Anatomy Final (Wks 7-10) Flashcards
1
Q
Why does menstruation happen?
A
When there is no fertilized egg that implants into the uterus, the endometrium will shed and cause menses
2
Q
What 2 hormones play the biggest role in uterine changes during our menstrual cycle?
A
Estrogen and progesterone
3
Q
What is the role of estrogen?
A
- Increases thickness of endometrium to prepare for potentially fertilized egg
- Triggers increase of LH and FSH levels during follicular phase to stimulate ovulation
4
Q
What is the role of progesterone?
A
- Matures endometrium by making it even thicker, spongier, and vascularized
- If fertilized egg implants into the lining, progesterone levels remain high to maintain the lining/early pregnancy
5
Q
What produces progesterone?
A
Corpus luteum
6
Q
What produces FSH and LH?
A
Anterior pituitary gland
7
Q
What produces estrogen?
A
Ovaries (specifically, the follicles)
8
Q
In females, LH is responsible for…
A
- Causing the release of an egg from the ovary (ovulation)
- Stimulating estrogen production to thicken uterine lining
9
Q
What are the phases of the menstrual cycle, from day 1 to 28? Discuss hormonal fluctuations and how it correlates with uterine changes.
A
- Days 1-7: Menses
“Follicular phase”
- Uterine lining sheds if implantation does not occur
- Estrogen at its lowest, but increases as menses persist
- LH + Progesterone at their lowest and at a steady plateau
- FSH levels higher at the beginning of menses, peaking at day 1 and steadily decreasing after
- Follicles begin to grow in the ovaries - Days 8-12: Proliferative phase
“Follicular phase”
- Uterine lining responds to increasing estrogen and begins to thicken
- LH at steady plateau
- FSH decreases
- Follicles continue to grow - Days 13-15: Ovulation
- Follicular phase ends about 14 days into our cycle and the luteal phase begins on the 15th day
- LH, FSH, and estrogen peak around day 14
- Uterine lining continues to thicken
- Follicle ruptures, egg is released - Days 16-28: Secretory phase
“Luteal phase”
- Progesterone peaks around day 17/18 along with estrogen, progesterone levels being significantly higher than estrogen
- After they peak, levels decrease steadily
- After ovulation, the ruptured follicle turns into the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone in preparation for implantation/early pregnancy to enhance blood vessels in the endometrium
- If pregnancy does not occur, corpus luteum degenerates and uterine lining sheds
- Uterine lining is thickest on day 28
10
Q
Describe the structure and function of the following: ovaries, uterus, fallopian tube, vagina, and vulva.
A
Ovaries: two ovular glands at either end of the uterus that produce hormones Estrogen and Progesterone in response to anterior pituitary hormones LH and FSH. Ova are also stored within the ovaries, where they mature.
Uterus: a pear-shaped hollow organ that supports pregnancy, being the site of implantation and development. The uterus also sheds its inner lining (endometrium) monthly if implantation does not occur. The mouth of the uterus is called the cervix.
Fallopian tubes: two thin, muscular tubes that extend from the ovaries to the uterus, capturing and transporting eggs (ova)
Vagina: inner canal connecting the vulva to the cervix and provides a pathway for sperm to enter the uterus, deliver babies, and serves as the site for sexual intercourse.
Vulva: the external genitalia, including the labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, clitoral hood, and vaginal opening. Protects internal reproductive organs and contributes to urination/sensation.
11
Q
Describe the structure and function of the following: testes, epididymis, Vas deferens, and seminal vescicle.
A
Testes: 2 oval shaped organs that produce sperm, testosterone and inhibin
Epididymis: 2 long tubes resting on the posterior aspect of each testicle. Site of sperm development and storage.
Vas Deferens: 2 long, muscular tubes that extend from the epididymis to conjoin with seminal vesicle. Transports mature sperm in preparation for ejaculation.
Seminal vesicle: sac-like pouches that attach to the vas deferens and sit at the base of the urinary bladder. Secretes fructose to make up seminal fluid to nourish sperm.
12
Q
Describe the structure and function of the following: prostate, urethra, penis, and scrotum.
A
Prostate: walnut-sized gland resting anteriorly to the rectum and inferiorly to the urinary bladder. Adds watery, alkaline fluid to raise vaginal pH.
Urethra: a tube that extends from the urinary bladder through the prostate and the penis, eventually reaching the external genitalia. This is where men also ejaculate from.
Penis: external organ made up of the root (base of penis), shaft, and glans (head) for urination and sexual intercourse. The urethral opening is at the tip of the glans. When aroused, the penis becomes erect from increase flow of blood into erectile tissue for penetrative intercourse.
Scrotum: pouch of skin testes lie within. Keeps testes at a cooler temperature by 1-2 degrees for sperm to stay alive.
13
Q
What is the function of the reproductive system?
A
Survival of the species and production of offspring
14
Q
In males, LH is responsible for…
A
Stimulating the production of testosterone
15
Q
In males, FSH is necessary for…
A
Production of sperm
16
Q
In females, FSH is responsible for…
A
- Stimulating the growth and maturation of ovarian follicles, which contain eggs
- Regulating menstrual cycle by promoting estrogen production
17
Q
What are the the endocrine and exocrine functions of the male reproductive system?
A
Endocrine: Anterior pituitary releases LH + FSH, triggering testes to secrete testosterone
Exocrine: Sperm production (semen travels through ducts to combine with sperm), ejects semen to reproduce, and excretes urine
18
Q
What does testosterone trigger?
A
Production of sperm and secondary sexual characteristics
19
Q
Give examples of male secondary sexual characteristics.
A
Hair growth, Adam’s apple, broad shoulders, voice deepening, increased muscle mass
20
Q
Males: the bladder is ________ to the rectum.
A
Anterior
21
Q
The prostate is _________ to the bladder.
A
Inferior
22
Q
The scrotum and testes are in an external sac __________.
A
Inferiorly
23
Q
What are the 3 portions of the epididymis?
A
Head, body, and tail
24
Q
Where do the vas deferens originate and connect to?
A
From the tail of the epididymis to the seminal vesicle to form the ejaculatory duct
25
What is the pampiniform plexus?
A small network of veins that drain and regulate temperature of the testes
26
What lies within the pampiniform plexus?
Testicular artery
27
What runs adjacent to the pampiniform plexus?
Vas deferens
28
What can twist and cause testicular torsion?
The spermatic cord (vas deferens, testicular artery, pampniform plexus)
29
What is the general function of the male reproductive system?
Produce, maintain, and transport sperm
30
What is the function of the ejaculatory duct?
Transport sperm and glandular secretions
31
What makes up most of seminal fluid?
Fructose
32
What is the function of the bulbourethral gland?
Secrete lubricating mucus to neutralize any urine
33
What produces sperm in the epididymis?
Seminiferous tubules
34
What can temporarily store sperm prior to ejaculation?
The ampulla of ductus deferens (the enlarged area of vas deferens behind the bladder)
35
What becomes part of the placenta?
Uterine lining
36
What determines uterine position?
Laterosacral ligament
37
What holds the ovaries in place?
Ovarian ligament
38
The muscle of the uterus is called the...
Myometrium
39
The ejaculatory ducts empty into the...
Urethra
40
The primary hormones involved in the functioning of the male reproductive system are...
FSH an LH
41
What is the most likely sit of fertilization?
Fallopian tube
42
List some examples of female secondary sex characteristics.
Breast development, widening of the hips, growth of pubic/underarm hair, and changes in fat distribution
43
The female reproductive system transports the ova to the site of...
Fertilization
44
The rise in estrogen from the dominant follicle triggers a surge in the amount of...
Progesterone
45
Spermatozoa are produced in the _________ and mature in the _________.
testes; epididymis
46
Which of the following hormones is greatly increased during ovulation?
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
47
Which hormone enhances the development of endometrial blood vessels and glycogen secreting glands in preparation for the implantation of a fertilized ovum?
Progesterone
48
Through which bodily system are we able to receive necessary oxygen and nutrients and rid of CO2 and wastes?
Integumentary system
49
What are the methods of cellular transportation?
Passive and active transport
50
What is passive transport?
When ions/molecules move along with the concentration gradient, requiring no energy
51
What are the kinds of passive transport?
Simple diffusion: molecules can easily permeate a cellular membrane
Facilitated diffusion: can be channel or carrier mediated (they have a certain shape to bind to molecules and help carry them across the cell membrane)
Osmosis: water moves from area of low solute concentration to high solute concentration
52
What is active transport?
Process that requires ATP and proteins to carry molecule against the concentration gradient
53
What are some characteristics of a cell?
1. Able to multiply, divide, and grow
2. Shape depends on function
3. Requires ATP to carry out cellular activity
54
State the cell theory.
All living organisms are composed of cells, cells are the basic unit of life, and all cells come from pre-existing cells
55
Define hypotonic, isotonic, and hypertonic solutions.
Hypotonic: solute concentration is lower outside the cell than inside, causing water to move into the cell (cell can burst)
Isotonic: solute concentration is equal on both sides, no net movement of water
Hypertonic: solute concentration is higher outside the cell, water moves out of the cell (cell shrivels)
56
There are more than _____ kinds of cells.
200
57
Which two things are required in order for filtration to occur?
Pressure and a concentration gradient
58
Which statement best describes a tissue?
Collection of similar cells that are specialized to perform a common function
59
What are the 3 main components of the cell? What are their functions?
Cell membrane: provides a barrier to cell contents, controls movement of materials into and out of cell, has receptors
Cytoplasm: inside the cell where new material is made, old is broken down (suspends all the organelles and allows for movement of material)
Nucleus: contains genetic material (DNA + chromosomes) and controls cellular activity
60
What is the responsibility of the golgi apparatus?
Packages proteins and sends them outside the cell
61
What is the responsibility of the endoplasmic reticulum?
Rough ER is involved with protein production
Smooth ER is involved with lipid synthesis
62
What is the responsibility of ribosomes?
Site of protein synthesis, translating mRNA into useful proteins
63
What is the responsibility of lysosomes?
Break down waste, old cell parts, and invading pathogens
64
What is the responsibility of mitochondria?
Generates energy (ATP) via cellular respiration for cellular activity
65
What are centrioles?
A part of cellular division that organizes the microtubules necessary for cells to physically divide
66
Discuss cellular reproduction and the differences between Mitosis vs Meiosis.
Unicellular organisms: a way to reproduce
Multicellular organisms: responsible for growth of organism, tissue repair, replacement of worn-out cells
Mitosis: results in 2 identical cells to parent cell with the same number of chromosomes
Meiosis: results in 4 gametes (sex/haploid cells) with half the chromosomes we began with; crossover occurs to increase gene variability; there are 2 parts, meiosis I and meiosis II
67
The 4 types of tissues are...
1. Connective
2. Epithelial
3. Muscle
4. Nervous
68
What tissue is considered avascular?
Epithelial
69
The main properties of muscles are...
Contractibility, elasticity, extensibility, and excitability
70
Which of the following types of tissues forms continuous sheets that serve as linings?
Epithelial
71
Which of the following are rubber-like cords that stretch as muscles and bones move?
Tendons
71
Which of the following protects the ends of bones?
Cartilage
72
Which of the following act as protective plates, but also have a sensation function?
Nails
73
What are tissues?
A collection of cells that perform a specialized function
74
What does connective tissue do?
Helps us move, flexibility, adds support and structure
75
List examples of connective tissue.
Skin, tendons, bones, ligaments, adipose tissue, and cartilage
76
In cell division, DNA interacts with...
Enzymes and proteins
77
Mitosis occurs only in...
Eukaryotes
78
Errors in mitosis can cause...
Cancer
79
What are the 3 types of muscular tissue? What controls voluntary and involuntary movement?
1. Skeletal: Voluntary movement of trunk and limbs; attached to bone
2. Smooth: Involuntary movement; found in hollow organs (asides from the heart) and blood vessels
3. Cardiac: Involuntary movement; found in the heart
80
What is nervous tissue responsible for?
Generate and conduct electrical signals in the body
81
What is nervous tissue composed of?
Nerve and glial cells
82
Afferent nerves carry signals ______ the brain, while efferent nerves carry signals ______.
Towards; away from the brain
83
What are the 4 kinds of bones? List an example for each.
1. Long bone; femur
2. Irregular bone; vertebrae
3. Short bone; carpals
4. Flat bone; parietal bone (skull)
84
What do bones provide?
1. Support
2. Movement
3. Production of RBCs and some WBCs
4. Storage of chemical energy
85
From outermost to innermost, what are the layers of bone?
Periosteum --> compact bone --> spongy bone --> bone marrow
86
What portion of bone produces blood cells?
Bone marrow (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets)
87
What is the difference between a tendon and ligament?
Tendons connect muscles to bone, while ligaments connect bone to bone
88
When do fingernails grow the fastest?
During the summer
89
What color are healthy nails?
Pink
90
What may clubbed nails be representative of?
Lung or cardiovascular disease
91
What forms the integumentary system?
Skin, hair, nails
92
What are the 3 layers of the skin, from outermost to innermost?
Epidermis, dermis, subcutaneous layer
93
What are the 6 functions of the skin?
1. Protection (against pathogens, physical damage, and UV)
2. Sensation (touch, pain, heat)
3. Thermoregulation (sweating, regulate blood flow)
4. Metabolism (vitamin D)
5. Storage (blood is shunted to other parts of body if needed)
6. Excretion (ammonia, urea, salts)
94
Where are blood vessels found in bone?
Periosteum
95
What layer are blood vessels found in skin?
Dermis
96
Define syndrome. Give an example.
Associated with several clinically recognizable signs/features i.e. down syndrome
97
Describe the difference between etiology vs idiopathic.
Etiology is the study of known causes, while idiopathic describes a disease with an unknown cause
98
Define iatrogenic.
Adverse effects/complications caused by medical treatment or advice
99
What is a communicable disease?
Infectious/contagious disease i.e. flu
100
Define incubation.
Time between exposure to a pathogen and onset of symptoms
101
Describe primary location vs metastasis.
Primary location is the cancer's first location, but once it begins to spread to other parts of the body thats metastasis (a secondary location)
102
Define remission.
A no longer active pathology
103
What are examples of blood borne diseases?
Hepatitis B&C, HIV, hemorrhagic fever
104
If there is inflammation present what would be some of the characteristics we would see on ultrasound?
1. Increased blood flow/speckled blood flow aka hyperemic area
2. Possible fluid build up
105
Describe the differences between benign vs malignant neoplasms.
Benign: tumor cells grow locally, not cancerous, cannot spread by invasion, slow growing
Malignant: cancerous cells invade neighboring tissues and enter blood vessels, can metastasize, fast-growing, irregularly bordered
106
What may be a sign of a cancerous growth?
A painless lump
107
What are ultrasound characteristics of a benign growth?
Capsulated
Smooth bordered
Wider than tall, aligning with tissue planes
Variable to intense hyperechogenicity
Homogenous
Lateral shadowing
Minimum attenuation/posterior enhancement
108
What are ultrasound characteristics of a malignant growth?
Shape varies
Taller than wide
Irregular or spiculated border
Echogenic halo
Hypoechoic
Heterogenous
Attenuated with obscured posterior margin
Calcifications
Infiltration across tissue planes
Lobulated
109
What is the main difference between a viral vs bacterial infectious disease.
Viruses are systemic, while bacterial are localized and can induce swelling/pain
110
What are the methods of transmission of an infectious disease?
Droplet, fecal-oral, sexually, birth, oral, direct contact
111
A congenital disease is one that is....
Present in-utero i.e. cleft lip/palate, spina bifida
112
What does mono do to the spleen?
Makes it increase in size
113
How do pathogens cause disease?
By damaging cells or producing toxins
114
What is atherosclerosis? What are some risk factors?
Build of of plaque in arterial wall, which causes repeated injury to the walls and narrows the vessel limiting normal blood flow
Risk factors include hypertension, smoking, diabetes, obesity, hyperlipidemia, physical inactivity
115
What are modifiable vs non-modifiable risk factors?
Modifiable: physical inactivity, diet, high cholesterol, diabetes, alcohol intake
Non-modifiable: genetics, family history, age, gender
116
What are the most common risk factors for many diseases?
Obesity, smoking, hypertension
117
What is epidemiology?
The study of factors that cause or encourage disease
118
Define endemic, epidemic, and pandemic.
Endemic: always present within a population
Epidemic: occurs in unusually high number of people
Pandemic: epidemics world wide
119
What is a virus?
Small, infectious agent that replicates INSIDE cells of living organisms i.e. cold, flu, herpes
120
What is inflammation?
A vascular response to harmful stimuli, causing redness, swelling, and pain (increases blood flow and white blood cells to site of injury)
121
T or F. Inflammation = infection.
False; infection is caused by a microorganism, while inflammation is simply the response to the pathogen. Inflammation could still be present during an infection.
122
How do inflammation and infection appear on ultrasound?
Inflammation = fluid build up, infection = solid and anechoic areas, complex, inflammation to surrounding tissues
123
T or F. You cannot have cholecystitis without the presence of gallstones.
False; you can still experience acalculous cholecystitis regardless of the presence of stones/sludge
124
How does acute cholecystitis appear on ultrasound?
Wall is thickened and there can be pericholecystic fluid within the GB walls
125
What is a gallbladder polyp usually the result of?
Chronic inflammation
126
How do gallbladder polyps appear on ultrasound?
Echogenic, immobile, round, no shadowing
127
What is the most common way for cancer to spread?
Via the lymphatic and circulatory system
128
Define the difference between hypertrophy vs hyperplasia.
Hypertrophy is when cells are enlarged, but hyperplasia is when there is an increased number of cells (same size)
129
How does a liver hemangioma appear on ultrasound?
Hyperechoic spot, can be all kinds of sizes
130
What is a liver hemangioma?
Network of small blood vessels that are bengin
131
What is the most common place to see metastasis?
The liver
132
How does a malignant ovarian mass appear on ultrasound?
Very complex with solid + fluid components
Would be hard to see on transvaginal US, ovaries are too high up
133
Define disease.
An abnormal condition that affects structure or function of all or part of an organism with associated signs or symptoms
134
Who submits the requisition form?
The doctor
135
The correct patient is ...
Imperative
136
The patient is NPO. What is NOT included in an NPO prep?
No medicine can be taken
137
When performing a RUQ ultrasound you may need to change the patient's position. Which position is not used in a RUQ exam?
Prone
138
When scanning a patient the first thing you should do is...
Survey the area of interest
139
Hand washing is...
the mechanical removal of microorganisms from the hands and forearms
140
Hand washing protects others poorly from what kind of diseases?
Droplet or airborne (measles, flu, chicken pox)
141
Hand washing protects others the best from diseases spread via the ________ route.
Fecal-oral
142
If you were exposed to a hazardous material or chemical you would look for which of the following?
MSDS book
143
A patient with a low hematocrit would indicate...
too few red blood cells
144
The etiology of your patients pathology is congenital. The term etiology means...
Cause
145
Posterior to the fluid-filled gallbladder, the sonographer will see...
posterior enhancement
146
Metastatic masses can have many sonographic appearances. If your patient has a solid mass it would appear as which of the following?
Echogenic
147
Metastatic masses can have many sonographic appearances. If your patient has a cystic mass it would appear as which of the following?
Without echoes
148
What is pyelonephritis? What are some of the symptoms?
Bacterial infection of the kidney; pain, fever, chills, urgency to urinate and general malaise
149
What is pyelonephritis generally caused by?
Ascent of bacteria from the bladder
150
What is the appearance of pyelonephritis on ultrasound?
The renal parenchyma is replaced by cystic spaces, kidneys are enlarged. There may be a very echogenic staghorn calculus with posterior shadowing.
151
The most common functional cyst occurs during..
Right before or during ovulation
152
Protozoa is/are a human...
parasites
