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Neurology-First Aid 2017 > Anatomy and Physiology > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

Part of the neuron that is visible with Nissl staining

A

Cell bodies and dendrites

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2
Q

Structure in dendrite stained by Nissl staining

A

RER

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3
Q

Structure of neuron not stained by Nissl staining

A

Axons - lack RER

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4
Q

Degeneration of axon distal to site of injury and axonal retraction proximally

A

Wallerian degeneration

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5
Q

Signal transmitting cells of the nervous system

A

Neurons

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6
Q

Part of the neuron that sends output

A

Cell bodies and axons

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7
Q

Part of the neuron that receives input

A

Dendrites

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8
Q

Astrocyte marker

A

GFAP

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9
Q

Tissue astrocytes derived from

A

Neuroectoderm

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10
Q

Virus that infects astrocytes

A

JC virus

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11
Q

GFAP positive cerebellar mass in children

A

Astrocytoma

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12
Q

Cell involved in reactive gliosis in response to neural injury

A

Astrocyte

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13
Q

Astrocytes are a component of what physical structure

A

BBB

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14
Q

Buffering provided by astrocytes

A

Extracellular potassium buffer and glycogen fuel reserve buffer

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15
Q

Cells of the nervous system that remove excess neurotransmitter

A

Astrocytes

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16
Q

Macrophages of the CNS

A

Microglia

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17
Q

Composition of multinucleated giant cells in the CNS

A

HIV-infected microglia

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18
Q

Cells not seen on Nissl stain and are activated by tissue damage in CNS

A

Microglia

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19
Q

What is found in high concentrations in nodes of Ranvier

A

Sodium channels

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20
Q

Function of myelin

A

Increase conduction velocity of signals transmitted down axons

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21
Q

What signal functions are increased by myelin

A

Signal velocity and length constant

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22
Q

Nodes of Ranvier allow what type of conduction

A

Saltatory conduction

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23
Q

What is myelin composed of

A

Lipids and proteins

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24
Q

Disease that injures Schwann cells

A

Guillain-Barre syndrome

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25
Q

Function of Schwann cells

A

Myelinate PNS axons

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26
Q

Number of axons myelinated by Schwann cells

A

One axon

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27
Q

Tissue Schwan cells derived from

A

Neural crest cells

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28
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes

A

Myelinate CNS axons

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29
Q

Predominant type of glial cell in white matter

A

Oligodendrocytes

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30
Q

Tissue oligodendrocytes derived from

A

Neuroectoderm

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31
Q

Appearance of oligodendrocytes on histology

A

“Fried egg” appearance

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32
Q

Diseases that injure oligodendrocytes

A

Multiple sclerosis, PML and leukodystrophies

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33
Q

Number of axons myelinated by oligodendrocytes

A

About 30

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34
Q

Slow unmyelinated fibers that sense pain and temperature located in skin, epidermis and some viscera

A

C fibers

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35
Q

Fast unmyelinated fibers that sense pain and temperature located in skin, epidermis and some viscera

A

A-delta fibers

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36
Q

Fibers that make up free nerve endings

A

C fibers an A-delta fibers

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37
Q

Sensory receptor located in hairless skin, senses fine/light touch and position sense

A

Meissner corpuscles

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38
Q

Fibers associated with Meissner corpuscles

A

Large, fast-adapting myelinated fibers

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39
Q

Fibers associated with Pacinian corpuscles

A

Large, fast-adapting myelinated fibers

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40
Q

Sensory receptors found in deep skin layers, ligaments and joints that sense vibration and pressure

A

Pacinian corpuscles

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41
Q

Fibers associated with Merkel discs

A

Large, slow-adapting myelinated fibers

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42
Q

Sensory fibers found on finger tips and superficial skin that sense pressure, position sense and deep static touch

A

Merkel discs

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43
Q

Fibers associated with Ruffini corpuscles

A

Slow-adapting dendritic endings with capsule

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44
Q

Sensory fibers found on finger tips and joints that sense pressure, joint angle changes and slippage of objects along surface of skin

A

Ruffini corpuscles

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45
Q

Fibers that are 0.5 to 2 microns in diameter blocked more by local anesthetics

A

C fibers

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46
Q

Fibers that are 3 to 5 microns in diameter and less affected by local anesthetics

A

A-delta fibers

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47
Q

Surround fascicle of nerve fibers and provides the blood-nerve permeability barrier

A

Perineurium

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48
Q

Dense connective tissue that surrounds entire nerve

A

Epineurium

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49
Q

Surrounds single nerve fiber and is location of myelin layer

A

Endoneurium

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50
Q

Nerve layer that must be rejoined in microsurgery for limb reattachment

A

Perineurium

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51
Q

Nerve layer attacked in Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Endoneurium

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52
Q

Reaction of neuronal cell body to axonal injury characterized by round cellular swelling, displacement of nucleus to periphery, and dispersion of Nissl bodies throughout cytoplasm

A

Chromatolysis

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53
Q

Response of cell body to axonal injury with increased protein synthesis in effort to repair damaged axon seen in Wallerian degeneration

A

Chromatolysis

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54
Q

Location of serotonin synthesis

A

Raphe nucleus

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55
Q

Location of ACh synthesis

A

Basal nucleus of Meynert

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56
Q

Location of dopamine synthesis

A

Ventral tegmentum, SNc

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57
Q

Location of GABA synthesis

A

Nucleus accumbens

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58
Q

Location of NE synthesis

A

Locus ceruleus

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59
Q

NT changes seen in Alzheimer’s

A

Decreased ACh

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60
Q

NT changes seen in anxiety

A

Decreased GABA, serotonin

Increased NE

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61
Q

NT changes seen in depression

A

Decreased dopamine, NE, serotonin

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62
Q

NT changes seen in schizophrenia

A

Increased dopamine

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63
Q

NT changes seen in Huntington disease

A

Decreased ACh, GABA

Increased dopamine

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64
Q

NT changes seen in Parkinson’s

A

Decreased dopamine, serotonin

Increased ACh

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65
Q

Three membranes the surround and protect the brain and spinal cord

A

Meninges

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66
Q

Thick outer layer closest to skull

A

Dura mater

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67
Q

Tissue dura mater derived from

A

Mesoderm

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68
Q

Thin, fibrous layer that firmly adheres to brain and spinal cord

A

Pia mater

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69
Q

Tissue pia mater derived from

A

Neural crest

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70
Q

Middle layer of meninges with web-like connections

A

Arachnoid mater

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71
Q

Tissue arachnoid mater derived from

A

Neural crest

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72
Q

What is contained in epidural space

A

Fat and blood vessels

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73
Q

Potential space between dura mater and skull

A

Epidural space

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74
Q

Space located between arachnoid and pia mater

A

Subarachnoid space

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75
Q

What is contained in subarachnoid space

A

CSF

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76
Q

NTs with only CNS effects

A

Serotonin, GABA, and glutamate

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77
Q

NTs with both PNS and CNS effects

A

NE, ACh, dopamine

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78
Q

Function of BBB

A

Prevents blood substances from reaching the CSF/CNS

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79
Q

Structures that make up BBB

A
  1. Tight junctions by non-fenestrated capillary endothelial cells
  2. Basement membrane
  3. Astrocyte foot processes
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80
Q

How do glucose and amino acids cross BBB

A

Slowly by carrier-mediated transport mechanism

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81
Q

How do nonpolar, lipid-soluble substances cross BBB

A

Rapid diffusion

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82
Q

Areas of brain with fenestrated capillaries and no BBB

A

Area postrema, OVLT, neurohypophysis

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83
Q

BBB complication of infarction or neoplasm

A

Destruction of endothelial tight junctions causing vasogenic edema

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84
Q

Area of brain that senses changes in osmolarity and not protected by BBB

A

OVLT

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85
Q

Area of brain that is found in medulla, responds to emetics, and not protected by BBB

A

Area postrema

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86
Q

Area of hypothalamus that controls hunger

A

Lateral area

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87
Q

inhibiting hormone to lateral area hypothalamus

A

Leptin

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88
Q

What does leptin do

A

Decrease hunger

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89
Q

Stimulating hormone to lateral area of hypothalamus

A

Ghrelin

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90
Q

What does ghrelin do

A

Increase hunger

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91
Q

Destruction of lateral are of hypothalamus causes what

A

Anorexia

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92
Q

Area of hypothalamus that controls satiety

A

Ventromedial

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93
Q

Stimulating hormone to ventromedial are of hypothalamus

A

Leptin

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94
Q

What does leptin do in ventromedial area of hypothalamus

A

Signals fullness

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95
Q

What does destruction of the ventromedial area of hypothalamus cause

A

Hyperphagia

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96
Q

Mass that can damage ventromedial area of hypothalamus

A

Craniopharyngioma

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97
Q

Part of the ANS that controls anterior hypothalamus

A

Parasympathetic

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98
Q

Area of hypothalamus that controls circadian rhythm

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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99
Q

Area of hypothalamus that controls cooling

A

Anterior hypothalamus

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100
Q

Part of ANS that controls posterior hypothalamus

A

Sympathetic

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101
Q

Function of supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus

A

Make ADH and oxytocin, respectively

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102
Q

Area of hypothalamus that control heating

A

Posterior hypothalamus

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103
Q

Locus ceruleus is located near what structure

A

Posterior pons near 4th ventricle

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104
Q

What regulates the sleep cycle

A

Circadian rhythm

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105
Q

What controls the circadian rhythm

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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106
Q

What regulates the suprachiasmatic nucleus

A

Light (environment)

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107
Q

Process of melatonin release

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus stimulates NE release which activates pineal gland to release melatonin

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108
Q

Circadian rhythm controls nocturnal release of which substances

A

NE, ACTH, prolactin, melatonin

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109
Q

How do alcohol, benzos and barbs affect sleep

A

Decrease REM and delta wave sleep

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110
Q

How does NE affect sleep

A

Decreases REM sleep

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111
Q

ECG waveform when awake, eyes open

A

Beta wave

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112
Q

ECG waveform when awake, eyes closed

A

Alpha wave

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113
Q

ECG waveform with highest frequency and lowest amplitude

A

Beta wave

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114
Q

ECG waveform during non-REM sleep stage N1

A

Theta

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115
Q

ECG waveform during non-REM sleep stage N2

A

Sleep spindles and K complexes

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116
Q

ECG waveform during non-REM sleep stage N3

A

Delta

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117
Q

Sleep stage when sleepwalking, night terrors and bedwetting occur

A

Stage N3 of non-REM sleep

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118
Q

ECG waveform with lowest frequency and highest amplitude

A

Delta

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119
Q

How does depression affect the sleep cycle

A

Increases total REM sleep but decreases REM latency

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120
Q

What causes extra-ocular movements during REM sleep

A

Activity of PPRF

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121
Q

ECG waveform during REM sleep

A

Beta

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122
Q

Sleep cycle characterized by loss of motor tone, increased brain O2 use, variable HR and BP, and increased ACh

A

REM sleep

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123
Q

How often does REM sleep occur

A

Every 90 minutes, duration increases throughout the night

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124
Q

What fibers terminate in the VPL nucleus of the thalamus

A

Spinothalamic tract and posterior column/medial lemniscus

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125
Q

Where do fibers from the VPL terminate

A

Primary somatosensory cortex

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126
Q

What does the VPL nucleus sense

A

Vibration, Pain, Pressure, Proprioception, Light touch, temperature

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127
Q

What fibers terminate in the VPM nucleus

A

Trigeminal and gustatory pathway

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128
Q

What does the VPM nucleus sense

A

Face sensation and taste

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129
Q

Where do fibers from the VPM terminate

A

Primary sensory cortex

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130
Q

What fibers terminate in the lateral geniculate nucleus

A

CN II

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131
Q

What does the LGN sense

A

Vision

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132
Q

Where do LGN fibers terminate

A

Calcarine sulcus

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133
Q

What fibers terminate in the medial geniculate nucleus

A

Superior olive and inferior colliculus of tectum

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134
Q

What does the MGN sense

A

Hearing

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135
Q

Where do MGN fibers terminate

A

Auditory cortex of temporal lobe

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136
Q

What fibers terminate in the Ventral lateral nucleus

A

Basal ganglia and cerebellum

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137
Q

What is the function of the Ventral lateral nucleus

A

Motor

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138
Q

Where doe ventral lateral nucleus fibers terminate

A

Motor cortex

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139
Q

What are the key components of the limbic system

A

Mamillary bodies, Amygdala, Cingulate gyrus, Hippocampus, Entorhinal cortex Fornix (MACH EF)

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140
Q

What is the function of the limbic system

A

Behavior modulation, Smell, ANS function, Long-term memory, Emotion (B SALE)

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141
Q

Pathway affected with increased activity leading to positive symptoms and target of antipsychotic drugs

A

Mesolimbic pathway

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142
Q

Pathway affected with decreased activity increasing prolactin leading to decreased libido, sexual dysfunction, galactorrhea, and gynecomastia

A

Tuberoinfundibular pathway

143
Q

Pathway affected with decreased activity causing extrapyramidal symptoms, movement disorders and major dopaminergic pathway

A

Nigrostriatal pathway

144
Q

Pathway affected with decreased activity causing negative symptoms and having minimal effects by antipsychotics

A

Mesocortical pathway

145
Q

Symptoms of flocculonodular lobe lesions

A

Truncal ataxia, nystagmus, head tilting (vertigo)

146
Q

Symptoms caused by medial cerebellar lesions involving the vermal cortex, fastigial nuclei or flocculonodular

A

Truncal ataxia, nystagmus, head tilting (vertigo)

147
Q

Symptoms of lateral cerebellar lesions

A

Propensity to fall toward injured side (ipsilateral)

148
Q

Bilateral motor deficits affecting axial and proximal limb musculature are caused by what type of cerebellar lesions

A

Midline cerebellar lesions

149
Q

Deep nuclei of cerebellum from lateral to medial

A

Dentate, Emboliform, Globose, Fastigial

150
Q

Purkinje cells exit the cerebellum via what structure

A

Deep nuclei of cerebellum to contralateral cortex via superior cerebellar peduncle

151
Q

What is the only output of the cerebellar cortex

A

Purkinje cells

152
Q

Ipsilateral proprioceptive information is received via which cerebellar peduncle

A

Inferior cerebellar peduncle

153
Q

The middle cerebellar peduncle sends input to what cerebellar structure

A

Contralateral cortex

154
Q

Which cerebellar peduncle is the output for Purkinje cells

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

155
Q

Structures that make up the lentiform nucleus

A

Putamen and globus pallidus

156
Q

Structures that make up the striatum

A

Putamen and caudate nucleus

157
Q

Which pathway in basal ganglia inhibits movement

A

Indirect pathway

158
Q

Dopamine binds to which receptors in the indirect pathway

A

D2 receptors

159
Q

What does binding of dopamine to D2 receptors cause

A

Inhibition of the inhibitory pathway

160
Q

Inhibitory pathway of basal ganglia

A

SNc to striatum to GPe to STN to GPi to thalamus

161
Q

What does binding of dopamine to D1 receptors cause

A

Stimulation of the excitatory pathway

162
Q

Which basal ganglia pathway promotes movement

A

Direct pathway

163
Q

Direct pathway of basal ganglia

A

SNc to striatum to GPi to thalamus

164
Q

What is cerebral perfusion primarily regulated by

A

PCO2

165
Q

What modulates cerebral perfusion in severe hypoxia

A

PO2

166
Q

What BP and ICP changes decrease cerebral perfusion

A

Decreased BP or increased ICP

167
Q

What therapy may be used to treat acute cerebral edema secondary to stroke

A

Therapeutic hyperventilation

168
Q

Mechanism of therapeutic hyperventilation

A

Decreases PCO2 causing vasoconstriction leading to decreased cerebral blood flow and decreased ICP

169
Q

What does Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) rely on

A

Gradient between MAP and ICP

170
Q

What happens when CPP = 0

A

No cerebral perfusion which can lead to brain death

171
Q

When does hypoxemia increase cerebral perfusion pressure

A

When PO2 < 50 mmHg

172
Q

Artery that supplies the lateral surface of brain

A

Middle cerebral artery (MCA)

173
Q

Artery that supplies the anteromedial surface of brain

A

Anterior cerebral artery (ACA)

174
Q

Artery that supplies the posterior and inferior surface of brain

A

Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)

175
Q

Watershed zones in the brain are located between what arteries

A

ACA/MCA and PCA/MCA

176
Q

Severe hypotension can affect watershed zones and cause what symptoms

A

Upper leg/upper arm weakness and deficits in higher-order visual processing

177
Q

What arteries make up the anterior circulation

A

ACA, internal carotid, MCA

178
Q

Posterior inferior cerebellar arteries branch of what artery

A

Vertebral artery

179
Q

Pontine arteries branch off what artery

A

Basilar artery

180
Q

Anterior spinal artery branches off what artery

A

Vertebral artery

181
Q

Artery that connects anterior circulation to posterior circulation

A

Posterior communicating artery

182
Q

Lenticulostriate arteries branch of what artery

A

MCA

183
Q

The last arteries that branch off the basilar artery

A

Superior cerebellar arteries

184
Q

The ACA branches off what artery

A

Internal carotid artery

185
Q

The common carotid artery branches into what arteries

A

Internal carotid and external carotid arteries

186
Q

MCA is a branch of what artery

A

Internal carotid artery

187
Q

The anterior choroidal artery branches off what artery

A

MCA

188
Q

Unpaired artery that is formed from paired vertebral arteries

A

Basilar artery

189
Q

Unpaired artery that is part of the anterior circulation

A

Anterior communicating artery

190
Q

Main location of CSF return via arachnoid granulations

A

Superior sagittal sinus

191
Q

Superior sagittal sinus drains into what vessel

A

Confluence of sinuses

192
Q

What two veins drain into the straight sinus

A

Great cerebral vein and inferior sagittal sinus

193
Q

The confluence of sinuses drains into what vein

A

Transverse sinus

194
Q

The transverse sinus drains into what vein

A

Sigmoid sinus

195
Q

The sigmoid sinus passes through what and becomes what

A

Jugular foramen to become internal jugular vein

196
Q

Presents with headache, swollen eyes, impairment of ocular nerves, Horner’s syndrome, CN V1 and V2 sensory loss

A

Cavernous sinus syndrome

197
Q

Connects lateral ventricle to 3rd ventricle

A

Interventricular foramina of Monro

198
Q

Connects 3rd ventricle to 4th ventricle

A

Cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius

199
Q

Paired lateral canals connecting 4th ventricle to subarachnoid space

A

Foramina of Luschka

200
Q

Unpaired medial canal connecting 4th ventricle to subarachnoid space

A

Foramen of Magendie

201
Q

What makes CSF

A

Ependymal cells of choroid plexus

202
Q

What reabsorbs CSF

A

Arachnoid granulations

203
Q

Decreased CSF absorption by arachnoid granulations leading to increased ICP with dilation of all ventricles in CT

A

Communicating hydrocephalus

204
Q

Structural blockage of CSF flow within ventricles with dilation above blockage

A

Non-communicating hydrocephalus

205
Q

CNs located above pons

A

CNs I, II, III, IV

206
Q

CNs located in the pons

A

CNs V, VI, VII, VIII

207
Q

CNs located in the medulla

A

CNs IX, X, XI, XII

208
Q

CNs located medially

A

CNs III, IV, VI, XII (factors of 12)

209
Q

Pineal gland function

A

Melatonin secretion, circadian rhythms

210
Q

Superior colliculi function

A

Conjugate vertical gaze center

211
Q

Inferior colliculi function

A

Auditory

212
Q

Location of pineal gland

A

Midline above superior colliculi

213
Q

Location of colliculi

A

Midline above superior cerebellar peduncles

214
Q

CN nuclei located in midbrain

A

CN nuclei III, IV

215
Q

CN nuclei located in pons

A

CN nuclei V, Vi, VII, VIII

216
Q

CN nuclei located in medulla

A

CN nuclei IX, X, XII

217
Q

CN nuclei located in spinal cord

A

CN nucleus X

218
Q

Anterior cranial fossa

A

Cribriform plate

219
Q

Middle cranial fossa

A

Optic canal, Superior orbital fissure, Foramen Rotundum, Ovale, Spinosum

220
Q

Posterior cranial fossa

A

Internal auditory meatus, jugular foramen, hypoglossal canal, foramen magnum

221
Q

Structures exit cribriform plate

A

CN I

222
Q

Structures exit optic canal

A

CN II, ophthalmic artery

223
Q

Structures exit superior orbital fissure

A

CNs III, IV, V(1) and VI

224
Q

Structures exit foramen rotundum

A

CN V(2)

225
Q

Structures exit foramen ovale

A

CN V(3)

226
Q

Structures exit foramen spinosum

A

Middle meningeal artery

227
Q

Structures exit internal auditory meatus

A

CNs VII, VIII

228
Q

Structures exit jugular foramen

A

CNs IX, X, XI, jugular vein

229
Q

Structures exit hypoglossal canal

A

CN XII

230
Q

Structures exit foramen magnum

A

Brainstem, spinal roots CN XI, vertebral arteries

231
Q

Only CN without thalamic relay to cortex

A

CN I

232
Q

CN III muscles innervated for eye movement

A

Superior rectus, Inferior rectus, Medial rectus, Inferior oblique

233
Q

CN III muscle innervated for eyelid opening

A

levator palpebrae

234
Q

CN that controls pupillary constriction

A

CN III

235
Q

Muscle that controls pupillary constriction

A

Sphincter pupillae

236
Q

Actions controlled by CN III

A

Eye movement, pupillary constriction, accommodation, eyelid opening

237
Q

Muscle controlled by CN IV

A

Superior oblique

238
Q

CN V motor function

A

Mastication

239
Q

CN V sensory function

A

Ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular facial sensation

Sensation anterior 2/3 of tongue

240
Q

CN VI function

A

Motor to lateral rectus

241
Q

CN VI motor function

A

Facial movement, eyelid closing, stapedius

242
Q

CN VII sensory function

A

Taste anterior 2/3 of tongue

243
Q

CN VII parasympathetic function

A

Lacrimation, salivation

244
Q

Salivary glands innervated by CN VII

A

Submandibular and sublingual glands

245
Q

Eye muscles innervated by CN VII

A

Orbicularis oculi

246
Q

Function of stapedius muscle

A

Modulate auditory volume

247
Q

CN VIII function

A

Hearing, balance

248
Q

CN IX sensory function

A

Taste and sensation from posterior 1/3 of tongue

249
Q

CN IX motor function

A

Elevate pharynx/larynx, swallowing,

250
Q

CN IX parasympathetic function

A

Salivation, monitoring carotid body and sinus chemo and baroreceptors

251
Q

Salivary gland innervated by CN IX

A

Parotid gland

252
Q

Oropharynx muscle innervated by CN IX

A

Stylopharyngeus

253
Q

CN XI function

A

Head turning, shoulder shrugging

254
Q

Muscles innervated by CN XI

A

Trapezius, SCM

255
Q

CN XII function

A

Tongue movement

256
Q

Function of nucleus solitarius

A

Visceral sensory information like taste, baroreceptors, and gut distention

257
Q

CNs found in nucleus solitarius

A

CNs VII, IX, X

258
Q

Function of nucleus ambiguus

A

Motor innervation to pharynx, larynx, upper esophagus

259
Q

CNs found in nucleus ambiguus

A

CNs IX, X, XI

260
Q

Function of dorsal motor nucleus

A

Sends autonomic fibers to heart, lungs, upper GI

261
Q

CNs in dorsal motor nucleus

A

CN X

262
Q

Afferent CN for corneal reflex

A

CN V(1)

263
Q

Efferent CN for corneal reflex

A

CN VII temporal branch - orbicularis oculi

264
Q

Afferent CN for lacrimation

A

CN V(1)

265
Q

Efferent CN for lacrimation

A

CN VII

266
Q

Sensory receptor for jaw jerk reflex

A

Muscle spindle from masseter

267
Q

Afferent CN for jaw jerk reflex

A

CN V(3)

268
Q

Motor muscle for jaw jerk reflex

A

Masseter

269
Q

Efferent CN for jaw jerk reflex

A

CN V(3)

270
Q

Afferent CN for pupillary reflex

A

CN II

271
Q

Efferent CN for pupillary reflex

A

CN III

272
Q

Afferent CN for gag reflex

A

CN IX

273
Q

Efferent CN for gag reflex

A

CN X

274
Q

Muscles that close jaw

A

Masseter, Temporalis, Medial pterygoid

275
Q

Muscles that open jaw

A

Lateral pterygoid

276
Q

CN that innervates muscles of mastication

A

CN V3 (mandibular division)

277
Q

Total number of spinal nerves

A

31

278
Q

Number of cervical nerves

A

8

279
Q

Number of thoracic nerves

A

12

280
Q

Number of lumbar nerves

A

5

281
Q

Number of sacral nerves

A

5

282
Q

Number of coccygeal nerves

A

1

283
Q

Spinal nerves C1-C7 exit how

A

Above corresponding vertebra

284
Q

How does C8 spinal nerve exit

A

Below C7 and above T1 vertebrae

285
Q

How do spinal nerves T1 and below exit

A

Below its corresponding vertebra

286
Q

Absent ankle reflex is caused by compression of what spinal nerve

A

S1

287
Q

In adults, at what spinal level does spinal cord end

A

L1-L2

288
Q

To what spinal level does the subarachnoid space extend to

A

Lower border of S2

289
Q

At what level is lumbar puncture usually performed

A

Between L3-L4 or L4-L5

290
Q

At what spinal level is the cauda equina

A

Between L3 to L5

291
Q

Function of Dorsal column-medial lemniscus tract

A

Pressure, vibration, fine touch, proprioception

292
Q

Part of dorsal column for lower body and legs

A

Fasciculus gracilis

293
Q

Which spinal tracts are ascending

A

Dorsal column, lateral spinothalamic, and anterior spinothalamic tract

294
Q

Part of dorsal column for upper body and arms

A

Fasciculus cuneatus

295
Q

Spinal level that corresponds to Fasciculus cuneatus

A

T6 and above

296
Q

Spinal tract for pain ant temperature

A

Spinothalamic tract

297
Q

Spinal tract for crude touch and pressure

A

Anterior spinothalamic tract

298
Q

Spinal tract for voluntary motor

A

Lateral and anterior corticospinal tract

299
Q

Somatotopic arrangement of lateral corticospinal and spinothalamic tract

A

Legs are lateral

300
Q

Somatotopic arrangement of dorsal columns

A

Arms outside with legs inside

301
Q

What type of fibers are found in the intermediate horn

A

Sympathetic fibers

302
Q

At what spinal level is the intermediate horn located

A

T1 to L2/L3

303
Q

How do Dorsal column fibers ascend

A

Ipsilaterally

304
Q

Location of cell body of first neuron in Dorsal column-medial lemniscus tract

A

Dorsal root ganglion

305
Q

Location of first synapse of Dorsal column-medial lemniscus tract

A

Nucleus gracilis - for fibers below T6

Nucleus cuneatus - for fibers T6 and above

306
Q

How do fibers ascend in Dorsal column-medial lemniscus after first synapse

A

Ipsilaterally in medulla

307
Q

Location of decussation in Dorsal column tract

A

Decussates in medulla

308
Q

How do fibers ascend in Dorsal column after decussation

A

Contralaterally in in medial lemniscus

309
Q

Where do fibers from Dorsal column-medial lemniscus terminate

A

In VPL of thalamus

310
Q

Where do fibers from VPL of thalamus terminate

A

Sensory motor cortex

311
Q

What is the function of the lateral spinothalamic tract

A

Sense pain and temperature

312
Q

What sensory nerve endings are associated with lateral spinothalamic tract

A

A-delta and C fibers

313
Q

Location of cell body of first neuron in lateral spinothalamic tract

A

Dorsal root ganglion

314
Q

Location of first synapse in lateral spinothalamic tract

A

Ipsilateral gray matter in spinal cord

315
Q

Location of decussation of the lateral spinothalamic tract

A

Anterior white commissure

316
Q

How do fibers from the lateral spinothalamic tract ascend after decussation

A

Contralaterally in spinal cord

317
Q

Where do fibers terminate after decussation in the lateral spinothalamic tract

A

VPL of thalamus

318
Q

Which spinal tracts are descending

A

Lateral and anterior corticospinal tracts

319
Q

Function of lateral corticospinal tract

A

Voluntary movement of contralateral limbs

320
Q

Location of cell body of first neuron in lateral corticospinal tract

A

Primary motor cortex

321
Q

Path fibers descend from first neuron of lateral corticospinal tract

A

Descend ipsilaterally through internal capsule

322
Q

Location of decussation of lateral corticospinal tract

A

Caudal medulla (pyramidal decussation)

323
Q

Path fibers descend after decussation in lateral corticospinal tract

A

Descend contralaterally

324
Q

Location of first synapse of lateral corticospinal tract

A

Cell body of anterior horn in spinal cord

325
Q

UMN is located where

A

It is the first neuron in corticospinal tract located in primary motor cortex

326
Q

What is a LMN

A

Neuron located in anterior horn of corticospinal tract exiting spinal cord and terminating at NMJ

327
Q

Spinal nerves that innervate Achilles reflex

A

(S1), S2 (buckle my shoe)

328
Q

Spinal nerves that innervate patellar reflex

A

L3, (L4) (kick the door)

329
Q

Spinal nerves that innervate biceps and brachioradialis

A

(C5), C6 (pick up sticks)

330
Q

Spinal nerves that innervate triceps reflex

A

(C7), C8 (lay them straight)

331
Q

Age primitive reflexes typically disappear

A

1 year old

332
Q

Inhibits primitive reflexes

A

Mature/developing frontal lobe

333
Q

Cause of loss of inhibition of primitive reflexes

A

Frontal lobe lesions

334
Q

Abduct/extend arms when startled, and then draw together

A

Moro reflex

335
Q

Movement of head toward side of cheek or mouth when stroked

A

Rooting reflex

336
Q

Sucking response when roof of mouth is touched

A

Sucking reflex

337
Q

Curling of fingers if palm is stroked

A

Palmar reflex

338
Q

Dorsiflexion of large toe and fanning of other toes with plantar stimulation

A

Plantar reflex

339
Q

Presence of plantar reflex in adult which qualifies for UMN lesion

A

Babinski sign

340
Q

Stroking along one side of the spine when infant is face down causes lateral flexion of lower body toward side being stroked

A

Galant reflex

341
Q

Sensory to posterior half of the skull

A

C2

342
Q

Sensory to neck (high turtleneck shirt)

A

C3

343
Q

Sensory to the nipple line

A

T4

344
Q

Sensory to upper chest bilaterally extending to anteromedial arms ending at wrist

A

T1

345
Q

Sensory to lateral shoulders down to thumbs

A

C6

346
Q

Sensory to posteromedial arm including ring and pinky finger

A

C8

347
Q

Sensory to upper chest bilaterally down anterolateral arms ending at wrist

A

C5

348
Q

Sensory at the xiphoid process

A

T7

349
Q

Sensory at the umbilicus

A

T10

350
Q

Sensory at suprapubic region

A

T12

351
Q

Erection and sensation of penile and anal zones

A

S2, S3, S4 (keep the penis of the floor)

352
Q

Sensory at the inguinal ligament

A

L1

353
Q

Sensory to neck (low collar shirt)

A

C4

354
Q

Sensory to anterior leg including kneecaps

A

L4 (Down on ALL 4’s)

Neurology-First Aid 2017 (5 decks)

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