Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OMSITE > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

Random quick hit

1
Q

Sphenomandibular Ligament is from?

A

Meckel’s cartilage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What structures are derrived from Meckel’s cartilage?

A

Malleus, Smphysis, mandible, and sphenomandibular ligament.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What vessels form Keisselbach’s plexus?

A

Anterior ethmoid, sphenopalatine, greater palatine, superiod ethmoid arteries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are bones of the head and neck are formed by intramembranous ossification.

A

Skull, facial bones, clavicle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What structures pass through the optic canal?

A

Opthalmic artery, optic nerve, sympathetic fibers, meningeal sheaths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What structures pass through the superior orbital fissure?

A

Nerves: CN 3, 4, 6, V1. Oculomotor, trochlear, abducens, opthalmic division of trigeminal nerve, with frontal lacrimal and nasociliary branches
Cavernous plexus sympathetic fibers.

Veins: opthalmic veins (superior and inferior)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What passes through inferior orbital fissure?

A

Zygomatic branch of V2, ascending branches of pterygopalatine ganglion, infraorbital vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Organisms repsonsible for perichondritis after otoplasty?

A

Staph aureus, E. Coli, Pseudomonas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ideal auriculocephalic angle?

A

25-35 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What age is appropriate to consider otoplasty?

A

4 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is McGregors patch located?

A

Zygomatic prominence, can present as skin dimpling or retraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What nerves are of concern at McGregors patch?

A

Facial nerve becomes more superficial, Buccal nerve lies just deep to this location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What direction should the chisel be directed when performing the pterygoid plate osteotomy?

A

Down, forward, and medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is the maxillary artery in the pterygomaxillary fossa?

A

20-25mm superior to pterygomaxillary fissure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

During Lefort what is a safe distance to avoid DPA when using the chisel on the lateral nose?

A

Only chisel back 30mm on lateral nose to avoid DPA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is Erb’s point?
What nerves are of concern?

A

6cm inferior to ear lobule on posterior border of SCM. Greater auricular and spinal accessory nerves are just deep to the fascia at this point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What structures comprise the modiolus?

A

Modiolus is a confluence of 5 facial expression muscless laterral to the corners of the mouth.
It represents the configuration of the nasolabial fold and cheekbone.

Levator anguli oris, Zygomaticus major, risorius, platysma, and depressor angulis oris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Levator veli palatini inserts into what structure?

A

Palatine aponeurosis normally.
Hard palate in cleft patients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Facial muscles are typically innervated from which side?

A

Facial muscles are typically innervated from deep side except for levator anguli oris, buccinator, and mentalis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Where does the lacrimal duct end?

A

The opening of the nasolacrimal duct empties into the inferior nasal meatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the Valve of Hasner?

A

The opening of the nasolacrimal duct in the inferior meatus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cantralateral isual field deficit in both eyes?

A

Homonymous hemiaopsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Optic chiasma lesions visual field defect?

A

Bitemporal hemianopsia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Optic nerve injury visual field defect?

A

ispilateral blind eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Optic nerve palsy

A

Down and out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Abducens nerve palsy?

A

Down and in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the danger zone of the facial nerve as it crosses zygomatic arch?

A

.8–3.2cm anterior to the tragus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What attaches to Whitnall’s tubercle?

A

confluence of lateral canthal tendon, inferior supensory/Lockwood’s ligament, and multiple check ligaments of the lateral rectus that form the lateral retinaculum.

29
Q

What structure is an extension of periosteum in the orbit?

A

Orbital septum.

30
Q

In what percentage of people does the lingual nerve lie above the alveolar crest?

A

14%. Generally located 2mm medial and 3mm inferiorly to crest in the 3rd molar region.

31
Q

What is the most common reason for permanent lingual nerve injury?

A

Lingual plate fracture.

32
Q

What are the indications for coronectomy?

A

Necessary extraction but significant risk of nerve injury.

33
Q

T/F: Roots remain vital after coronectomy?

A

True

34
Q

Most common radiographic finding associated with inferior alveolar nerve damage with wisdom tooth extratction?

A

Loss of cortication, darkening of root, deviation of canal- Rood criteria.

35
Q

Optic canal is located how far posterior to the posterior ethmoid canal?

A

4-7mm posterior.
24, 12, 6. Anteiror ethmoid is 24mm posteior to anterior portion of lacrimal bone, posterior ethmoid is 12mm posterior to that. Optic canal is 6mm posterior to that.

36
Q

MRI: Hyperintensisty on T1 vs T2

A

T1: Fat is hyperintense

T2 Fluid is hyperintense.

37
Q

Why is a Risdon incision made 2cm inferior to the mandible

A

Marginal mandibular nerve is below the mandible between 19-53% of the time. Never lower than 1.5cm.

38
Q

What muscles are supplied by facial nerve

A

All muscles of facial expression, stapedius, posterior digastric, stylohyoid.

39
Q

What glands are supplied by parasympathetics from facial nerve?

A

Sublingual, submandibular, lacrimal.

40
Q

What nerve supplies parasympathetics to the parotid gland?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve.

41
Q

What muscles are supplied by the vagus nerve.

A

Cricothyroid, lavator veli palatini, salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossus, palatopharyngeus, superior/middle/inferior constrictors, muscles of the larynx.

42
Q

Which intrinsic muscle of the larynx is Not supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?

A

Cricothyroid, superior laryngeal.

43
Q

What muscles does the hypoglassal nerve supply?

A

All of the muscles of the tongue except palatoglossus.

44
Q

What muscle does the glossopharyngeal nerve supply?

A

Stylopharyngeus.

45
Q

What muscles are supplied by CN V?

A

Mastication muscles, tensor veli palatini, mylohyoid, anterior digastric, tensor tympani.

46
Q

What supplies taste to the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve.

47
Q

What supplies taste to the posterior epiglottis?

A

Vagus nerve

48
Q

What supplies sensation from the carotid sinus and body?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve.

49
Q

What does the nucleaus of Edinger-Westphal supply?

A

Parasympathetics to the iris sphincter and ciliary muscles via CN 3.

50
Q

What does the superior salivary nucleus do?

A

Supplies parasympathetics to the lacrimal, sublingual, and submandibular glands via CN 7 fibers.

51
Q

What does the solitary nucleus do?

A

Taste form facial nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, and vagus nerve. Chemo/mechano-receptors from carotid body via CN 9 and aortic body via vagus.

52
Q

What does the nucleus ambiguous do?

A

Motor neurons to CN 9 and 10 supplied muscles.

53
Q

what does inferior salivatory nucleus do?

A

Parasympathetics to parotid via CN 9.

54
Q

What are the 4 parasympathetic ganglia of the head and neck.

A

Submandibular ganglion-
Otic ganglion
Ciliary ganglion
Pterygopalatine/Meckel’s ganglion.

55
Q

What does Pterygopalatine ganglion do?

A

Supplies lacrimal, paranasal sinuses, and glands of the palate.

56
Q

What does the Ciliary ganglion do?

A

Post-ganglionic parasympathetic from Edinger-westphal nucleus to the pupillary sphincer and ciliary.

57
Q

What do the Otic ganglion do?

A

Located outside foramen ovale- innervates the parotid.

58
Q

What does the submandibular ganglion do?

A

Site of synapse for parasympathetic going to submandibular and sublingual salivary glands.

59
Q

What is derrived from 1st branchial arch?

A

Muscles of mastication, anteiror digastric, mylohyoid, tensor vlie palatini, tensor tympani, trigeminal nerve, maxillary artery, external carotid artery.

60
Q

What derives from 2nd branchial arch?

A

Facial nerve, and muscles of facial experssion, stapedial artery, hyoid artery.

61
Q

What derives from 3rd branchial arch?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve, stylopharyngeus muscles, common and internal carotids, INFERIOR parathyroid.

62
Q

What derives from 4th branchial arch?

A

Vagus nerve, Superior laryngeal nerve, cricothyroid muscle, all intrinsic soft palate msucles EXCEPT tensor veli palatini, thyroid cartilage, SUPERIOR parathyroids, epiglotic cartilage.

63
Q

What derrives from 6th branchial arch?

A

Vagus (recurrent laryngeal), all intrinsic larynx muscles except cricothyroid.

64
Q

What divides lateral pharybgeal space?

A

Styloid process and fascial attachements of the levator veli palatini call the aponeurosis of Zeckerland and Testut.

65
Q

Where should extraoral incision for drainage of superficial and deep Temporal spaces be placed?

A

Gillies approach incision.

66
Q

Where should extraoral incision for drainage of subandibular, sublingual, submasseteric and pterygomandibular spaces be placed?

A

Risdon incision but smaller.

67
Q

Where should extraoral incision for lateral pharyngeal and retropharyngeal spaces be placed?

A

Very low Risdon incision or vertically down the anterior border of SCM.

68
Q

What is the lymph node on the cricothyroid membrane frequently encountered in thyroidectomy?

A

Delphian lymph node.

69
Q

What muscle open the eye

A

Levator and mullers muscle.

OMSITE (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions