posterior auricular branch of CN VII)

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2
Q

danger area of loose areolar connective tissue in scalp

A

potential vascular spread of infection as it contains emissary veins which connect cranial venous sinuses to extracranial veins

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3
Q

emissary veins

A

communications which keep the blood pressure in the sinuses constant

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4
Q

scalp wound bleeding

A

difficult to to stop as the arterial walls are attached to the fibrous septa in the connective tissue and are unable to contract/retract to allow blood clotting

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5
Q

epicranial aponeurosis

A

keep the tension in wounds do it will not gape open

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6
Q

extradural / epidural space

A

POTENTIAL space between inner aspect of skull bone and endosteal layer of dura mater

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7
Q

subdural space

A

POTENTIAL space between dura and arachnoid mater

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8
Q

subarachnoid space

A

ACTUAL space between arachnoid and pia mater

filled with CSF and contains blood vessels supplying the brain

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9
Q

two layers of the dura mater

A

endosteal layer and meningeal layer

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10
Q

extend through the foramen magnum and is continuous to the dura mater of the spinal cord

A

meningeal layer

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11
Q

separated to form venous sinuses

A

endosteal layer and meningeal layer of the dura mater

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12
Q

function of dura mater extensions

A

divide cranial cavity into subdivisions which restrict displacement of the brain associated with accel and decel

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13
Q

attached to frontal crest and Crista Galli

A

falx cerebri

- sickle-shaped dura dividing the two cerebral hemispheres

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14
Q

supports the occipital lobes
covers the upper surface of the cerebellum
roofs over the posterior cranial fossa

A

tentorium cerebelli

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15
Q

attached to the internal occipital crest

divides the two CEREBELLAR hemsipheres

A

falx cerebelli

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16
Q

roof of the sella turcica

A

diaphragma sella

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17
Q

over the calvaria vs the cranial base

A

over the calvaria: fused layers of the dura can be easily stripped from the cranial bones vs firmly attached and difficult to separate in the cranial base

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18
Q

dura mater NAV

A

N: trigeminal nerve and C1-C3
A: middle meningeal artery from maxillary artery
anterior meningeal artery from ophtalmic artey
posterior meningeal artery from occipital artery
all from external carotid artery
V: middle meningeal vein to pterygoid plexus

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19
Q

avascular meninges

A

arachnoid mater

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20
Q

filled with CSF

A

subarachnoid space

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21
Q

arachnoid granulations

A

aggregations of arachnoid villi

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22
Q

epidural space in the spinal cord

A

contains fibrofatty tissue and venous plexus

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23
Q

shaken baby syndrome

A

occurs as a result of sudden deceleration

ex of subdural hematoma

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24
Q

presents as a crescent shaped lesion in CR

from tearing of superior cerebral veins at their point of entry into the superior sagittal sinus

A

subdural hematoma

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25
Q

biconvex appearance in CT scan

due to injury to meningeal arteries or veins

A

epidural hematoma

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26
Q

generally caused by rupture of the thin-walled lenticulostriate arteries (from the middle cerebral artery)
patient immediately loses consciousness and causes contralateral hemiplegia
involves corticobulbar and corticospinal fibers in the internal capsule

A

cerebral hemorrhage

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27
Q

appears as white on CT following sulcis

suggests rupture of an artery in the _______

A

subarachnoid hematoma

subarachnoid space

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28
Q

leptominingitis

A

confined in the subarachnoid space

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29
Q

tonsillar herniation causes ________________

A

cardiac and respiratory depression due to compresdion of medulla and upper cervical spinal cord
tonsils of the cerebellum herniate downward through the foramen magnum

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30
Q

caused by diffuse cerebral edema

diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus) herniate through the tentorial notch

A

central herniation

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31
Q

uncal herniation

A

uncus of the temporal lobe herniate downward hence compressing the brainstem

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32
Q

unpaired bones of the neurocranium

A

frontal, occipital, ethmoid, sphenoid

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33
Q

paired bones of the neurocranium

A

temporal, parietal

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34
Q

paired bones of viscerocranium (facial)

A

palatine, lacrimal, maxilla, nasal, inferior nasal concha, zygomatic

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35
Q

vomer

mandible

A

unpaired bones of viscerocranium (facial)

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36
Q

point of meeting of frontal, parietal, squamous temporal, great wing of sphenoid

A

pterion

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37
Q

meeting point of lambdoid, parietomastoid, occipitomastoid

A

asterion

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38
Q

bregma came from _______________ which closes by ____

A

anterior fontanelle; 18 months

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39
Q

lambda came from ______ which closes by

A

posterior fontanelle; 1-2 months

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40
Q

important relations of the cavernous sinus

A 
ICA , VI (passes through)
III, IV, V1, V2 (on the lateral walls)
pituitary gland
veins of the face (anteriorly)
petrosal sinuses (posteriorly)
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41
Q

trigeminal nerve

A

anterior division: muscles of mastication

posterior division: sensory to the face and general sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue

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42
Q

leaves the cranium through foramen rotundum (in the base of the greater wing of the sphenoid)

A

maxillary branch (V2) of the trigeminal nerve

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43
Q

three cutaneous branches of CN V2

A

zygomaticotemporal
zygomaticofacial
infraorbital nerve (through IOF)

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44
Q

largest branch of the trigeminal nerve

A

CN V3 (mandibular branch)
only branch that carries motor fibers (motor to MUSCLES OF MASTICATION)
somatic to anterior 2/3 of tongue

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45
Q

cutaneous nerves from ophthalmic branch of trigeminal

A 
supraorbital
supratrochlear
external nasal nerve
infratrochlear nerve
lacrimal nerve (smallest branch)
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46
Q

cutaneous nerves from mandibular branch of trigeminal

A

auriculotemporal
buccal
mental

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47
Q

only branch of trigeminal nerve with motor fibers

A

mandibular branch

MUSCLES OF MASTICATION

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48
Q

stylomastoid foramen

A

where facial nerve emerges

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49
Q

terminal branches of the facial nerve

A 
temporal
zygomatic
buccal
mandibular
cervical
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50
Q

supplies taste fibers to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

chorda tympani of CN VII

contains secretomotor fibers to submandibular and sublingual gland

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51
Q

functions of facial nerve

A

1) motor to muscles of facial expression, stylohoid, posterior belly of digastric
2) special sensation to anterior 2/3 of tongue
3) prevents hyperacusis (dampening vibrations of stapes)
4) secretomotor to lacrimal, sublingual, and submandibular glands
5) common sensation to external ear

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52
Q

Bell palsy

A

paralysis of muscles on the affected side
drooping of corner of mouth, weakened lip muscles, paralysis of muscles of facial expression, dry mouth, hyperacusis, no tears, no special sensation

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53
Q

differentiating central vs peripheral nerve lesions

A

in central, forehead can still move/contract vs peripheral wherein entire affected side cannot move/contract

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54
Q

corneal blink reflex efferent

A

facial nerve (CN VII)

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55
Q

afferent of corneal blink reflex

A

CN V1 (nasociliary nerve)

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56
Q

treatment for Tic Douloureux

A

carbamazepine

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57
Q

sharp, stabbing pain over the areas innervated by cutaneous branches of CN V2 or CN V3

A

Trigeminal neuralgia (Tic Douloureux)

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58
Q

mental artery vs submental artery

A

submental: from facial artery
mental: from maxillary artery

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59
Q

arterial supply of face

A

branches of external carotid artery
facial artery (major)
superficial temporal artery
transverse facial artery - to the parotid gland, duct, masseter and skin of face
supraorbital and supratrochlear (from ophthalmic)

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60
Q

venous drainage of the face

A

facial vein and retromandibular vein

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61
Q

supraorbital vein + supratrochlear vein –> ______

—-> _________ + anterior branch of retromandibular vein –> common facial vein —> draining into IJV

A

angular vein ; facial vein

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62
Q

______+ __________ –> retromandibular vein

posterior branch or retromandibular vein + posterior auricular branch –> draining into ______

A

superficial temporal vein + maxillary vein

EJV

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63
Q

superficial lymph nodes of the head

A 
ORB SSS
occipital
retroauricular parotid
buccal
submandibular
submental
superficial cervical
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64
Q

deep lymph nodes of the head

A

middle ear: retropharyngeal and upper deep cervical
nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses: submandibular, retropharyngeal, and upper deep cervical
tongue: submental, submandibular, and upper/lower cervical
larynx: upper/lower cervical

pharynx: retropharyngeal and upper/lower deep cervical
thyroid gland: lower deep cervical, prelaryngeal, pretracheal, paratracheal

note the pattern!

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65
Q

autonomic nerves on the head

A

SYMPATHETIC

  • dilates pupil
  • reduces secretion (lacrimal, nasal mucus gland)
  • reduces secretion and more viscid (salivary gland)

PARASYMPATHETIC

  • constricts pupil
  • contract ciliary muscle to thicken lens
  • increase secretion
  • increase and more watery secretion (in salivary gland)
66
Q

nucleus origin of oculomotor nerve

parasympathetic ganglia

A

Edinger Westphal nucleus

–> ciliary ganglion

67
Q

facial nerve nucleus

parasympathetic ganglia

A

lacrimal: pterygopalatine ganglion –> lacrimal gland and glands of the nose
superior salivatory: submandibular ganglion –> sublingual and submandibular gland

68
Q

glossopharyngeal nucleus (parasympathetic ganglia)

A

inferior salivatory: otic ganglion –> parotid gland

69
Q

mass of striated muscle that is covered with mucous membrane of the
anterior 2/3 : _____
posterior 1/3: ______

A

mouth; pharynx

70
Q

superior attachment of the tongue

A

styloid process and soft palate

71
Q

inferior attachment of the tongue

A

hyoid bone

mandible

72
Q

small nipple shaped projections on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

A

lingual papillae

73
Q

odd one out among the muscles of the tongue

A

palatoglossus (innervated by vagus)

all others innervated by hypoglossal nerve

74
Q

extrinsic muscles of the tongue

A

palatoglossus : elevation

styloglossus: retraction
hyoglossus: depression
genioglossus: protrusion

75
Q

general sensation of the anterior 2/3 of tongue

A

CN V3 (lingual nerve) vs special sensation (chorda tympani)

76
Q

special glands of the tongue

A

Salivary (Von Ebner glands): on vallate papillae

Anterior lingual glands (of Nuhn and Blandin) under the tongue apex

77
Q

orbital margins

A

superior: frontal bone
lateral: processes of the zygomatic and frontal bone
inferior: zygomatic and maxillary bone
medial: frontal bone and maxilla

78
Q

orbital walls

A

roof: orbital plate of frontal bone and lesser wing of sphenoid
lateral: greater wing of sphenoid
inferior/floor: orbital plate of maxilla
medial: orbital plate of ethmoid bone

79
Q

passes through the trochlea to insert in the sclera under the SR

A

superior oblique (intorsion)

80
Q

nucleus of the oculomotor nerve

A

ventral part of the periacqueductal gray of the midbrain at the level of the SUPERIOR colliculus

81
Q

abducens nerve nucleus

A

beneath the facial colliculus at the floor of the 4th ventricle

82
Q

difference of nucleus of trochlear nerve vs oculomotor nerve

A

trochlear: ventral border of the periacqueductal gray at the level of INFERIOR colliculus (vs superior of CN III)

83
Q

parietal lobe lesion

A

pie in the floor disorder

84
Q 
teMporal lobe (Meyer's loop)
(also called inferior optic radiation)
A

pie in the sky disorder

85
Q

if in calcarine fissure lesion

A

with macular sparing
superior bank of calcarine fissure: inferior quadrantanopsia
inferior bank: superior quadrantanopsia

86
Q

lesion in geniculocalcarine tract

A

contralateral homonymous hemianopsia

87
Q

bitemporal non-homonymous hemianopsia

A

optic chiasm lesion

88
Q

Bowman membrane vs Descemet membrane

A

layers of the cornea (avascular)
Bowman: epithelial basement membrane
Descemet: endothelial basement membrane

89
Q

canal of Schlemm

A

drainage of aqueous humor

90
Q

layers of the cornea

A 
ABCDE
anterior epithelium
Bowman membrane
corneal stroma
Descemet membrane
endothelium
91
Q

keratocytes vs keratinocytes

A

keratocytes: seen in corneal stroma
fibroblast-like cells

keratinocytes: keratin-secreting cells of the epidermis

92
Q

middle vascular tunic (uvea)

A

iris
ciliary body
choroid

93
Q

layer of retina that absorbs scattered light and forms blood-retina barrier

A

outer pigmented layer

94
Q

sclera vs lens

A

lens: type IV collagen
sclera: type I collagen

95
Q

Kiesselbach plexus

A 
sphenopalatine artery (maxillary a)
greater palatine (maxillary a)
superior labial (facial a)
anterior ethmoidal (ophthalmic a)
96
Q

ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium to clear debris and microbes

A

respiratory epithelium

97
Q

goblet cells

A

secrete mucin

with basal nuclei

98
Q

function of columnar cells with apical microvilli

A

chemosensory receptors (brush cells)

99
Q

small neuroendocrine cells secreting bioactive amines

A

Kulchitsky cells

100
Q

olfactory epithelium

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

lines superior concha at nasal cavity roof

101
Q

olfactory neurons

A

bipolar neurons

102
Q

length of external auditory meatus

A

2.5 cm

103
Q

external 2/3 is cartilaginous, internal 1/3 is bony

A

external auditory meatus

104
Q

labyrinth and lymph of inner ear

A

bony labyrinth: perilymph

membranous labyrinth: endolymph

105
Q

maculae
utricle
saccule

A

for linear acceleration in the membranous labyrinth

106
Q

for angular acceleration (in the membranous labyrinth)

A

ampullae of semicircular canals

107
Q

three parts of bony labyrinth

A

vestibule
semicircular canals
cochlea (upper: scala vestibula, lower: scala tympani)

108
Q

organ of corti

A

organ of hearing

3 rows of outer hair cells and 1 row of inner hair cell attached to tectorial membrane

109
Q

round window

A

high frequences: base

low frequencies: apex

110
Q

congenital megacolon/ Hirschsprung disease

A

squirt sign on DRE
failure of migration of neural crest cells due to RET mutation
does not have Meissner and Auerbach plexuses in the distal colon–> failure of peristalsis –> (usually cannot pass meconium within 48h of birth)

111
Q

secondary brain vesicle giving rise to medulla

A

myelencephalon

112
Q

neuroglial cells originate in the _____ except for ______ which originate from ______

A

ectoderm
microglia
mesoderm

113
Q

oligodendrocyte vs Schwann cell

A

oligodendrocytes: CNS
forms myelin sheath around SEVERAL axons

Schwann cells: PNS
forms myelin sheath around a SINGLE axon

114
Q

supratentorial level

A 
cerebrum
basal ganglia
thalamus
hypothalamus
CN I, II
115
Q

CN III to XII
cerebellum
brainstem (midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata)

A

infratentorial level

below tentorium cerebelli but above foramen magnum

116
Q

Wernicke / sensory aphasia

A

patient CANNOT understand

Wernicke : Word Salad = non-sensical sentences

117
Q

Broca / Motor aphasia

A

patient CAN understand but speech is slow and broken

Broca : Broken speech = difficulty putting words together

118
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

patient can understand and is fluent but difficulty repeating words

119
Q

Global Aphasia

A

Wernicke and Broca

120
Q

Gerstmann syndrome (MCA)

A

acalculia
agraphia
finger agnosia
left and right disorientation

121
Q

Wernicke area

A

superior temporal gyrus

122
Q

broca’s area

A

inferior frontal gyrus

123
Q

decussation of the corticospinal tract

A

lower medulla

124
Q

corticobulbar decussation

A

above each relevant CN nuclei

125
Q

VPL (ventral posterolateral nucleus)

A

spinothalamic tract

through the dorsal column

126
Q

thalamic infarction

A

Dejerine-Roussy syndrome
central pain syndrome
pure sensory loss without weakness of contralateral side

127
Q

maintain coordination of limb movements and regulation of muscle tone

A

anterior lobe of cerebellum

128
Q

anterior lobe of cerebellum

A

paleocerebellum

spinocerebellum

129
Q

posterior lobe of cerebellum

A

neocerebellum

cerebrocerebellum

130
Q

connected to cerebral cortex and coordinates voluntary movements

A

posterior lobe of cerebellum (cerebrocerebellum)

131
Q

flocculonodular lobe of cerebellum

A

archicerebellum

vestibulocerebellum

132
Q

coordination of paraxial muscles involved in EQUILIBRIUM

A

vestibulocerebellum

133
Q

posterior lobe syndrome

A

ataxia
dysmetria
dysdiadochokinesia

134
Q

truncal ataxia

A

flocculonodular syndrome

135
Q

foramina in cribriform plate of ethmoid bone

A

CN I

136
Q

optic canal

A

CN II
ophthalmic artery
central artery/vein of retina

137
Q

superior orbital fissure

A

CN III, IV, VI
frontal, lacrimal, nasociliary branches of CN V1
ophthalmic vein, superior

138
Q

foramen rotundum

A

CN V2

139
Q

foramen ovale

A

CN V3

accessory meningeal artery

140
Q

foramen spinosum

A

think MENINGEAL!
middle meningeal artery and vein
meningeal branch of CN V3

141
Q

foramen lacerum

A

greater petrosal nerve

on top is where ICA runs

142
Q

internal acoustic meatus

A

CN VII, VIII

143
Q

jugular foramen

A

CN IX, X, XI
sigmoid sinus to IJV
inferior petrosal sinus
posterior meningeal artery

144
Q

hypoglossal canal

A

CN XII

145
Q

foramen magnum

A

vertebral arteries
medulla
meninges
spinal root of CN XI

146
Q

supraorbital foramen

A

supraorbital nerve, artery, and vein

frontal nerve of CN V1

147
Q

infraorbital foramen

A

infraorbital branch of CN V2

148
Q

stylomastoid foramen

A 
CN VII
stylomastoid artery (from posterior auricular)
149
Q

mental foramen

A

adjacent to the root of 2nd premolar tooth

transmits inferior alveolar nerve (mental nerve)

150
Q

60-150 mmH2O

A

pressure of CSF

151
Q

total volume of CSF

A

130-150 mL

152
Q

Kernig sign

A

leg extension causes pain

hips and Knees flexed

153
Q

Brudzinski sign

A

passive flexion of head causes raising knees or hips in flexion
“Brud” - tatango sa brad

154
Q

lumbar puncture (L3-L4 or L4-L5)

A 
skin
superficial fascia
supraspinous ligament
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum
epidural space
dura
arachnoid
subarachnoid space (where CSF is!)
155
Q

chorea vs athetosis

A

chorea: jerking movement
athetosis: writhing movement

156
Q

diplopia
ptosis
dilated and fixed pupil

A

CN III lesion

157
Q

loss of corneal blink reflex

A

CN VII

158
Q

loss of gag reflex

A

CN IX

159
Q

dysarthria, dysphagia

A

CN X

160
Q

white matter

A

myelinated axons

deep in brain, peripheral in spinal cord

161
Q

gray matter

A

cell bodies, glial cells

peripheral in brain, deep in spinal cord

162
Q

branches in the first part of subclavian

A

vertebral a
internal thoracic a
thyrocervical trunk

PLE (2 decks)

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