Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two branches of the peripheral nervous system, and what are their functions?

A

Somatic nervous system - muscles and nerves that interact with the environent

Autonomic nervous system - regulates the body’s internal state

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2
Q

In what branch of the PNS are sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves present? What effects do these nerves have?

A

The autonomic nervous system (ANS).
Sympathetic - stimulates internal organs, involved in the fight, flight or freeze response.
Parasympathetic - conserves energy and ‘winds things down’.

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3
Q

Where do the sympathetic nerves project from?

A

Thoracic (chest) and lumbar (mid-lower back) sections of the spine.

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4
Q

Where do the parasympathetic nerves project from?

A

The brain and sacral (lower back) region of the spine.

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5
Q

Name the first six cranial nerves and their function.

A

I. olfactory nerve (smell)
II. optic (sight)
III. oculomotor - (eye movement)
IV. Trochlear (eye movement)
V. trigeminal (facial sensations, chewing)
VI. abducens (eye movement)

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6
Q

Name the latter six cranial nerves and their functions.

A

VII. facial (taste - front 2/3 of tongue)
VIII. auditory/ vestibular nerve
IX. glossopharyngeal (taste - back 1/3 of tongue)
X. Vagus (gut)
XI. spinal accessory (neck, shoulders, head)
XIII. hypoglossal (tongue movement)

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7
Q

Name the cranial nerve involved in sight.

A

Optic nerve

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8
Q

Name the cranial nerves involved in eye movement.

A

Oculomotor, trochlear, abducens.

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9
Q

Name the cranial nerves involved in taste? + name the cranial nerve that controls tongue movement.

A

Taste - facial nerve (front 2/3 of the tongue), glossopharyngeal (back 1/3 of the tongue).
Tongue movement - hypoglossal nerve.

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10
Q

What are nuclei?

A

Clusters of cells (cell bodies) within the CNS.

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11
Q

What are tracts?

A

Clusters of axons within the CNS.

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12
Q

What are ganglia?

A

Clusters of cells (cell bodies) within the PNS.

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13
Q

What are nerves?

A

Clusters of axons in the PNS.

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14
Q

What are the three types of glial cells?

A

Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes and microglia.

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15
Q

What is white matter? + why is it white?

A

White matter is mde up of bundles of axons. The myelin, a lipid-rich substance that coats and insulates the axons, gives it it’s white colour.

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16
Q

what does grey matter consist of?

A

Grey matter consists of a high number of neurons/ nerve cell bodies and interneurons.

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17
Q

What are the function of unipolar afferent neurons, and where do they join the spine?

A

Unipolar afferent neurons are sensory neurons from both the somatic and autonomic nervous systems that send information from the body and surrounding environment to the brain. They join the spine in the dorsal horns.

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18
Q

Where do multipolar efferent neurons originate, and what are their functions?

A

Multipolar efferent neurons have cell bodies in the ventral root of the spine, and send signals form the brain and spine to the somatic and autonomic NS.

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19
Q

In a 3-4 week embryo, what are the three main brain regions?

A

Prosencephalon (forebrain), mesencephalon (midbrain) and rhombencephalon (hindbrain).

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20
Q

What does the prosencephalon form in later development?

A

The telencephalon (cerebrum) and diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus and epithalamus).

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21
Q

What does the mesencephalon form in later development?

A

The mesencephalon stays the mesencephalon (mid brain), containing the tectum and tegmentum.

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22
Q

What does the rhombencephalon form in later development?

A

The metencephalon (pons and cerebellum) and myelencephalon (medulla and reticular formation).

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23
Q

What are the three meninges that protect the brain?

A

Dura mater, pia mater and arachnoid meninx.

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24
Q

What is the function of the blood-brain barrier?

A

To filter the exchange of nutrients and other molecules in and out of the brain.

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25
Q

Where is the cerebrospinal fluid created?

A

Choroid plexus

26
Q

What are housed in the ventricles?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid.

27
Q

What are the vital functions of the medulla, and where did it originate?

A

The medulla is a part of the myelencephalon, which originated from the rhombencephalon. The vital functions are heart rate and breathing.

28
Q

What does the reticular formation do, and what is it a part of?

A

The reticular formation plays a role in behavioural arousal, and is a part of the myelencephalon.

29
Q

What structures make up the metencephalon, and what are their functions?

A

The Pons and the Cerebellum.
Pons - relay centre for vital functions
Cerebellum - plays a role in sensory and motor control, balance and navigation.

30
Q

If the cerebellum was damaged, what functions may that person lose?

A

Diminshed ability to balance, difficulty walking/ changes to gait.

31
Q

What are the two main structures in the mesencephalon?

A

Tectum and Tegmentum

32
Q

What are the bumps on the tectum, and what are their functions?

A

The superior and inferior colliculi.
Superior colliculi - visual orientating of attention
Inferior colliculi - auditory orientating of attention

33
Q

What are the two structures of the tegmentum?

A

The periaqueductal grey matter and the Substantia Nigra.

34
Q

What does the Substanti NIgra play a role in, and what disease is associated with degradation/ diminishing of this area?

A

The Substantia Nigra plays a role in motor control, and is associated with Parkinson’s disease.

35
Q

What comprises the diencephalon?

A

The thalamus, hypothalamus and the epithalamus.

36
Q

What are the three structures of the thalamus?

A

The lateral geniculate nucleus, the median geniculate nucleus and the ventro-posterior nucleus.

37
Q

In what brain region is the thalamus located? From which of the three regions did that region develop?

A

The diencephalon, which developed from the prosencephalon (forebrain).

38
Q

What does the hypothalamus control?

A

The pituitary gland - hormone production.

39
Q

What are the two glands of the diencephalon, and what are their functions?

A

Pituitary gland - regulates hormone production.
Pineal gland - associated with melatonin production and the sleep cycle.

40
Q

What structures are associated with the limbic system, and what is it’s function?

A

Cingulate gyrus, thalamus, hypothalamus, amygdala and hippocampus. The limbic system regulates behvaioural and emotional responses - the four F’s - fighting, fleeing, feeding and reproduction.

41
Q

What are the four F’s associated with the limbic system’s function?

A

Fighting, feeding, fleeing and reproduction.

42
Q

What does the basal ganglia consist of?

A

Globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, substantia nigra and the Striatum (consisting of the tail of Caudate and putamen).

43
Q

What is the basal ganglia associated with?

A

Motor control and voluntary movement.

44
Q

What two brain structures are Parkinson’s disease associated with?

A

The Basal Ganglia and the Substantia Nigra.

45
Q

What structure of the brain is damaged with encephalitis lethargica?

A

The Basal Ganglia.

46
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebral cortex, and what are their functions?

A

Frontal - voluntary movement, language expression and higher order executive functions.
Temporal - process auditory stimuli
Occipital - process occular stimuli
Parietal - processing and interpreting somatosensory information.

47
Q

What are the three types of glial cells?

A

Oligodendrocytes, microglia and astrocytes

48
Q

What are the functions of oligodendrocytes?

A

Oligodendrocytes generate and maintain myelin, and wrap around all the neurons in the nervous system.

49
Q

What are the functions of astrocytes?

A

Astrocytes provide structural integrity to the brain, and establish the blood brain barrier by sealing off capillaries.

50
Q

What are the functions of microglia?

A

Microglia are involved in the immune system, providing an anti-inflammatory response by rapidly activating to stop pathogens. They also eliminate excess neurotransmitters.

51
Q

What are the glial cells in the PNS called, and what are their functions?

A

Schwann cells - act very similarly to oligodendrocytes, in which they wrap around and myelinate the nerves.

52
Q

What disease is associated with oligodendrocyte dysfunction, how does it occur, and what are the effects?

A

Multiple Sclerosis
Occurs from immune cells attackign the myelin sheath around the axon
Due to this, the signal is signiifcantly slower to move down the axon, leading to sensory, cognitive and motor decline.

53
Q

What medical disorder can occur from glial cell dysfunctions? Provide an example.

A

Gliomas, or glial cell tumours. Example: astrocytoma, or glioblastoma

54
Q

What disease is associated with neuron dysfunction and degeneration? What can occur in the brain as a result?

A

Alzheimer’s disease, which can lead to cerebral atrophy -> the loss of neurons and the connections that help them communicate. This results in the external surface of the brain displaying widened sulci.

55
Q

What are the three neuropathological changes associated with dementia?

A

Amyloid plaques, tangles and lewy bodies.

56
Q

What proteins accumulate to form tangles, and in which cortex layers are they commonly found?

A

Tau proteins, and layers III and V.

57
Q

Why do people with down syndrome typically display dementia-like symptoms after 30 years?

A

A common neuropathological change associated with dementia - the amyloid plaque- consists of a protein core (beta-amyloid) which is coded for on chromosome 21. Down syndrome is trisomy-21, which means people with down syndrome are theoretically more likely to develop these plaques, which lead to dementia-like symptoms.

58
Q

What technology is used to record the electrical currents going through the cell membrane?

A

Whole cell patch clamp electrophysiology.

59
Q

Define temporal resolution. What imaging technique has the best temporal resolution?

A

Temporal resolution refers to accuracy in regards to time. MEG - magneto encepholography

60
Q

Define spatial resolution. What imaging technique provides the best spatial resolution?

A

Spatial resolution refers to the accuracy in regards to place. MRI - magnetic resonance imaging