anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what is a collection of nerve cell bodies in the PNS called and in the CNS called

A

ganglion in the PNS, nucleus in the CNS

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2
Q

describe a multipolar neurone

A

2 or more dendrites, all motor neurones of skeletal muscle and ANS. Cell body in CNS

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3
Q

describe a unipolar neurone

A

double process, aka pseudounipolar/sensory, cell body in PNS

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4
Q

modalities of the CN

A
CN I- sensory
CN II- sensory
CNIII - motor
CN IV- motor
CN V - both 
CN VI- motor
CN VII- both
CN VIII- sensory
CN IX- both
CN X - both
CN XI- motor
CN XII- motor
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5
Q

Route through and exit from cranium of CN

A
CN I- forebrain
CN II- forebrain
CNIII - midbrain
CN IV- midbrain
CN V - pons
CN VI- junction (P+med)
CN VII- junction (P+med)
CN VIII- junction (P+med)
CN IX- medulla
CN X - medulla
CN XI- SC
CN XII- medulla
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6
Q

how many spinal nerves

A
31 pairs 
8 C
12 T
5 L
5 S
1 C
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7
Q

root of sensory axons

A

spinal nerve - posterior root - posterior rootlets - posterior horn of spinal cord

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8
Q

root of motor axons

A

from anterior horn of SC - anterior rootlets - anterior root - SC

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9
Q

what does each spinal nerve pair supply a body segment with

A

general sensory to all structures, somatic motor to skeletal muscles, symp nerve supply to skin and SM of arterioles

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10
Q

what is a dermatome

A

area of skin supplied with a sensory innervation from a single spinal nerve

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11
Q

what is a myotome

A

the skeletal muscles supplied with motor innervation from a single spinal nerve. can be deep to the dermatome but not always

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12
Q

male nipple landmark

A

T4

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13
Q

umbilicus landmark

A

T10

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14
Q

cervical plexus

A

C1-C4 (post scalp, neck and diaphragm)

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15
Q

brachial plexus

A

C5-T1 (upper limb)

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16
Q

lumbar plexus

A

L1-L4 (lower limb)

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17
Q

sacral plexus

A

L5-S4 (lower limb, gluteal region and perineum)

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18
Q

where are there lateral horns

A

T1-L2 (cell bodies - symp outflow)

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19
Q

where do presynaptic parasymp axons leave teh CNS

A

3, 7, 9, 10

sacral spinal nerves

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20
Q

extrinsoc back muscles

A

trapezius, rhomboids, levator scapulae, latissumus dorsi

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21
Q

intrinsic back muscles

A
erector spinae (superficial - 3 vertical muscle groups located lateral to the spine)
transversospinalis (deep)
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22
Q

where do the erector spinae muscles attach inferiorly

A

sacrum and illiac crest

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23
Q

where is the transversospinalis found

A

within the grooves between the transverse and spinous processes

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24
Q

muscles of the aterolateral abdo wall

A

transverse abdomonius, internal oblique, external oblique

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25
what muscles do flexion of the spine
psoas major and rectus abdominus
26
muscles do extension of the spine
erector spinae if they contract bilaterally. if unilateral you get lateral flexion
27
curvatures of the spine
cervical lordosis, thoracic kyphosis, lumbar lordosis, sacral kyphosis
28
intervertebral foramen forme by
adjacent vertebrae
29
facet joint form by
between articular process and adjacent vertebrae
30
where is there not an intervertebral disc
between C1-C2 and the sused sacrum/coccyx
31
what are teh intervertebral discs made of
outer fibrous ring (annulus fibrosus), inner nucleus pulposus
32
what does the ligamentum flavum connect
adjacent laminae posterior to spinal cord
33
what does the posterior longitudinal ligament do
prevents over flexion of spine. its narrow and weak
34
what does the anterior longitudinal ligament do
prevents over extension of spine. its string and broad so can provide some support for discs too
35
what does the supraspinous ligament do
connects tips of spinous processes
36
what doe steh interspinous ligament do
connect superior and inferior surfaces of adjacent spinous processes
37
describe Atlas
C1. doesnt have a body or spinous process
38
describe Axis
has odontoid process
39
which is vertebrae prominens
C7
40
describe the atlanto-occipital joint
between the occipital condyles and teh superior articular facets of teh atlas. Synovial joint
41
stages of cervical vertebrae dislocation
stage 1 - flexion sprain stage 2 - anterior subluxation, 25% translation stage 3 - 50% trsnslation stage 4 - complete dislocation
42
describe the atlanto axial joints
3 articulations - all synovial 2 between inferior articular facets of teh atlas and the superior articular facets of teh axis. 1 between the anterior arch of teh atlas and odonoid process of teh axis. main movement is rotation
43
in caudal anasthesis where is local anaesthetic injected
sacral hiatus to anaestetise the sacral spinal nerve roots of the causa equina
44
where does teh SC begin
foramen magnum
45
where is teh cauda equina
L2-C0
46
where is epidural fat found
between dura and bone
47
what is a laminectomy
removal of one or more spinal process and teh adjacent lamina
48
what are peripheral nerves
nerves that often have more than one spinal nerve root and therefore overlap more than one true dermatome - given names
49
what spinal nerves make up the femoral nerve
L2,3,4
50
what is teh nerve point of the neck
just above the midpoint of posterior border of SCM. sesnory nerves of cervical plexus.
51
posterior parts of the back dermatomes are supplied by..
posterior rami
52
what is teh snuff box supplied by
cutaneous branches of radial nerve
53
what do teh posterior rami supply
posterior body wall
54
what do the anterior rami supply
anterolateral body wall
55
abduction and adduction of the shoulder joint
add - C7 (pec major and lat dorsi) | Abd- C5 (deltoid)
56
eblow joint flexion and extension
flex - C5,C6 (biceps brachii) | ext - C7.C8 (triceps)
57
finger joints flexion, extension, abduction, adduction
flex - c8 (digit flexors) ext - c7 (digit extensors) abduction - T1 (dorsal interossei) adduction - T1 palmar interossei
58
wrist flex and extension
flex - c6,7 (carpal flexors) | ext c7,8 (carpal extensors)
59
hip flexion and extension
flex - l2,3 (psoas major) | ext - l5, s1 (glut max, hamstrings)
60
knee flex and extension
flex - l5,s1 (hamstrings) | exten l3, 4 (quads)
61
ankle dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, inversion, eversion
dorsiflex - l4,5 (tibialis anterior) plantar flexion s1,s2 (gastrocnemius/soleus) inversion - l4 (inbialis ant and post) eversion l5,s1 (fibularis longus and brevis)
62
UMN lesion leads to what type of reflex
spasticity
63
LMN lesion leads to ehat type of reflex
flaccidity
64
knee reflex
l4
65
biceps reflex
c5,(6)
66
supinator/brachioradialis reflex
c6
67
triceps reflex
c7
68
ankle refled
s1
69
muscles of facial expression
CN VIII
70
muscles of mastication
CN V
71
muscles of tongue
CN XII
72
muscles of soft palate
CN X/pharangeal plexus
73
muscles of neck posture
post rami of cervical spinal nerves
74
strap muscles
cervial plexus
75
muscles of diaphragm
c3,4,5 (phrenic nerve)
76
sternocleidomastoid and trapezius
CN XI
77
muscles of pharynx
CN X
78
intrinsoc muscles of larynx
CNX
79
intercostal muscles
intercostal nerves
80
anterolateral abdominal wall muscles
thoracoabdominal nerves
81
erector spinae and transversospinalis
posterior rami of spinal nerves
82
deltoid and teres minor peripheral nerve motor innervation
axillary berve - c5,6
83
anterior compartment of arm peripheral nerve motor innervation (biceps, coracobrachialis, brachialis)
musculocutaneous nerve c5,6,7
84
``` anterior compartment of forearm peripheral nerve motor innervation(the pronator muscles (teres & quadratus) flexor carpi radialis palmaris longus flexor digitorum superficialis lateral half of flexor digitorum profundus flexor pollicis longus muscles of the hand: thenar muscles lumbricals 1&2) ```
median nerve (c5) 6,7,8,T1
85
muscles of posterior compartment of arm (triceps brachii) + muscles of the posterior compartment of forearm (brachioradialis supinator) + ALL the extensors of the carpus & digits abductor pollicis longus peripheral nerve motor innervation
radial nerve (C5),6,7,8,T1
86
muscles of anterior compartment of forearm (flexor carpi ulnaris medial half of flexor pollicis longus adductor pollicis) + muscles of the hand (hypothenar muscles, lumbricals 3&4 & ALL the interossei (dorsal & palmar)) peripheral nerve motor innervation
ulnar nerve c(7), 8, T1
87
what is the rotator cuff supplied by
branches of brachial plexus
88
what supplies the quads, sartorius, pectineus
femoral nerve l2,3,4
89
what supplies the medial compartment of the thigh (all adductors (brevis, longus, magnus) and gracilis)
obturator nerve l2,3,4
90
what supplies the short head of biceps femoris
sciatic nerve l4-s3 - common fibular part - l4-s2
91
supply to the muscles of teh lateral compartment of the leg (fubularis longus and brevis)
common fibular nerve - superficial fribular branch
92
``` supply to the muscles of the anterior compartment of leg: (fibularis longus & brevis) + muscles of the dorsum of the foot: (extensor digitorum brevis (EDB) extensor hallucis brevis (EHB)) ```
common fibular nerve - deep fibular branch
93
muscles of the posterior compartment of leg: (true hamstrings - semimembranosus semitendinosus long head of biceps femoris) + muscles of the posterior compartment of leg: (gastrocnemius soleus plantaris popliteus tibialis posterior) + muscles of the sole of the foot: (flexors of the digits (digitorum & hallucis longus) ALL intrinsic muscles of the sole of the foot)
sciatic nerve l4-s3 - tibial part - l4-s3
94
divisions of trigeminal nerve
opthalmic, maxillary, mandibular
95
where does trigeminal connect to CNS, intercranial part of course, base of skull foramen and extracranial part of course
pons (only nerve to come directly off of pons), inferior to edge of tentorium cerebelli, foramen - v1 - superior orbital fissure, v2-foramen rotundum, v3- foramen ovale. extra cranial - course from superficial and deep structures of teh face posteriorly towards the base of skull formaen.
96
what does v1 supply
upper eyelid, cornea, conjunctiva, skin of root/bridge/tip of nose
97
what does v2 supply
skin of lower eyelid, maxilla, ala of nose, upper lip
98
what does v3 supply
mandible, temperomandibular joint (except angle of mandible which is supplied by c2,3 spinal nerves)
99
deep structures v1/2/3 supply
1- bones + soft tissue of orbit, paranasal sinuses, anterior and posterior cranial fossae 2 - lower posterionasal cavity, maxilla and mandibular sinuses, floor of nasal cavity, maxillary teeth and associated soft tissue 3- middle cranial fossa, mandible, anterior 2/3 tongue, floor of mouth, buccal mucosa, mandibular teeth
100
trigeminal nerve motor innervation
3 jaw closing muscles - masseter, temporalis, medial pterygoid 1 jaw opeing muscle - lateral pterygoid
101
where does facial nerve connect to CNS, intercranial part of course, base of skull foramen and extracranial part of course
pontomedullary junction, internal acoustic meatus in posterior cranial fossa, temporal bone - internal acoustic meatus/stylomastoid formamen, pass into parotid gland and then into 1 of the 5 muscles that supply facial expression
102
what is the corda tymphanii (where does it come from and what does it supply)
branch of CN VII (rides with cn v3) | taste buds of teh anterior 2/3 tongue
103
what does facial nerve supply with para
parasympathetic supply to submandibular and sublingual saliv glands
104
glossopharangeal nerve connect to CNS, intercranial part of course, base of skull foramen and extracranial part of course
lateral aspect of superior medulla oblongata, towards jugular foramen in posterior cranial fossa, junction between temporal bone and occipital bone - jugular foramen, axons mainly pass to or from the palate and tongue
105
what does CN IX supply
1. general sensory - loads 2. special sensory to vallate papillae of the post 1/3 tongue 3. para to parotid gland 4. somatic motor to stylopharangeus (long muscle of pharynx) 5. visceral afferents to carotid sinus baroreceptors and the carotid body chemoreceptors
106
vagus nerve connect to CNS, intercranial part of course, base of skull foramen and extracranial part of course
lateral aspect of medulla, directly towards jugular formane, unction between occipital and temporal bone - jugular foramen, axons supply lots of structures between palate and midgut
107
where does the right and left CN X travel in the chest and abdomen
right - down lateral aspect of trachea left - down lateral aspect of aortic arch both pass posterior lung root and onto oesophagus, both pass through diaphragm with oesophagus both pass onto surface of stomach - foregut branches, branches to celiac and superior mesenteric ganglia, midgut branches, pancreatic branches, splenic branches, renal branches, last para branches pass to splenic flexure of the colon
108
spinal accessory nerves connect to CNS, intercranial part of course, base of skull foramen and extracranial part of course
cervical spine nerves anterior rootlets to the spinal cord, through foramen magnum then towards jugular foramen, between occipital and temporal bone, axons supply sternocleidomastoid then continue across posterior triangle of neck to supply trapezius
109
hypoglossal nerves connect to CNS, intercranial part of course, base of skull foramen and extracranial part of course
via many rootlets that attatch lateral to the pyramids of medualla oblongata, pass anteriorly towrads hypoglossal canal, hypoglossal canal, descends in neck lateral to carotid sheath, at level of hyoid bone it passes anteriorly towards lateral aspect of tongue, supplies most muscles of the tongue
110
damage to hypoglossal nerve
stick tongue out, tip will point towards the side of the injured nerve
111
5 layers of teh scalp
``` s- skin c- connective tissue a - aponeurosis l - loose connective tissue p - pericranium ```
112
describe location of the pterion and what artery is at risk of damage
H shaped, frontal, parietal, temporal and sphenoid thinnest part of skull middle menengial artery passes deep to it
113
what is teh diaphgram sellae
sheet of dura mater froming a roof over the pituitary fossa | the pituitary stalk sticks through it
114
what is tentorium cerebelli
sheet of dura mater over the cerebellum. attaches teh ridges of temporal bones and has a central gap to allow brainstem to pass through
115
what is the falx cerebri
midline structure made of dura mater which attaches to teh deep aspect of the skull. it separates the left and right hemispheres
116
what is the subarachnoid space and when does it end
between pia mater and arachnoid mater. contains CSF. reabsorbed into the dural venous sinuses via arachnoid granulations. It ends at S2
117
dscribe the circulation of CSF
secreted by choroid plexus from the lefta nd right ventricles, the 3rd ventricle, via the cerebral adquduct into 4th ventricle, then mainly into subarachnoid space, then reabsorbed from subarachnoid space via arachnoid granulations (recycle back into vascular system), into dural venous sinuses
118
treatment of hydrocephalus
ventricular peritoneal shunt - shunt catheter tunneled beneath skin of teh neck and chest then sites within teh peritoneal cavity
119
what is an extradural haemorrhage
between bone and dura. Ruptured middle menengial artery. trauma to pterion
120
what is a subdural haemorrhage
seperates the dura from the arachnoid. torn cerebral veins. falls in the elderly and alcoholics
121
subarachnoid haemorrhage
into the CFS of the arachnoid space. ruptured circle of willis ('berry aneurysm', congenital aneurysm
122
epidural
needle passes through supra and then interspinous ligaments, ligamentun flavum - epidural space
123
lumbar puncture
needle passes through supra and then interspinous ligaments, ligamentun flavum - epidural space - through the dura mater and arachnoid materto reach subarachnoid space to obtain CSF
124
what can damage to the extradural venous plexus result in
epidural haematoma compressing sinal cord or cauda equina
125
where to insert needle for epidural
l3/4
126
supratentorial herniation
cingulate, central, uncal, transclavarial
127
infratentorial herniation
upwards or downwards
128
what can compression of the oculomotor nerve by an uncalherniation lead to
ipsilateral fixed dilated pupil (blown pupil)