Anatomy-Endterm Flashcards

1
Q

Function of cartilage

A
  • Bear mechanical stress
  • Shock-absorber
  • Essential for growth and development of bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Characteristics of cartilage

A
  • Has periosteum that surrounds on all sides of the cartilage
  • Made of chondrocytes that are within lacunae
  • Ground substance has proteoglycan and hyaluronic acid which absorbs stare so when you touch it, it comes back like a spring
  • Avascular and no nerve supply
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Cartilage development

A
  • Mesenchymal cells differentiate into chondroblasts
  • Chondroblasts mitotically divide and form isogenic groups
  • Chondroblasts secrete the ECM
  • ECM captures the chondroblasts and divides them into separate cells called chondrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Chondrocytes

A

Can’t divide and mature cartilage cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Interstitial growth

A

Growth that results from the chondroblasts. It goes along the length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Appositional growth

A

Growth that happens in the perichondrium and grows along the width

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hyaline cartilage

A
  • Contains collagen type II fibrils and ground substance
  • Has perichondrium all around it
  • Fresh hyaline cartilage is whitish-bluish
  • In the embryo:forms the temporary skeleton
  • Chondrocytes that are active show basophilia along the lacunae
  • Inactive chondrocytes have white spaces which is for glycogen storage and fat droplets
  • Matrix calcifies
  • Supports structures and is flexible
  • Found in articulations cartilage, nasal septum, epiphyseal plate, respiratory passages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Articular cartilage

A

Does not have perichondrium . So get nutrients from diffusion of the synovial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Epiphyseal plate

A

Doesn’t have perichondrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Perichondrium

A

Dense irregular connective tissue that has vascularity and blood supply and provides it to the avascular cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Elastic cartilage

A
  • Has elastin and collagen type II fibers
  • Matrix doesn’t calcify
  • Has perichondrium around it
  • Provides support and maintains shape of structure
  • Ex: outer part of ear, external auditory canal, epiglottis of larynx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fibrocartilage

A
  • Mostly has collagen type I fibrils but also has collagen type II fibrils
  • Chondrocytes are arranged by themselves or in isogenous groups in rows
  • In between the rows, there are collagen type I fibers
  • No perichondrium
  • Matric calcifies
  • Is acidophilic due to collagen type I
  • Function is support and rigidity
  • Ex: meniscus, intervertebral disc, pubic symphysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Function of bone

A
  • Protection
  • Movement
  • Creating blood vessels in the bone marrow
  • Storing Ca and P
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Compact bone

A

Composed of longitudinal circular structures called osteons or Haversians

Help resist stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lamella

A

Concentric rings around the central part. Used to find the age of the bone

Between lamellae are lacunae consisting of osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cannaliculi

A

Projections of the lacunae that connect with one another to provide nutrients and blood supply.

Filled with extracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Spongy Bone

A

Does not have osteons. Instead lamellae are arranged in a sheet with spaces in them called trabiculae (help make the bone lighter)

Hematopoeisis occurs in spongy tissue. Each trabiculae has lamina consisting of osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Trabiculae

A

Lines across areas of stress. Blood fills the spaces of the trabiculae and this nourishes osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Osteopenia or progenitor cells

A

Mesenchymal cells that will form osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Osteoblasts

A

Mitotically active cells that divide and give rise to osteocytes.

Work in teams to make new bone called osteoid

Help deposit calcium and minerals into the bone

Found at the edge of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Osteoclasts

A

Derived from monocytes

Break down bone and bring calcium from the bone to the bloodstream. So blood Ca levels are regulated by osteoclasts

Found at the edge of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Osteocytes

A

Mature, non-dividing cells trapped in lacunae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ossification

A

Happens in embryological development from week 6-8

2 types:

  • Intramembranous
  • Endochondral
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

Mesenchymal tissue is replaced by ossified tissue. Osteoblasts begin to appear and form spongy bone. Spongy bone is remodeled to form compact bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

Cartilage provides the framework of the bone. Osteoclasts will begin to digest the cartilage in the diaphysis and osteoblasts will lay down new bone. Blood vessels will begin to emerge and the medullary cavity will hollow out. Blood vessels and osteoblasts will then go to the epiphysis

Cartilage will remain only at the articular surface and epiphyseal plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Primary center of ossification

A

Diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Secondary center of ossification

A

Epiphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Growth of bone

A

Osteoclasts will eat up a portion of the epiphyseal plate and then osteoblasts will put in new bone

When a person becomes an adult, epiphyseal plate will become epiphyseal line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Repair of bone

A
  • Form fracture hemmatoma: clots blood
  • Fibrocartilage callus formation: fibroblasts invade the site and form collagen fibers to bring the broken pieces of bone together
  • Bony callus formation: osteoblasts will form bone
  • Bone remodeling: spongy bone is converted to compact bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bone takes so long to heal…

A

Since calcium and phosphorus are deposited gradually over a period of months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Calcium and phosphorus

A

Helps harden bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Types of muscle tissue

A
  • Skeletal: allows movement and attached to bone
  • Cardiac
  • Smooth: found in the walls of hollow contracting organs (blood vessels, urinary bladder, digestive tract)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Function of muscle

A
  • Protection
  • Movement
  • Generating heat through involuntary contraction of skeletal muscles
  • Posture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Properties of muscle tissue

A
  • Excitability
  • Condunctivity
  • Elasticity
  • Contractability
  • Extensibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Histology of skeletal muscle

A

Is striated, long, multinucleated, voluntary

Has 3 CT coverings: epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium

Cells don’t divide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Epimysium

A

Dense irregular connective tissue that covers fasicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Perimysium

A

Collagen and elastin fibrous connective tissue in between fasicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Endomysium

A

Reticular connective tissue in between muscles cells/fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Fascia

A

Covering outside of the epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Tendon

A

Cord-like extension of outer fascia that connects a muscle to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Muscle belly

A

Portion of muscle in between tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Musculotendinous junction

A

Part where the epimysium comes together to form a tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Aponeurosis

A

Broad sheet-like extension of pearly-white fibrous tissue of deep outer fascia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Raphe

A

same like aponeurosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Skeletal muscle cells

A

Multinucleated and are striated, voluntary, and don’t divide

Don’t have cellular junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Satellite cells

A

Stem cells at the edge of skeletal muscle cells that can differentiate into cells when there is an injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Sarcoplasm

A

Cytoplasm of muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

ER of muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sarcolemma

A

Cell membrane of muscle cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Forming skeletal muscle cells

A

Hundreds of myoblasts come together and fuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Growth of skeletal muscle cells

A

Can’t divide so growth is through enlargement of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T-tubules

A

Helps conduct impulses. Leads to Ca release when an AP has been produced. Go into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Role of calcium

A
  • Stored=relaxed

- Released=contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Myofibrils

A

Have a lot in muscle cells. They have thick and thin microfilaments which are responsible for contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Striation of muscle cells

A

Have two bands

  • Light band (I band)
  • Dark band (A band)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

I band

A

Is the light band. Has a freak line in the middle called the Z disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A band

A

Is the dark band. Has a light region in the center called the H zone and a dark line called the M line

Can only see the H zone is relaxed cells, not contracting one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Thick myofilament

A

Made up of myosin.
Each myosin looks like 2 golf heads intertwined together
Extend towards the thin filaments and bind to it
Held in place by the M line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Thin myofilament

A

Made of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin

Held in place by the Z disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

The junction between the skeletal muscle cell and the nerve fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Cardiac muscle cells

A

Striated, involuntary, highly branched, single central nucleus

Cells are connected by intercalated discs

Has only endomysium

Has T tubules+sarcoplasmic reticulum

No neuromuscular junction+mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Intercalated discs

A

Contains gap junctions and desmosomes which allows the cells to work in syncytium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Smooth muscle cells

A

Involuntary, small, tapered, central nucleus

Can divide and regenerate

Form 2 sheets: longitudinal+circular

Has only endomysium

No T-tubules and sarcoplasmic reticulum

Has gap junctions and no neuromuscular junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Longitudinal sheets

A

Wide and short lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Circular

A

Long and narrow lumen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Regeneration of smooth muscle

A

Can grow (hypertrophy) and some can divide (hyperplasia)

New fibers can form from stem cells in the blood vessel walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

4 classifications of skeletal muscles based on fasicle arrangement

A
  • Parallel
  • Convergent
  • Pennate
  • Circular
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Parallel classification

A

Most common classification. These muscles are not that strong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Strap-like broad attachment

A

So basically aponeurosis.

Ex: satorius and sternohyoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Strap-like with tendinous intersections

A

Rectus abdominus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Strap like with muscle belly

A

Has a tendon in between muscle

Ex: biceps brachii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Convergent muscles

A

All meet up at one point. They are triangular or fan-shaped

Ex: pectoralis major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Pennate

A

They attach to the intersection at one point (unipennate), two points (bipennate), or many points (multipennate)

Have the highest concentration of fibers and are the most powerful muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Unipennate

A

Attaches at one point

Ex: exterior digitorum longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Bipennate

A

Attaches at two ends

Ex: Rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Multipennate

A

Attaches to bone at many sides

Ex: deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Circular muscles

A

Arranged in concentric rings around an external body opening

Ex: orbicularis oris muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Functional muscle groups

A

Can be divided into:

  • Agonist
  • Antagonist
  • Synergists
  • Fixators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Agonists (prime movers)

A

Muscles that provide the major force for flexion

Ex: biceps brachii in the flexion of the arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Antagonists

A

Go against the force of the agonist

Ex: triceps brachii in elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Synergists

A

Muscles that stabilizes the agonists and antagonists and makes sure it doesn’t rotate

Ex: brachialis in elbow flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Fixators

A

Muscles that fix against bone so that the bone doesn’t move as well

Ex: serratous anterior muscle attaches the scapula to the thorax during arm movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Rectus

A

Fasicles are arranged vertically

Ex: Rectus abdominus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Transversus

A

Fasicles are arranged horizontally

Ex: transverse abdominus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Oblique

A

Fasicles are arranged diagonally

Ex: External oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Brachium

A

Arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Frontalis

A

Near the frontal bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Occipitalis

A

Located near the occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Externus (superficialis)

A

Visible at the body’s surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Internal (profundus)

A

In deep muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Externalis

A

Muscles outside organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Internalis

A

Muscles inside an organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Minumus

A

Smallest

Ex: gluteus minimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Medius

A

Middle

Ex: gluteus minimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Maximus

A

Largest

Ex: gluteus maximus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Longus

A

Longest

Ex: fibularis longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Brevis

A

Shorter than longus

Ex: fibularis brevis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Tertius

A

Shortest

Ex: fibularis tertius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Biceps

A

2 heads

Ex: biceps brachii and biceps femoris

100
Q

Triceps

A

3 heads

Ex: triceps brachii

101
Q

Quadriceps

A

4 heads

Ex: quadriceps femoris

102
Q

Deltoid

A

Triangular-shapes

103
Q

Serratous

A

Saw-toothed shape

104
Q

Teres

A

Round or cylindrical

105
Q

Rhomboidus

A

Rhomboid shape

106
Q

Trapezius

A

Trapezoid shapes

107
Q

Flexor

A

Decreases angle

Ex: flexor carpi radialis

108
Q

Extensor

A

Increases angle

Ex: extensor carpii ulnaris

109
Q

Abductor

A

Moving away from midline

Ex: abductor pollicus longus

110
Q

Adductor

A

Moving towards the midline

Ex: adductor longus

111
Q

Levator

A

Moves upwards

Ex: levator scapulae

112
Q

Depressor

A

Moves downwards

Ex: depressor labii inferioris

113
Q

Supinator

A

Moves palm up

114
Q

Pronator

A

Moves palm down

Ex: pronator teres

115
Q

Motor fibers

A

Make up 60% of innervated nerves

Have 3 types:

  • Large alpha myelinated efferents which supply extrafusal muscle fibers
  • Small gamma unmyelinated efferents which supply intramural muscle fibers
  • Fine non-myelinated efferents which supply blood vessels
116
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

Axon terminal lies in a trough-like depression

Also has a unique basal lamina that is not in synapses of neurons

117
Q

Basal lamina

A

Contains acetylcholinesterase which makes sure that only one twitch happens at a time

118
Q

Sensory fibers

A

Make up 40% of innervated nerves

Have 2 sensory fibers:

  • Primary sensory ending (anulospiral ending): in intrafusal fibers and innervated the nucleus
  • Secondary sensory endings (flower-spray endings): in intrafusal fibers and innervate areas around the nucleus
119
Q

Muscle spindle

A

Made up of intrafusal muscle fibers and act as stretch receptors

Help regulate rate and contraction of extrafusal muscles by influencing alpha neurons

120
Q

Head

A

Superior part of the body that connects to the trunk by the neck

Houses the brain

121
Q

Function of head

A
  • Helps in identity
  • Masticulatory devices (chewing)
  • Has special sensory organs
  • Beginning of food intake
  • Respiration
122
Q

Skull

A

Skeleton of the head that is divided into the viscerocranium and neurocranium

Has sutures that are mostly fibrous joints. Only movable joint is the temporimandibular joint

123
Q

Neurocranium

A

Houses the brain. Consist of the skull cap (calvaria) and cranial base

124
Q

Skull cap (calvaria)

A
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
  • Occipital
125
Q

Cranial base

A
  • Temporal
  • Sphenoidal
  • Ethmoidal
126
Q

Viscerocranium

A

Houses the other organs of the face. Made of 15 bones including

  • Maxilla
  • Mandible
  • Orbit
  • Vomer
  • Zygomatic
127
Q

Superior aspect of cranium

A

Has the frontal, parietal, and occipital bones

Has three sutures: sagittal, coronal, and lamboid

Formen: parietal emissary foremen

Landmarks: lambda, bregma

128
Q

Lateral aspect of cranium

A

Bones: frontal, parietal, occipital, temporal

Landmarks: asterion (occipital bone), pterion (parietal bone), mastoid process

Sutures: coronal and lamboid

Foramen: mastoid emissary foramen

129
Q

Fasciae aspect of cranium

A

Bones: frontal, temporal, zygomatic, mandible, maxilla, lacrimal

Sutures: intermaxillary and internasal

Landmarks nasion (connecting internal suture to something else)

Foramen: infraorbital, mental, supraorbital

Cavities: nasal and orbital

130
Q

Posterior aspect of cranium

A

Bones: occipital, parietal

Sutures: sagittal and lamboid

Landmarks: lambda

131
Q

Basal view of cranium

A

Divided into anterior, middle, and posterior parts

132
Q

Anterior basal part

A
  • Hard palate: roof of the oral cavity and divided into palatine process of maxilla and horizontal process of palatine bone
  • Posterior nasal aperture
133
Q

Middle part of basal part

A
  • Infratemporal and pharyngeal regions

- Temporal, sphenoid, and basal part of occipital bone

134
Q

Posterior basal part

A
  • Foramen magnum

- Occipital bone

135
Q

Incisive foramen

A

Located in the palatine process of the maxilla

Has the nasopalatine nerve and greater palatine artery

136
Q

Greater and lesser palatine foramen

A

Located in the horizontal process of palatine bone

Greater and lesser palatine vessels pass through it

137
Q

Foramen ovale

A

Located in sphenoid bone

Contains:

  • Mandibular nerve
  • Accessory meningeal artery
  • Lesser petrosal nerve
  • Emissary vein
138
Q

Jugular foramen

A

Located in temporal bone

Contains 9,10,11 cranial nerves and sigmoid sinus

139
Q

Carotid canal

A

Located anterior to jugular foramen

Contains internal carotid artery

140
Q

Stylomastoid foramen

A

Located lateral to jugular foramen

Contains facial nerve and 7 cranial nerve

141
Q

Mastoid foramen

A

Located in the mastoid process

Contains emissary vein

142
Q

Hypoglossal canal

A

Near the condyles of the occipital bone

Contains the hypoglossal nerve

143
Q

Formen magnum

A

Contains the medulla oblongata

144
Q

Cranial fossa

A

Divided up into anterior, posterior, and middle parts

145
Q

Anterior cranial fossa

A
  • Orbital plate of frontal bone
  • Cristal galli
  • Cribiform plate of ethmoid bone
146
Q

Middle cranial fossa

A
  • Pitutary fossa
  • Petrus part of temporal bone
  • Foramen ovale
  • Foramen rotundum
  • Optic canal
  • Superior orbital fissure
147
Q

Posterior cranial fossa

A
  • Basilar part of occipital bone
  • Squamous part of occipital bone
  • Formen magnum
  • Groove for sigmoid sinus
148
Q

Walls of cranial cavity

A

Divided into anterior, middle, and posterior regions

149
Q

Anterior wall of cranial cavity

A
  • Orbital plate of frontal bone

- Cribiform plate of ethmoid bone

150
Q

Middle wall of cranial fossa

A
  • Sphenoid

- Temporal bone

151
Q

Posterior wall of cranial cavity

A

-Occipital and temporal bone

152
Q

Lateral wall of cranial cavity

A
  • Frontal
  • Parietal
  • Temporal
  • Occipital
153
Q

Anterior and posterior ethmoidal foramen

A

Anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerves and vessels

154
Q

Cribiform foramen

A

Olfactory nerves

155
Q

Optic canal

A

Optic nerve and ophthalmic artery

156
Q

Foreman rotundum

A

3 cranial nerve

157
Q

Formen spinosum

A
  • Middle meningeal vessel

- Nervous spinosus

158
Q

Internal acoustic meatus

A

7 and 8 cranial nerve

159
Q

Dural folds

A

Double layers of the meningeal part of the dura matter that form pouches

Include:

  • Falx cerebelli
  • Falx cerebri
  • Tentorium cerebelli
160
Q

Dura matter

A

Made of 2 layers

  • Endostinal: more superficial
  • Meningeal: more deep
161
Q

Dural venous sinus

A
  • Superior and inferior sagittal sinus
  • Sigmoid sinus
  • Transverse sinus
  • Staight sinus
162
Q

Scalp

A

Soft tissue covering cranium

Borders:

  • Posterior: superior nuchal line of occipital bone
  • Lateral: superior temporal line
  • Anterior: supraorbital margin
163
Q

Layers of scalp

A
  • Skin: is thin and has many sweat and sebaceous glands and hair follicles and is very vascular so heals quickly
  • Dense connective tissue: subcutaneous tissue that binds to skin
  • Aponeurosis: strong tendinous sheet that covers the skull
  • Loose CT: sponge like CT that allows free movement and blood to accumulate when there’s injury
  • Periosteal: bone
164
Q

Subcutaneous muscle

A

Binds to skin and not muscle which is why we can do fascial expressions

Develops from the 2nd pharyngeal arch in the mesoderm and is innervated by motor branches of the fascial nerve

165
Q

Muscles of scalp

A

Occipitofrontalis muscle

166
Q

Muscles of eye

A

Orbicularis oculli

167
Q

Muscles of nose

A
  • Nasalis

- Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi

168
Q

Muscles of mouth

A
  • Orbicularis oris
  • Buccinator
  • Levator labii superioris
  • Depressor labii inferioris
  • Zygomatic major and minor
169
Q

Muscles of ear

A

-Auricularis superior, posterior, and anterior

170
Q

Muscles of neck

A

Platsyma

171
Q

External carotid artery

A

Gives rise to:

  • Fascial: superior labial, inferior labial, lateral nasal, nasal branches
  • Maxillary: mental and infraorbital
  • Occipital
  • Posterior auricular
  • Superficial temporal
172
Q

Internal carotid

A

Gives rise to ophthalmic artery

173
Q

Arteries in front of ear

A
  • Branches of ophthalmic: supraorbital and supratrochlear

- Branches from external carotid: superficial temporal

174
Q

Arteries behind ear

A

Branches from external carotid: posterior auricular, occipital

175
Q

Angular vein

A

Formed from supraorbital and supratrochlear

176
Q

Fascial veins

A

Continuation of angular

Recieves external nasal and superior+inferior labial

177
Q

Retromandibular vein

A

Formed from superficial temporal and maxillary

Divides into anterior and posterior divisions

178
Q

Common fascial vein

A

Formed from fascial and anterior of retromandibular

Drains into internal carotid

179
Q

External jugular vein

A

Posterior division of retromandibular and posterior auricular

Drains into subclavian vein

180
Q

Internal jugular vein

A

Continuation of sigmoid sinus

181
Q

Superior and inferior ophthalmic veins

A

Drains into cavernous sinus

182
Q

Trigeminal nerves (5th cranial)

A
  • Opthalmic division: supratrochlear and supraorbital
  • Maxilla: infraorbital
  • Mandible: superficial temporal and mental
183
Q

Dorsal rami of spinal nerves

A
  • Greatre occipital (C2)

- 3rd occipital (C3)

184
Q

Cervical plexus

A
  • Lesser occipital (C2,3)

- Greater auricular (C2,3)

185
Q

Sensory in front of ear

A
  • Supratrochlear
  • Surpraorbital
  • Zygimaticotemporal
  • Auriculotempotal
186
Q

Motor in front of ear

A

Fascial nerve (temporal branch)

187
Q

Sensory behind the ear

A

-Dorsal rami of spinal nerves

188
Q

Behind the ear motor

A

Posterior auricular branch of fascial nerve

189
Q

Superficial ring of lymph nodes

A
  • Occipital
  • Mastoid
  • Parotid
  • Buccal
190
Q

Deep cervical lymph nodes

A

Located along internal jugular vein

Superior and inferior nodes: jugulodigastric and jugulo-omohyoid

Jugular lymphatic duct: drains into junction of internal jugular and subclavian vein

191
Q

Nervous system

A

Made of the central and peripheral nervous systems

192
Q

Peripheral nervous system

A

Transmits information from and to the nervous system by efferent and afferent neurons respectively

193
Q

Function of nervous system

A
  • Reception of information from external and internal environment
  • Integrate and analyze incoming information
  • Generate new info
  • Conduct signal time efferent tissue
194
Q

Neurons

A

Star-shaped cells that transmit electrical signal

195
Q

Support cells

A

Also called glial cells and are not excitable and surround neuron

196
Q

Characteristic of neurons

A
  • Longevity
  • Can’t divide
  • High metabolic rate
197
Q

Parts of neuron

A
  • Cell body
  • Axon
  • Dendrite
198
Q

Axons

A

Long and thin and transmit information from cell

199
Q

Electrical impulses are always…

A

One direction

200
Q

Cell body

A

All protein production happens here since Nissl body (endoplasmic reticulum) is here

201
Q

Nuclei

A

Clusters of cell body in CNS

202
Q

Ganglia

A

Cluster if cell bodies in PNS

203
Q

Nissl stain

A

Won’t show up in the axons or dendrites

204
Q

Dendrites

A

Extension from cell body and receives information

205
Q

Strength of axon

A

Due to cytoskeleton

206
Q

Anterograde transport

A

Carries proteins to axon

207
Q

Retrograde transport

A

Brings back proteins to cell body

208
Q

Action potential

A

Generated at axon hillock. Ca enters and allows neurotransmitter to be released

209
Q

Telodendria

A

Unmyleinated ends of the axon. Have support cells around it for support

210
Q

Bouton

A

Bulb at end of telodendria that helps release neurotransmitter

211
Q

Synapse

A

Junction from one neuron to another cell or neuron

212
Q

Neuromuscular synapse

A

Between neuron and muscle

Always use acetylcholine

213
Q

Neuroglandular

A

Between one neuron and a gland

214
Q

Presynaptic neuron

A

Transmits the impulse

215
Q

Postsynaptic neuron

A

Recieves the impulse

216
Q

Electric synapses

A

Occurs between two dendrites through gap junctions

Rare in the CNS and PNS

Allows groups of cells to work together as a single unit

217
Q

Chemical synapses

A

Between an axon and a dendrite and chemicals are released

218
Q

Excitatory ion channel synapse

A

Opens Na channels allowing depolarization

Ex: glutamate, aspartate, acetylcholine

219
Q

Inhibitory ion channel synapse

A

Allows chlorine to enter leading to hyperpolarization

Ex: glycine and GABA

220
Q

Axodendritic

A

Between axon and dendrite

Most common type

221
Q

Axosomatic

A

Between axon and cell body

222
Q

Axoaxonic

A

Between axon and axon

Less common

223
Q

Dendrosomatic

A

Between dendrite and cell body

224
Q

Unipolar or pseudounipolar

A

Has only one process from cell body

One process divides into 2: one receiving and one giving information

Unipolar neurons used to be bipolar

225
Q

Bipolar

A

Has 2 process

Found in rare neurons in special sensory organs (eye)

226
Q

Multipolar

A

Has many dendritic processs and common axon

Very common

227
Q

Sensory neurons

A

Also known as afferent neurons. Are unipolar neurons that go to dorsal root of spinal chord. Some are bipolar

Cell body is located in ganglia (dorsal root)

228
Q

Motor neurons

A

Efferent neurons that are multipolar. Cell bodies are located in ventral root in spinal chord

229
Q

Interneuron

A

Connects the motor and sensory neurons together

Is short and most and multipolar

230
Q

Types of inter neurons

A

In cerebellum: purkinje cells, stelate cells, basket cells

In cerebrum (cerebral cortex): pyramidal cells

231
Q

Glial cells in CNS

A
  • Astrocytes
  • Ependymal cells
  • Microglia
  • Oligodendrocytes
232
Q

Astrocytes

A

Most abundant cells that are star-shaped

Helps reuptake protein back to cell body (retrograde), recycles and reuses neurotransmitter, part of blood-brain barrier, produces molecules necessary for growth

233
Q

Blood-brain barrier

A

Prevents the passage of large macromolecules and pathogens between the blood and brain

-Made of Astrocytes and endothelial cells lining the blood

234
Q

Microglia

A

Smallest cell and least abundant

Derived from monocytes and are the macro phases of CNS

Found only in areas of inflammation

235
Q

Ependymal cells

A

Line the central canal of spinal chord and brain

Have cilia

Produce cerebrospinal fluid and help circulate it

236
Q

Oligodendrocytes

A

Produces the myelin sheath in CNS.

Wraps around many axons

237
Q

Glial cells in PNS

A
  • Satellite cells

- Schwann cells

238
Q

Satellite cells

A

Surround neuron cell bodies for support

239
Q

Schwann cells

A

Wraps around axons to form myelin sheath. One cell for one axon

240
Q

Nerves

A

Composed of only axons without dendrites and cell body

Carry sensory or motor fibers

241
Q

3 connective tissues that surround neurons

A
  • Epineurium
  • Perineurium
  • Endoneurium
242
Q

Epineurium

A

Thick connective tissue that surrounds fascicles

243
Q

Perimysium

A

Dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle

244
Q

Endoneirium

A

Thin connective tissue that surround each neuron after the myelin sheath

245
Q

Myelin sheath

A

Forms an insulating layer and prevents leakage of the electrical current

246
Q

Cell bodies of sympathetic ganglia

A

Smaller than sensory neurons and have satellite cells surrounding them

247
Q

Repair of neurons

A

When neuron is damaged, nucleus will go to the periphery and Schwann cells will proliferate to put the two halves back together

If this doesn’t happen, leads to traumatic neuroma