Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

what are the three main parts of the brain?

A

cerebrum

cerebellum

brainstem

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2
Q

what are the three parts of the brainstem?

A

midbrain

pons

medulla oblongata

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3
Q

the spinal cord is the inferior continuation of what?

A

the brainstem (medulla oblongata)

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4
Q

the hypothalmus and the thalmus form what?

A

diencephalon

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5
Q

what does the diencephalon form?

A

the central core of the cerebrum

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6
Q

the diencephalon has connections to what parts of the brain?

A

right and left cerebral hemispheres

the midbrain

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7
Q

the hypothalmus is connecteed to the pituitary by what?

A

infundibulum or pituitary stalk

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8
Q

what is another anatomical term for the pituiatary?

A

hypophysis

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9
Q

how is the pituitary divided?

A

anterior and posterior pituitary

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10
Q

the pituitary is a midline structure found in which bone structure?

A

pituitary fossa of the sphenoid bone

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11
Q

the pituitary fossa lies within what?

A

the sella turcica

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12
Q

the pituitary gland lies immediatley inferior to what structure?

A

the optic chiasm

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13
Q

the optic chiasm is formed from what?

A

the right and left optic nerves (CNs II)

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14
Q

which cranial bone are the optic canals found in?

A

the sphenoid bone

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15
Q

the right and left optic tracts pass anteriorly/posteriorly from the optic chiasm

A

posteriorly

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16
Q

after passing throughthe optic chiasm where do axons from the optic tracts synapse?

A

the thalamus

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17
Q

after synapsing in the thalamus the next axons pass to the visual cortex via what?

A

optic radiation

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18
Q

the visual cortex is found where?

A

the occipital lobe

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19
Q

each retina is divided into what?

A

nasal and temporal retina

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20
Q

the retina contains what

A

photoreceptors: rods and cones

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21
Q

light from the temporal side of the visual fieid enters the nasal/temporal retina?

A

nasal

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22
Q

pituitary tumour causing midline compression of the optic chiasm would result in what?

A

disruption in transmission of action potentials from the nasal retina bilaterally

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23
Q

disruption of the transmission from the nasal retina would result in what

A

patient would loose the ability to see structures in the temporal side of the visual field

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24
Q

loss of vision in the temporal side of the visual field bilaterally is called what?

A

bitemporal hemianopia

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25
Q

what are the two surgical approaches to the pituitary?

A

transcranial approach

transsphenoidal approach

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26
Q

describe the transcranial surgical approach

A

subfrontal- under the frontal lobe

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27
Q

describe the transsphenoidal surgical approach

A

via nasal cavities and sphenoid sinus

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28
Q

what forms the roof of the nasal cavity?

A

the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone

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29
Q

what forms the superior part of the nasal septum?

A

perpindicular plate of the ethmloid bone

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30
Q

what forms teh inferior part of the nasal septum?

A

the vomer

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31
Q

what are the nasal conchae also termed

A

turbinates

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32
Q

how are the nasal conchae of the lateral wall of teh nasal cavities divided?

A

superior nasal concha (of the ethmoid bone)

middle nasal concha (of the ethmoid bone)

inferior nasal concha

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33
Q

describe the paranasal sinuses

A

air filled spaces within the bones surroundign the nasal cavities

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34
Q

what lines the paranasal sinuses?

A

mucous secreting respiratory mucosa

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35
Q

what is the function of the paranasal sinuses?

A

make mucous and drain it into nasal cavities through ostia (bony holes)

reduce weight of skull

add resonance to voice

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36
Q

what are the four groups of paranasal sinuses?

A

frontal bone- frontal sinuses

maxillae- maxillary sinuses

ethmoid bone- ethmoidal air cells

sphenoid bone- sphenoid sinuses

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37
Q

the ethmoid air cells are further split into how many groups?

A

three groups between the nasal cavity and the orbit

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38
Q

the trasnsphenoidal transnasal surgical approach to the pituitary requires surgical fracture of which structures?

A

nasal septum

floor of the septum

roof of the sphenoid sinuses

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39
Q

in more complicated cases which Le Fort fracture approach to the nasal cavities provides better surgical access?

A

Le Fort 1 down- fracture approach

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40
Q

what lines the entirety of the cranial cavity internally?

A

dura mater

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41
Q

what is the name given to the tough sheet of dura mater stretched over the cerebellum within the posterioir cranial fossa?

A

the tentorium cerebelli

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42
Q

what is the name given to the tough sheet of dura mater that forms a roof over the pitutary fossa?

A

the diaphragm sellae

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43
Q

what within the dura mater drains blood from the cranial cavity?

A

dural venous sinuses

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44
Q

where do the dural venous sinuses drain into?

A

internal jugular veins at the jugular foraminae

Note: sinuses not histologically veins but function like them

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45
Q

where inthe cranial cavity are the jugular foraminae found?

A

the floor of the posterior cranial fossa

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46
Q

what connects the right and left cavernous sinuses to the pituitary?

A

the anterior intercavernous sinus

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47
Q

the pituitary gland is surrounded by what sinuses?

A

cavernous

intercavernous

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48
Q

which blood vessels pass through the cavernous sinuses?

A

the internal carotid arteries

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49
Q

the opthalmic artery is a branch of which major artery?

A

internal carotid artery

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50
Q

through what does the opthalmic artery enter the orbit?

A

the optic canal

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51
Q

the internal carotid artery enters the carotid canal in which cranial bone?

A

temporal bone

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52
Q

what is the function of the optic chiasm?

A

conducts APs bilaterally from the nasal retinae

53
Q

damage to the optic chiasm during pituitary gland surgery can result in what functional deficit?

A

bitemporal hemianopia

54
Q

what is the function of the oculomotor nerve?

A

motor to muscles that move the eyeball (globe)

parasympathetic to the sphincter of the iris

55
Q

damage to the oculomotor nerve during pituitary gland sugery results in what deficit?

A

problems with several eye movements

dilated pupil

56
Q

what is the function of the trochlear nerve?

A

motor to one muscle that moves the globe

57
Q

damage to the trochlear nerve during piruitary gland sugery can result in what deficit?

A

probelmes with specific eye movements

58
Q

what is the function of the trigeminal nerve?

A

sensory to most of the face

motor to the muscles of mastication

59
Q

damage to the trigeminal nerve during pituitary gland surgery can result in which deficit?

A

sensory symptoms on face

difficulty chewing

60
Q

what is the function of the abducent nerve?

A

motor to one muscle that moves the globe

61
Q

damage to the abducent nerve during pituitary surgery can result in what defecit?

A

problems with specific eye movement

62
Q

what is the function of the cavernous sinus?

A

drains venous blood

63
Q

damage to the cavernous sinus during pituitary surgery can result in what deficit?

A

venous haemorrhage

64
Q

what is the function of the internal carotid artery?

A

supplies arterial blood to brain and orbit

65
Q

damage to the internal carotid artery during pituitary surgery can result in what?

A

catastrophic haemorrhage

66
Q

what is the function of dura mater?

A

to protect the structures of the cranial cavity

67
Q

damage to the dura mater during pituitary gland surgery can result in what?

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leak

68
Q

what structures in the anterior neck is the thyroid closely related to?

A

larynx

tachea

69
Q

what does the thyroid gland usually consist of?

A

2 lateral lobes (R&L)

isthmus

70
Q

where do the lobes of the thyroid attach?

A

to the lateral aspects of the thyroid and cricoid cartilages and to the trachea

71
Q

where is the isthmus located?

A

anterior to the 2nd and 3rd cartilages of the trachea

72
Q

how will a lump in the gland (or enlarged gland) move during swallowing?

A

superiorly then inferiorly with the larynx

73
Q

how many parathyroid glands are there?

A

four

74
Q

where are the parathyroid glands located?

A

posterior surfaces of the thyroid glands lateral lobes

75
Q

how are the parathyroid glands named?

A

superior and inferior on right and left sides

76
Q

what is the name given to the common variant of the thyroid gland in which a thrid lobe is present?

A

pyramidal lobe

77
Q

what is the prevelance of a pyramidal lobe?

A

28-55% (mean 44.6%)

78
Q

which lobe dese the pyramidal lobe most commonly originate from?

A

left lateral lobe

79
Q

where does a pyramidal lobe most commonly attach?

A

thyroid cartilage

80
Q

a pyramidal lobe may extend as superiorly as what structure?

A

hyoid bone

81
Q

where does the thyroid begin its development? (embryologiically)

A

the junction between the anterior 2/3rds and posterior 1/3rd of the tongue

82
Q

what is the name of the embryological origin of the thyroid in adults?

A

foramen caecum

83
Q

during development the thyroid migrates _______ attached to the tongue via what?

A

inferiorly attached to the thyroglossal duct

84
Q

during which week of development does the thyroid reach its final position?

A

7th week of development

85
Q

what can be found at any point along the thyroids migratory path?

A

thyroglossal duct cysts

ectopic thyroid tissue

86
Q

what is the name given to the muscles found wihin the superfical fascia of the neck?

A

Platysma muscles

87
Q

what ‘group’ of muscles do the platysma muscles belong to?

A

the muscles of facial expression

88
Q

which nerve supplies the platysma muscles?

A

cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve)

89
Q

what are the four fascial compartments in the neck?

A

prevertebral (deep) fascia

investing (deep) fascia

2 carotid sheaths

pretracheal (deep) fascia

90
Q

what are the contents of the prevertebral (deep) fascia?

A

encloses cervical vertebrae

postural neck muscles

91
Q

what are the contents of the investing fascia?

A

trapezius

sternocleidomastoid

92
Q

what are the contents of the carotid sheaths?

A

internal jugular veins

carotid arteries

vagus nerves

deep cervical lymph nodes

93
Q

what are the contents of the pretracheal fascia?

A

strap muscles

thyroid gland

trachea

oesophagus

recurrent laryngeal nerves

94
Q

what lies between the pretracheal and prevertebral fascia?

A

retropharyngeal space

95
Q

how could infection in the neck spread into the mediasteinum?

A

between the fascial planes

96
Q

what is the attachment of the the sternal head of the sternocleidomastoid?

A

manubrium of the sternum

97
Q

what is the attachment of the clavicular head of the sternocleidomastoid?

A

medial end of the clavicle

98
Q

where do both heads of the sternocleidomastoid attach superiorly?

A

mastoid process of teh temporal bone

99
Q

which vessel does the anterior jugular vein drain into?

A

external jugular vein

100
Q

which vessel does the external jugular vein drain into?

A

subclavian vein

101
Q

where are the carotid sheaths located in the neck in relation to the thyroid?

A

anterolaterally in the neck either side of the thyroid

102
Q

where do the carotid sheaths attach superiorly?

A

base of teh skull around the jugular foramen and teh entrance to the carotid canal

103
Q

the right subclavian artery gives rise to which artery supllyng the thyroid?

A

right inferior thyroid artery

104
Q

what arteries supply the thyroid gland?

A

inferior thyroid artery

superior thyroid artery

external carotid artery

105
Q

what vessels drain the thyroid gland?

A

superior thyroid vein

middel thyroid vein

inferior thyroid vein

106
Q

what vessels do the thyroid veins drain into?

A

internal jugular veins

107
Q

list the sets of lymph nodes involved with the drainage of teh thyroid gland

A

superior deep cervical nodes

inferior deep cervical nodes

pretracheal node

paratracheal nodes

108
Q

how is lymph returned on the right side?

A

via the right lymphatic duct to the right venous angle

109
Q

how is lymph returned on the left side?

A

via the thoracic duct to the left venous angle

110
Q

what part of the brainstem do the vagus nerves connect with?

A

medulla oblongata

111
Q

what foramin do the vagus nerves pass through?

A

jugular foramen

112
Q

describe the pathway of the vagus nerves?

A

leave the medulla oblongata

extend through the jugular foramen

descend down the carotid sheaths

113
Q

what are the branches of the vagus nerve to the larynx in the neck?

A

superior laryngeal nerve

right recurrent laryngeal nerve

114
Q

describe the pathway of the right vagus nerve through the chest?

A

right lateral aspect of the trachea

posterior to right lung root

115
Q

describe the pathway of the left vagus nerve

A

left side of arch of aorta

posterior to left lung root

116
Q

onto which stucture do both the left and right vagus nerves descend to pass through the diaphragm

A

oesophagus

117
Q

how do the right and left vagus nerves terminate?

A

divide into terminal branches on the surface of the stomach

118
Q

at which point does the right vagus nerve give rise to the right recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

in the neck

119
Q

at which point does the left vagus nerve give rise to the left recurrent laryngeal branch?

A

in the chest- after descending ast arch of aorta

120
Q

list the close anatomical features of the thyroid

A

trachea

pretracheal fascia

oesophagus

carotid sheaths

recurrent laryngeal nerves

121
Q

list the strap muscles

A

sternohyoid

omohyoid

thyrohyoid

122
Q

what are the four surgical approaches to the thyroid gland?

A

classical thyroidectomy

endoscopicaly assisted thyroidectomy

endoscopic transaxillary approach

endoscopic trans breast approach

123
Q

define iatrogenically

A

when structures are damaged by the surgeon

124
Q

descirbe the classical thyroidectomy incision

A

‘collar’ incision made wihtin natural skin crease or langers lines

should be just superior to clavicles and jugular notch

made throught the skin and platysma

125
Q

injury to the recurrent nerve during thyroidectomy would resulyt in what?

A

paralysis of the vocal cord

126
Q

unilateral injury of the recurrent nerve results in what?

A

hoarseness

127
Q

bilateral injury of the recurrent nerves reults in what?

A

aphonia- inability to produce sound

inability to close the rima glottidis- fails to prevent aspiration or to produce a cough

128
Q
A