Anatomy 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Which group gives guidelines for Basic Life Support (BLS) in the UK? Website?

A

Resuscitation Council UK

www.resus.org.uk

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2
Q

What is Basic Life Support? (BLS)

A

Maintaining airway patency and supporting breathing and circulation without the use of equipment other than a protective device.

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3
Q

What is the main sign which indicates treatment for cardiac arrest in current BLS guidelines?

What do you no longer look for to assess whether a cardiac arrest has taken place?

A

The main sign which indicates treatment for cardiac arrest is the absence of normal breathing sounds.

You no longer check for a carotid pulse as this can be time consuming and unreliable.

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4
Q

If you find a collapsed person, what is the overall BLS sequence you should follow?

A

Make sure you, the victim and bystanders are safe

Check for a response

If responsive, don’t move them, try to find out what is wrong.

If unresponsive shout for help

Open airway

If breathing normally, put into the recovery position

If not breathing normally, call 999

Start CPR: begin with compressions

30 chest compressions, 2 breaths

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5
Q

When obtaining help in BLS, what should you ask for?

A

Ask for an automated external defibrillator, if one is likely to be available.

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6
Q

Describe the chest compressions you should give in CPR

A

Compress vertically, in the centre of the sternum. Compress to a depth of 5-6cm, at a rate of 100-120 per min (Staying Alive).

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7
Q

How long should a rescue breath take? Why?

A

A rescue breath should take about 1 sec, no more so that the pauses in chest compression is minimised.

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8
Q

During CPR, when should you stop to check the victim, or discontinue CPR?

A

Do not stop to check the victim or discontinue CPR unless the victim starts to show signs of regaining consciousness, such as coughing, opening his eyes, speaking or moving AND then starts to breathe normally.

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9
Q

What should you do with a responsive patient? (3)

A
  • Leave them in the position in which you find them provided they are in no danger
  • Try to find out what is wrong with them
  • Reassess them regularly
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10
Q

How do you open an airway

A

Turn the victim onto their back

Place a hand on the victims forehead and gently tilt his head back

With your fingertips under the point of the victim’s chin, lift the chin to open the airway.

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11
Q

How do you check for breathing?

A

Keep the airway open

Look for chest movement

Listen at the victims mouth for breath sounds

Feel for air on your cheek

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12
Q

How long do you check for breathing?

What do you do if you are unsure of breathing is normal?

What do first aiders sometimes mistake for normal breathing?

A

Check for no more than 10 seconds

If there is any doubt as to whether there is normal breathing, act as if breathing is not normal

In the first few minutes after cardiac arrest, a paitent may be barely breathing, or taking infrequent, noisy gasps. This is often termed agonal breathing and must not be confused with normal breathing

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13
Q

What do you do with a patient who is unconscious, but is breathing normally?

A

Turn them into the recovery position

Call 999 from a mobile. If there is no signal, send a bystander to find a phone. Only leave the victim if there is no other option.

Continue to assess that the breathing is normal. If there is any doubt as to whether the breathing is normal, commence CPR.

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14
Q

What is the first thing you do if you have a patient who is unconscious and not breathing normally?

A

Call 999/ask someone to call for an ambulance

Only leave the patient if there is no other option for summoning an ambulance

Ask a bystander to find an AED if this seems likely to be available

Then you should start CPR.

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15
Q

How do you do a chest compression?

A

Kneel by the side of the victim

Place the heel of one hand in the centre of the victims chest (lower half of the sternum)

Place the heel of your other hand on top of the first hand, and interlock fingers. Ensure that there is no pressure on the ribs or abdomen.

Press down vertically and with your arms straight. Aim to press 5-6cm

After each compression release all pressure on the chest without losing contact with the patient

Compression and release should take the same amount of time

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16
Q

How do you do a rescue breath?

A

Open the airway using head tilt and lift

Pinch the victims nose using the index finger and thumb of the hand on their forehead

Allow the mouth to open while maintaining chin lift

Take a normal breath and seal your lips to their mouth

Blow steadily into their mouth while watching the chest rise, take about 1 sec

Take your mouth away and watch for the air leaving the chest

Do one more breath, then return to the compressions straight away. 30 compressions:2breaths

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17
Q

What do you do if the first rescue breath does not make the chest rise and fall?

A

Check the victims mouth, and remove obstruction

Recheck that there is adequate head tilt and chin lift

Do not attempt more than two breaths each time before returning to chest compressions.

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18
Q

If there are two BLS trained first aiders there, how often do you change roles and why?

A

Swap compressions/breaths every one to two minutes to avoid fatigue

Do this as quickly as possible, trying to keep compressions uninterrupted.

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19
Q

If you cannot face giving rescue breaths, what can you do?

A

Give compression only CPR. Continue for as long as you would with normal CPR

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20
Q

Continue resuscitation until…

A
  • Qualified help arrives and takes over
  • The victim starts to regain consciousness AND starts breathing normally
  • You become exhausted
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21
Q

How do you put someone in the recovery position?

A
  • Remove glasses and check pockets for anything bulky
  • Kneel beside the victim and make sure that both legs are straight
  • Place the arm nearest to you out at right angles to the body, elbow bent with the hand palm-up
  • Bring the far arm across the chest and hold the back of the hand against the victims cheek next to you
  • With your other hand, grasp the far leg above the knee and pull it up, keeping the foot on the ground
  • Keeping his hand pressed against his cheek, pull on the far leg to roll the victim towards you on to his side
  • Adjust the upper leg so that both the hip and knee are bent to 90 degrees
  • Tilt the head back to make sure the airway remains open
  • If necessary, adjust the hand under the cheek to keep the head tilted and facing downwards to allow liquid material to drain from the mouth
  • Check breathing regularly
  • If they have to be kept in the recovery position for more than 30mins, turn them onto the other side
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22
Q

What is the main modification for CPR on a child?

How does the sequence of CPR slightly alter?

A

Main modification: Do chest compressions to one third of the depth of the chest. Use 2 fingers for an infant under 1, and use one or both hands for older children

Do 5 breaths before you start compressions

If you are on your own, do 1 min CPR before going for help

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23
Q

What modification to CPR is useful for victims of drowning?

A

Do 1 min of CPR before going to get help

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24
Q

What are the functions of the blood? (5)

A
  • Transportation of dissolved gases, nutrients, hormones and metabolic waste
  • Regulation of pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids
  • Restriction of fluid loss at injury sites by clotting
  • Defense agaist toxins and pathogens
  • Stabilisation of body temperature
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25
Q

What does plasma consist of?

A
  • 92% water
  • Dissolved proteins which are different in composition to those of interstitial fluid
  • Dissolved ions
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26
Q

What are the 5 types of white blood cell? (Leucocyte) There is a mnemonic to help.

A
  • Neutrophil
  • Lymphocyte
  • Monocyte
  • Eosinophil
  • Basophil

(never let monkeys eat bananas)

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27
Q

What is the structure of a red blood cell? What is its function?

A

Red blood cells are disc shaped with a dimple in the centre. Their function is to carry oxygen around the body.

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28
Q

What is the structure of a monocyte? What is its function?

A

Monocytes are spherical and are about twice the size of a RBC. When flattened in a blood smear they look even larger, so they are easy to identify. The nucleus is large and tends to be oval or kidney shaped.

Monocytes use the blood stream for transportation, remianing in circulation for only 24 hours before they enter peripheral tissues to become a tissue macrophage. Macrophages are phagocytes which can attract other phagocytes and fibrocytes.

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29
Q

What is the structure of a lymphocyte in the blood? What is its function?

A

Lymphocytes are distinguished by having a deeply staining nucleus that may be eccentric in location, and a relatively small amount of cytoplasm without stained granules. They are slightly larger than RBCs.

The blood contains 3 types of lymphocyte: B cells, Tcells and Natural Killer cells.

B cells make antibodies that bind to pathogens to enable their destruction

T cells co-ordinate the immune response and are important in the defense against intracellular bacteria.

Natural killer cells: Natural killer cells are able to kill cells of the body that are displaying a signal to kill them, as they have been infected by a virus or have become cancerous.

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30
Q

What is the structure of a neutrophil in the blood? What is its function?

A

Neutrophils have a multi-lobed nucleus that may appear like multiple nuclei. They are sometimes called polymorphonuclear leukocytes. The cytoplasm may look transparent because of fine granules that are dificult to stain and so appear ‘neutral’.

Neutrophils defend against bacterial or fungal infection and are usually first responders to microbial infection; their activity and death in large numbers forms pus. These cells are not able to renew their lysosomes (used in digesting microbes) and die after having phagocytosed a few pathogens.

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31
Q

What is the structure of a basophil? What is its function?

A

Basophils are characterized by their large blue granules.The nucleus is bi- or tri-lobed, but it is hard to see because of the number of coarse granules that hide it.

Basophils are chiefly responsible for allergic and antigen response by releasing the chemical histamine causing vasodilation. They also release heparin, which prevents blood clotting. They are relatively rare, accounting for only 1% of WBCs.

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32
Q

What is the structure of an eosinophil? What is its function?

A

In general, their nucleus is bi-lobed. The cytoplasm is full of granules that assume a characteristic pink-orange color with eosin stain.

Eosinophils primarily deal with parasitic infections. Eosinophils are also the predominant inflammatory cells in allergic reactions. The most important causes of eosinophilia include allergies such as asthma, hay fever, and hives; and also parasitic infections.

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33
Q

What is a white blood cell differential?

A

This is a blood test which indicates the percentage of each type of white blood cell that is present. It is normally run as part of the complete blood count (CBC).

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34
Q

What is a white blood cell differential used for? (6)

A

The white blood cell differential assesses

  • the ability of the body to respond to and eliminate infection.
  • the severity of allergic and drug reactions
  • the response to parasitic and other types of infection.
  • the reaction to viral infections
  • response to chemotherapy
  • It can also identify various stages of leukemia.
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35
Q

When might the neutrophil count increase (3) or decrease (4)?

A

Increased neutrophil levels:

  • bacterial infection
  • inflammatory disease.
  • Severe elevations in neutrophils may be caused by a bone marrow disorder, such as chronic myelogenous leukemia.

Decreased neutrophil levels:

  • severe infection
  • responses to various medications, particularly chemotherapy.
  • liver disease
  • enlarged spleen
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36
Q

When might the eosinophil count increase (5) or decrease (1)?

A

Eosinophils can increase in response to:

  • allergic disorders
  • inflammation of the skin
  • parasitic infections
  • some infections
  • bone marrow disorders

Decreased levels of eosinophils can occur as a result of infection.

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37
Q

When might the basophil count increase? (4)

A

Basophils can increase due to:

  • leukemia
  • chronic inflammation
  • hypersensitivity reaction to food
  • radiation therapy.
38
Q

When might the lymphocyte count increase (4) or decrease (2).

A

Lymphocytes can increase in cases of:

  • viral infection
  • leukemia
  • cancer of the bone marrow
  • radiation therapy.

Decreased lymphocyte levels can indicate diseases that affect the immune system, such as

  • lupus
  • later stages of HIV infection.
39
Q

When might the monocyte count increase (3) or decrease (2)?

A

Monocyte levels can increase in response to:

  • infection of all kinds
  • inflammatory disorders
  • certain malignant disorders, including leukemia.

Decreased monocyte levels can indicate:

  • bone marrow injury or failure
  • some forms of leukemia.
40
Q

In addition to the percentages of each white blood cell, what else is recorded in a white blood cell differenital?

A

Since percentages might be misleading in some patients, absolute values of the types of WBCs can also be reported, such as the absolute neutrophil count (ANC), also known as the absolute granulocyte count or AGC.

This can aid in diagnosing illness and monitoring therapy.

41
Q

What behavioural (3) environmental (2) factors can affect the WBC differential?

A

Eating, physical activity, and stress may alter white blood cell differential values.

Long-term use of steroids or long-term exposure to toxic chemicals (such as lye or insecticides) can increase the risk of an abnormal differential.

42
Q

What is an FBC? What are some examples of what it is used to screen for (5)?

A

Full Blood Count: Used to determine general health status and to screen for a variety of disorders, such as anaemia and infection, inflammation, nutritional status and exposure to toxic substances

43
Q

What is the formation of blood cells called?

A

Haematopoiesis (sometimes also haemopoiesis or hemopoiesis)

44
Q

In the first trimester of development, where is the main site of haemopoeisis?

A

blood formation occurs in aggregates of blood cells in the yolk sac, called blood islands.

45
Q

In the second trimester of development, where are the main sites of haemopoeisis?

A

Blood formation occurs largely in the liver and the spleen

46
Q

In the third trimester of development, where is the main site of haemopoeisis?

A

Bone marrow is the main site, with some blood formation in the liver.

47
Q

In children, where is the main site of haemopoesis?

A

the marrow of the long bones such as the femur and tibia

48
Q

In adults, where are the main sites of haemopoesis?

A

mainly in the pelvis, cranium, vertebrae, and sternum

49
Q

How is a diffrerential count obtained?

A

A differential count is obtained by examining a stained blood smear

50
Q

What is the normal range of values for each WBC in a differential count?

A

Neutrophils: 50-70%

Eosinophils: 2-4%

Basophils: less than 1%

Monocytes: 2-8%

Lymphocytes: 20-30%

51
Q

What is the medical term for too few WBCs?

What is the medical term for too many WBCs? When is this normal? If WBC count is extremely high, what does this normally indicate?

A

Too few WBCs: Leukopenia

Too many WBCs: Leukocytosis

-penia and -cytosis can also indicate too few or too many of each type of WBC, eg lymphocytosis.

Leukocytosis is normal in a mild infection, extreme leukocytosis (100,000/ul or more) is normally indicative of leukaemia.

52
Q

Where are WBCs produced?

What is the name of the cell which divides into 2 different blood stem cells? What are these stem cells called, and what are the ultimate products of each of them?

A

All types of WBCs are produced in the bone marrow. Lymphocytes are produced in bone marrow and also lymphoid tissue.

Haemocytoblasts divide into myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells.

Lymphoid stem cells ultimately produce lymphocytes.

Myeloid stem cells ultimately produce all the other formed elements of the blood including RBCs, platelets and all WBCs except lymphocytes.

53
Q

Where is bone marrow located?

What happens to bone marrow once it is no longer producing blood cells?

A

Bone marrow is located between the trabeculae of cancellous bone.

There are two types of bone marrow: medulla ossium rubra (red marrow) and medulla ossium flava (yellow marrow), which is mainly made up of fat cells.

Red blood cells, platelets and most white blood cells arise in red marrow. At birth, all bone marrow is red. With age, more and more of it is converted to the yellow type; only around half of adult bone marrow is red.

54
Q

Where is red marrow mostly found?

Where is yellow marrow mostly found?

At times of blood loss, what can the body do with bone marrow?

A

Red marrow is found mainly in the flat bones, such as the pelvis, sternum, cranium, ribs, vertebrae and scapulae, and in the cancellous (“spongy”) material at the epiphyseal ends of long bones such as the femur and humerus.

Yellow marrow is found in the medullary cavity, the hollow interior of the middle portion of long bones.

In cases of severe blood loss, the body can convert yellow marrow back to red marrow to increase blood cell production.

55
Q

What is bone marrow stroma? What is its function?

A

The stroma of the bone marrow is all tissue not directly involved in the primary function of hematopoiesis. Yellow bone marrow makes up the majority of bone marrow stroma, in addition to smaller concentrations of stromal cells located in the red bone marrow. Stroma is indirectly involved in hematopoiesis, since it provides the microenvironment that facilitates hematopoiesis. For instance, they generate colony stimulating factors.

56
Q

Which cells constitute bone marrow stroma? (6)

A

fibroblasts (reticular connective tissue)
macrophages
adipocytes
osteoblasts
osteoclasts
endothelial cells, which form the sinusoids. These derive from endothelial stem cells, which are also present in the bone marrow.

57
Q

How do macrophages contribute to the formation of RBCs?

A

Macrophages contribute especially to red blood cell production, as they deliver iron for hemoglobin production

58
Q

What are the four colony stimulating factors (CSFs) and what do they do?

A

M-CSF stimulates the production of monocytes

G-CSF stimulates the production of granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils)

GM-CSF stimulates the production of both granulocytes and monocytes

Multi-CSF accelerates the production of granulocytes, monocytes, platelets and RBCs.

59
Q

What is another name for red bone marrow?

A

Myeloid tissue

60
Q

Why is the turnover of RBCs so fast?

At what rate are new RBCs produced?

A

RBCs are exposed to severe mechanical stresses as they are pumped through the circulatory system. They collide, bounce off walls are squeezed through capillaries. RBCs have no internal repair mechanisms, and eventually their plasma membranes are damaged, and they are engulfed by a phagocyte.

New RBCs are produced at a rate of 3million per second! About 1% of circulating RBCs are produced each day.

61
Q

How long is the lifespan of an erythrocyte?

A

About 120 days

62
Q

Describe how RBCs are monitored for damage. What happens to a small proportion of RBCs?

A

Macrophages of the liver, spleen and bone marrow monitor the condition of circulating RBCs, generally recognising and engulfing them before they haemolyze (rupture). A small proportion of RBCs haemolyze in the blood stream (about 10% of those recycled daily)

63
Q

How is haemoglobin conserved and recycled? When can Hb not be conserved, and what happen to it in this case?

A

Macrophages recycle the Hb from engulfed RBCs. Macrophages also detect and engulf circulating Hb and cell fragments from haemolyzed RBCs.

If circulating Hb is not phagocytosed straight away, it will break down and the alpha and beta chains are filtered by the kidneys and eliminated in the urine.

64
Q

What sign is casued by too much RBC breakdown in the bloodstream? What is this called?

What casues whole RBCs to be present in urine, and what is this called?

A

When abnormally large numbers of BRCs break down in the bloodstream, the urine may turn red or brown. This is haemoglobinurea.

Whole RBCs may be present in the urine when there is kidney damage, or damage to the vessels along the urinary tract. This is haematuria.

65
Q

Which hormones stimulate erythropoiesis (4) and what accounts for the difference in haematocrit values between males and females?

A

Erythropoiesis is stimulated directly by the peptide hormone erythropoietin (EPO) also called erethropoiesis-stimulating-hormone, formed in the kidneys and liver.

Erythropoiesis is stimulated indirectly by thyroxine, androgens and growth hormone.

Oestrogens do not stimulate erythropoiesis, which accounts for the difference in heamatocrit values between men and women.

66
Q

What is the function of the spleen? (3)

A

The spleen acts as a resevoir for blood in case of hemmhorage, it is involved in the produciton of B lymphocytes and in the breakdown of old and damaged erythrocytes.

It also contains T lymphocytes.

67
Q

Where is the spleen located?

A

the spleen lies against the diaphragm, in the area of rib 9 to rib 10 in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen.

68
Q

How does the spleen recycle the iron in Hb? Where/how is the iron transported?

What happens to the rest of the haemoglobin molecule?

A

Macrophages in the spleen metabolize hemogoblin removed from senescent erythrocytes.

Each heme portion is stripped of its iron unit and converted into green biliverdin, then orange bilirubin which is shuttled to the liver for excretion in bile.

The iron unit binds to transferrin, and is transported to the bone marrow for incorporation into new RBCs.

The globular protein portions of hemoglobin are degraded to amino acids.

69
Q

If the liver cannot absorb or excrete bilirubin, what happens?

A

Bilirubin diffuses into the peripheral tissues, giving them a yellow colour apparent in the skin and in the sclera of the eyes. This is jaundice.

70
Q

What are the two ligaments that connect to the spleen? What else do they connect to? What are these ligaments part of?

A

The spleen is connected:

  • to the greater curvature of the stomach by the gastrosplenic ligament, which contains the short gastric and gastro-omental vessels.
  • to the eft kidney by the splenorenal ligament which contains the splenic vessels.

Both these ligaments are parts of the greater omentum.

71
Q

What are the two surfaces of the spleen, what are they in contact with?

What are the borders of the spleen?

What structures does the spleen come into contact with?

A

Posteriorly, there is a diaphragmatic surface, which lies in contact with the diaphragm;

Anteriorly, there is a visceral surface toward the stomach;

There is an inferior border, resting on the splenic flexure of the colon;

There is a superior border, which lies in contact with the diaphragm;

medially and inferiorly, the spleen is in contact with the upper anterior part of left kidney.

72
Q

Where is the hilum of the spleen?

What structures enter at the hilum?

A

The hilum is on its anterior or gastric surface and posterior to it is a depression in which is lodged the tail of the pancreas.

It is the point of attachment for the gastrosplenic ligament, and the point of insertion for the splenic artery and splenic vein.

73
Q

What is the arterial supply of the spleen? Where does this artery originate?

A

The splenic artery, the largest branch of the celiac trunk, takes a tortuous course to the left along the superior border of the pancreas. It travels in the splenorenal ligament and divides into numerous branches, which enter the hilum of the spleen.

As the splenic artery passes along the superior border of the pancreas, it gives off numerous small branches to supply the neck, body, and tail of the pancreas.

74
Q

What is the venous drainage of the spleen? Where does it drain to?

A

The splenic vein forms from numerous smaller vessels leaving the hilum of the spleen. It passes to the right, passing through the splenorenal ligament with the splenic artery and the tail of pancreas. Continuing to the right, the large, straight splenic vein is in contact with the body of the pancreas. Posterior to the neck of the pancreas, the splenic vein joins the superior mesenteric vein to form the portal vein.

75
Q

Describe the innervation of the spleen

A

The splenic plexus (lienal plexus in older texts) is formed by branches from the celiac plexus, the left celiac ganglion, and from the right vagus nerve.

The intrinsic innervation of the spleen is mainly part of the sympathetic nervous system. Noradrenergic postganglionic nerve fibers enter the spleen with the splenic artery, run along the trabeculae in plexuses and extend into the white pulp along the central artery.

Parasympathetic innervation of the spleen is from two sources-the vagus nerves [X] and the pelvic splanchnic nerves.

76
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the spleen?

A

structures supplied by the the celiac trunk (i.e., structures that are part of the abdominal foregut) drain to pre-aortic nodes near the origin of the celiac trunk.

lymph from these celiac nodes enters the cisterna chyli.

77
Q

What is extrinsic and intrinsic innervation in the abdomen?

A

extrinsic innervation involves receiving motor impulses from, and sending sensory information to, the central nervous system;

intrinsic innervation involves the regulation of digestive tract activities by a generally self-sufficient network of sensory and motor neurons (the enteric nervous system).

78
Q

Does the spleen have extrinsic or intrinsic innervation? Describe the types of fibres involved. Which branches and divisions on the nervous system are involved?

A

extrinsic innervation:

The spleen sends sensory information back to the central nervous system through visceral afferent fibers and receive motor impulses from the central nervous system through visceral efferent fibers.

The visceral efferent fibers are part of the sympathetic and parasympathetic parts of the autonomic division of the PNS.

79
Q

What are the clinical consequences of removing the spleen? (2)

A

Increased risk of sepsis (Systemic inflammation due to infection)

Post-splenectomy platelet count may rise to abnormally high levels (thrombocytosis), leading to an increased risk of potentially fatal clot formation

80
Q

What is this structure? Complete the labels.

A

The Spleen

81
Q

Describe the flow of blood through the spleen.

A

The spleen is like the maze into which the Cretan king Minos sent his prisoners. As far as the trapped red blood cell is concerned, the macrophage is like the Minotaur!

The spleen is a highly vascular organ and blood flow through the spleen is rather complex.

  • Blood enters the spleen at the hilum via the splenic artery.
  • The splenic artery divides into trabecular arteries located within the trabeculae.
  • Small arterioles branch from the trabecular arteries and enter the red pulp where they become central arterioles which are surrounded by lymphoid tissue.
  • Smaller arterioles branch from the central arterioles and feed the white pulp capillary beds. Blood percolates through in the direction of the red pulp.
  • Once through the marginal zone, the blood either flows directly into adjacent venous sinuses, the so-called “fast pathway,” or enters the reticular meshwork of the red pulp, the “slow pathway”.
  • As much as 90% of the total splenic blood flow travels through the adjacent venous sinuses, bypassing the reticular meshwork of the red pulp.
  • Blood from the red pulp collects in the venous sinuses which merge into the trabecular veins which converge at the hilum to form the splenic vein.
82
Q

What is the function of the red pulp of the spleen? How does its structure make it suited to its function?

A

The red pulp is a blood filter that removes foreign material and damaged and effete erythrocytes. It is also a storage site for iron, erythrocytes, and platelets.

The red pulp is composed of a three dimensional meshwork of splenic cords and venous sinuses. It contains red pulp macrophages which are actively phagocytic and remove old and damaged erythrocytes and blood-borne particulate matter.

Worn-out or abnormal red cells attempting to squeeze through the narrow spaces in red pulp become badly damaged, and are subsequently devoured by macrophages.

83
Q

What is the structure of the white pulp of the spleen?

What is its function?

A

The white pulp surrounds the central arterioles of the spleen. It is composed of three sub-compartments: the periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS), the follicles, and the marginal zone.

The white pulp contains about one-fourth of the body’s lymphocytes and initiates immune responses to blood-borne antigens.

84
Q

What role does the liver play in the life cycle of an erythrocyte? (3)

A

Macrophages in the liver remove and engulf damaged erythrocytes, usuallly before they rupture, in a similar way to macrophages in the spleen.

Heme from haemoglobin is stripped of its iron, then converted into biliverdin, then bilirubin. Bilirubin is excreted by the liver in bile.

The liver stores iron in the form of ferritin and haemosiderin.

85
Q

What are the surfaces of the liver?

A

Surfaces of the liver include:
- a diaphragmatic surface in the anterior, superior, and posterior directions. This is smooth and domed, lies against the inferior surface of the diaphragm. Associated with it are the subphrenic and hepatorenal recesses.

  • a visceral surface in the inferior direction. The visceral surface of the liver is covered with visceral peritoneum except in the fossa for the gallbladder and at the porta hepatis.
86
Q

What are the names of the lobes of the liver?

What are the right and left lobes separated by?

A

Right, Left, Quadrate and Caudate.

The liver is divided into right and left lobes by fossae for the gallbladder and the inferior vena cava, and the falciform ligament appears to separate the two on the anterior surface.

87
Q

Describe the lobes of the liver.

A

The right lobe of liver is the largest lobe, whereas the left lobe of liver is smaller.

The quadrate and caudate lobes are described as arising from the right lobe of liver, but functionally are distinct.

The quadrate lobe is visible on the anterior part of the visceral surface of the liver and is bounded on the left by the fissure for ligamentum teres and on the right by the fossa for the gallbladder. Functionally it is related to the left lobe of the liver.
The caudate lobe is visible on the posterior part of the visceral surface of the liver. It is bounded on the left by the fissure for the ligamentum venosum and on the right by the groove for the inferior vena cava. Functionally, it is separate from the right and the left lobes of the liver.

88
Q

Where is the porta hepatis/hilum? What structures enter and leave the liver here?

A

hepatic portal vein (entering)
hepatic artery proper (entering)
common hepatic duct (leaving)

The hepatic duct lies in front and to the right, the hepatic artery to the left, and the portal vein behind and between the duct and artery.

It also transmits nerves and lymphatics.

89
Q

What are the relations of the liver when viewed in medial saggital section?

A

Anterior/superior - diaphragm

Inferior to the left lobe - stomach, connected by the lesser omentum

Posterior - omental bursa

90
Q

What are the anatomical relations of the liver when considered from an anterior view?

A

Anterior/superior - diaphragm

Inferior to the lateral part of the right lobe - colon

Inferior to the left lobe and the medial part of the right lobe - stomach, attached by the lesser omentum

91
Q

How much protein does plasma contain compared to interstitial fluid? Why can this difference occur?

What are the main plasma proteins (4)? What do they do?

A

Plasma has 5 times the dissolved proteins compared to interstitial fluid. The large size and globular shape of the proteins prevent them from crossing capillary walls, so they do not cross into interstitial fluid.

The main plasma proteins are:

Albumins (60%) transport fatty acids, thyroid hormones and some steroids.

Globulins (35%) These are either antibodies or transport globulins, eg. hormone binding globulins, metalloproteins for transport of metals, apolipoproteins and steroid binding globulins.

Fibrinogen (4%) Can interact to form large, insoluble fibrin molecules during blood clotting.

Peptide hormones (1%)

92
Q

Where are plasma proteins made?

What is one sign that insufficient plasma proteins are being made? What type of disease does this occur in?

A

90% of plasma proteins are made in the liver including all albumins and fibrinogen, most globulins and various prohormones.

Liver disorders can alter the composition of blood. For example, some liver disease can cause uncontrolled bleeding due to insufficient fibrinogen synthesis.