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Principles > Anatomy > Flashcards

Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What does it mean if a patient is supine?

A

They are lying on their back

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2
Q

What does it mean if a patient is prone?

A

They are lying on their front

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3
Q

Describe the anatomical position

A

Patient is Standing
Patient is facing anteriorly/forwards (towards you)
Face and eyes looking anteriorly
upper limbs by side
palms of hands facing anteriorly
feet together
toes pointing anteriorly

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4
Q

Define a median (sagittal) plane

A

The median plane also called a mid-sagittal plane is a sagittal(vertical) plane that bisects the body vertically through the midline marked by the navel, dividing the body exactly in left and right side.

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5
Q

Define a coronal plane

A

A vertical plane which divides the body into anterior and posterior parts

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6
Q

Define an axial(transverse) plane

A

A horizontal plane which divides the body into superior and inferior parts

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7
Q

When talking about a patient do you use your own right and left if you are facing them or theirs

A

Theirs

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8
Q

Define anterior

A

nearer to the front of the body

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9
Q

Define posterior

A

nearer to the back of the body

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10
Q

Why would a surgeon mark the correct side of a patient with an arrow before the patient is transferred to the operating theatre?

A

To prevent a right/left error

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11
Q

Define superior or cranial/rostral

A

Nearer to the top of the head

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12
Q

Define inferior or caudal

A

Nearer to the soles of the feet

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13
Q

Define medial

A

Nearer to the midline/median plane

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14
Q

Define lateral

A

Further from the midline/median plane

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15
Q

Define proximal

A

Nearer to the attachment of the limb to the body

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16
Q

Define distal

A

Further from the attachment of the limb to the body

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17
Q

How can the terms proximal and distal be applied to arteries?

A

Proximal part of the artery is where it originates, the distal part of the artery is where it terminates

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18
Q

Define superficial

A

Nearer to the surface of the body

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19
Q

Define deep

A

Further from the surface of the body

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20
Q

Define external

A

further from the centre of the body or organ

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21
Q

Define internal

A

Nearer to the centre of a body or organ

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22
Q

Define dorsal in relation to the wrist, hand, tongue and foot

A

posterior surface of the wrist
posterior surface of the hand
posterior surface of the tongue
superior surface of the foot

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23
Q

What is the opposite to the dorsal surface of the wrist?

A

Volar, the anterior surface of the wrist

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24
Q

What is the opposite to the dorsal surface of the hand?

A

Palmar, the anterior surface of the hand

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25
Q

What is the opposite to the dorsal surface of the tongue?

A

Ventral, anterior surface of the tongue

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26
Q

What is the opposite of the dorsal surface of the foot?

A

Plantar, the inferior surface of the foot

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27
Q

Define the anatomical terms major and minor

A

Relatively larger and smaller structures with the same names

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28
Q

What does it mean if a structure is midline?

A

Single structure located at (or near) the midline/median plane

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29
Q

What does it mean if a structure is unilateral?

A

Structure is normally found only on one side of the body

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30
Q

what does it mean if a structure is bilateral?

A

Normally paired structures, a right and a left structure.

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31
Q

What does it mean if a structure is ipsilateral in relation to another structure?

A

Structure lies on the same side of the body as the other structure or location it is being compared to

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32
Q

What does it mean if a structure is contralateral in relation to another structure?

A

Structure lies on the opposite of the body to the other structure or location it is being compared to.

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33
Q

Provide 4 examples of combined anatomical terms

A

4 of….
superolateral; superomedial
inferolateral; inferomedial
anteroinferior; anterosuperior
anterolateral; posterolateral

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34
Q

What is flexion?

A

Decreasing the angle between the bones at a joint.

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35
Q

What is extension?

A

Increasing the angle between the bones at a joint.

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36
Q

Define abduction

A

movement away from the median plane

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37
Q

Define adduction

A

movement towards the median plane

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38
Q

What is internal/medial rotation?

A

Anterior surface of a limb rotates towards the median plane

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39
Q

What is external/lateral rotation?

A

Anterior surface of a limb rotates away from the median plane

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40
Q

Define circumduction

A

Circular motion at a joint

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41
Q

How would you describe all movements at a joint superior to the knee joint?… neck, back, shoulder, elbow, wrist, finger, hips

A

Flexion

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42
Q

How would you describe all anterior movements inferior to the knee joints?… Knee, ankle, toes

A

Extension

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43
Q

What is eversion of the foot?

A

The sole of the foot rotates away from the median plane such that the sole faces laterally

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44
Q

What is inversion of the foot?

A

The sole of the foot rotates towards the median plane such that the sole faces medially.

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45
Q

What is pronation of the forearm?

A

Anterior surface of the forearm rotates such that the palm of the hand faces posteriorly.

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46
Q

What is supination of the forearm?

A

The forearm rotates from the pronated position back into the anatomical position.

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47
Q

What orientation is the forearm in in anatomical position?

A

supinated

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48
Q

What is the orientation of the forearm and hand when halfway between supinated and pronated and facing medially e.g. when you lift a cup

A

semi-prone

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49
Q

What is the name given to the movement of bringing the thumb to touch another digit?

A

Opposition

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50
Q

What is the movement which brings the thumb back from opposition to anatomical position?

A

Reposition

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51
Q

How would you describe flexion and extension of the digits?

A

flexion is bringing them to touch your palm and extension is moving them back into anatomical position

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52
Q

To flex your wrist do you move it superiorly or inferiorly if you are holding your arm out?

A

Inferiorly

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53
Q

What is the orientation of the palm in anatomical position?

A

Supinated

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54
Q

Describe pronation of the palm

A

Palm faces the posterior part of the body

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55
Q

What is abduction of the thumb?

A

Taking thumb anteriorly away from the palm

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56
Q

What is adduction of the thumb?

A

“Adding” thumb back to palm after abduction anteriorly away from the palm

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57
Q

Describe extension of the thumb

A

Taking thumb laterally away from palm

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58
Q

Describe flexion of the thumb

A

Folding the thumb across the palm

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59
Q

Describe lateral flexion

A

Facing anteriorly but bending to the left or right at your hip as in a sideways lunge

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60
Q

What is elevation?

A

A superior movement such as shrugging your shoulders

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61
Q

What is depression?

A

An inferior movement such as returning your shoulders to normal after shrugging them.

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62
Q

Describe protrusion and retrusion of the jaw at the temporomandibular joints

A

protrusion is when your jaw moves forward e.g. when making a petted lip
retrusion is the return of your jaw to anatomical position

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63
Q

What is protraction?

A

An anterior movement

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64
Q

What is retracton?

A

A posterior movement

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65
Q

What does the prefix ‘costo’ or ‘costal’ relate to?

A

The ribs

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66
Q

What does the word chondral relate to?

A

cartilage

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67
Q

Where does the word oculi come from?

A

Relates to oculus, latin for ‘eye’

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68
Q

What is rectus latin for?

A

straight

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69
Q
A
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70
Q

What is vesicle latin for?

A

Bladder

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71
Q

What is systemic anatomy?

A

When we study the body organ systems that work together to carry out complex functions.

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72
Q

What is regional/topographical anatomy?

A

Considering the organisation of the human body as different major parts or segments e.g. the head and neck, trunk, etc

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73
Q

Describe surface anatomy?

A

Closely related to regional/topographical and is basically understanding what lies directly beneath the skin and what structures are palpable.

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74
Q

What is clinical anatomy?

A

Type of applied anatomy stressing the clinical relevance

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75
Q

What is a prosection?

A

A professionally dissected anatomical specimen which is plastinated (dipped in plastic) to help preserve them.

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76
Q

What is anatomical variation?

A

Recognition that everything we are taught/see in textbooks etc is the average but we don’t all look the same on the outside or inside.

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77
Q

What is the fascia?

A

Connective tissue wrapping/packaging/insulating material of the deep structures of the body.

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78
Q

What does the circulatory system do at the most basic level?

A

Transports fluids through the body

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79
Q

What two systems is the circulatory system comprised of?

A

Cardiovascular system

&

Lymphatic system

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80
Q

What are the functions of the circulatory system?

A
  • Distribution of gases and other molecules for nutrition, growth and repair
  • chemical signalling (hormones)
  • thermoregulation
  • mediate inflammation and host defence responses
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81
Q

What are the 3 main components of the cardiovascular system and what do they do?

A

Arterial system

  • All arteries of the body carry blood away from the heart.

Heart

  • The pump of the system

Venous system

  • All the veins of the body carry blood towards the heart.
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82
Q

What are the two main circulations of the cardiovascular system?

A

Pulomary circulation

systemic circulation

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83
Q

Describe the pulmonary circulation

A
  • From the right side of heart
  • to lungs
  • back to left side of heart
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84
Q

Describe the systemic circulation

A
  • from the left side of the heart
  • to capillary beds of organs and tissues
  • back to the right side of the heart
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85
Q

What is systole?

A

contraction

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86
Q

What is diastole?

A

Relaxation

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87
Q

What is the average pulse rate?

A

70 beats per minute (bpm)

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88
Q

How many systoles are there?

A

There are two.

The atria contract first and then the ventricles so there is an atrial systole and a ventricular systole.

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89
Q

What kind of blood does the right side of the heart carry?

A

de-oxygenated

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90
Q

What kind of blood does the left side of the blood carry?

A

oxygenated

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91
Q

What is different about veins and arteries in the transport of blood around the heart?

A

Veins carry oxygenated blood and arteries carry de-oxygenated blood which is unusual.

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92
Q

What is the path that blood travels through the body?

A

Right atrium > Right ventricle > Pulmonary artery > Lungs > Pulmonary vein > Left atrium > Left ventricle > Aorta > Rest of the body

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93
Q

What are the 3 layers of the heart?

A
  • Epicardium (external)
  • Myocardium (middle)
  • Endocardium (internal)

Ep- near to

myo- muscle

Endo- Internal

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94
Q

What is the Epicardium of the heart?

A
  • Visceral serous pericardium
  • An outer protective layer
  • composed of loose connective tissue including elastic fibres and adipose tissue
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95
Q

Describe the myocardium of the heart

A
  • Cardiac muscle layer
  • Thick muscular layer
  • responsible for contraction
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96
Q

What is the endocardium of the heart?

A
  • The internal layer which is continuous with endothelium of blood vessels connecting with the heart
  • forms the surface of valves
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97
Q

What are the four chambers of the heart?

A

Right atrium

Right ventricle

Left atrium

Left ventricle

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98
Q

Which border of the heart does the right atrium form?

A

The right border

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99
Q

Which surface of the heart does the right ventricle form?

A

Forms most of the anterior surface of the heart

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100
Q

Which heart chamber forms the left border of the heart?

A

The left ventricle

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101
Q

Which chamber of the heart forms the posterior surface of the heart?

A

Left atrium

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102
Q

What are the five great vessels of the heart?

A

Superior vena cava (SVC)

Inferior vena cava (IVC)

Aorta

Pulmonary trunk- divides into left and right pulmonary arteries

Pulmonary veins (x4)

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103
Q

What is the purpose of cardiac valves?

A

Valves ensure uni-directional blood flow i.e. they prevent the backflow of blood

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104
Q

Name the two atrio-ventricular valves located between the atria and the ventricles

A

Tricuspid valve and the mitral (bicuspid) valve

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105
Q

Where is the pulmonary valve located?

A

Between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk

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106
Q

Where is the tricuspid valve located?

A

Between the right atrium and the right ventricle

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107
Q

Where is the Mitral valve located?

A

Between the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk.

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108
Q

Where is the aortic valve located?

A

Between the left ventricle and the aorta

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109
Q

What is the purpose of the pulmonary valve?

A

Prevents backflow from the pulmonary artery into the right ventricle

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110
Q

What is the purpose of the aortic valve?

A

It stops blood flowing back into the left ventricle from the aorta.

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111
Q

What is the normal route for electrical conduction in the heart?

A
  1. Electrical impulse starts spontaneously at SA node (causing both atria to contract)
  2. Travels to AV node at atrioventricular septum
  3. Travels down right and left bundles in the interventricular septum
  4. Spreads out to myocardium through conducting fibres (causing both ventricles to contract)
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112
Q

What is the route of arterial supply and venous drainage?

A

arteries

arterioles

capilaries

venules

veins

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113
Q

What is the lumen of a blood vessel?

A

The space through which blood travels

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114
Q

What are the three layers which comprise most blood vessels?

What is their location within vessels and what are they made of?

A
  1. Tunica intima (internal)- endothelium
  2. Tunica media (middle)- smooth muscles and elastic fibres
  3. Tunica adventitia (external)- connective tissue
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115
Q

What are the 7 key principles of arteries?

A
  1. Often part of a neurovascular bundle (nerve, artery, vein)
  2. High pressure (>120/80mmHg) so thick walls
  3. Often named by anatomical location (e.g. brachial artery, intercostal artery)
  4. Pulsatile
  5. Round lumen
  6. Typically located deeper than veins
  7. Carry oxygenated blood
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116
Q

When using the words proximal and distal in relation to arteries what do we mean?

A

Proximal- closer to the heart

Distal- away from the heart

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117
Q

What does bifurcation mean?

A

Divides into 2

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118
Q

What does trifurcation mean?

A

Divides into 3

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119
Q

What is a territory?

A

A region of the body supplied by a single artery and its branches.

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120
Q

What two terms indicate that a named artery will definitely divide again?

A

common

trunk

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121
Q

What happens when the smooth muscle in the walls of arterioles (& some arteries called muscular arteries) contracts?

A

This narrows the vessel’s lumen

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122
Q

Define Vasodilation

A

Relaxation of the smooth muscle in the walls of the arterioles and widening of the lumen to INCREASE blood flow to the organ/tissue supplied.

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123
Q

Define vasoconstriction

A

Contraction of the smooth muscle in the walls of the arterioles to REDUCE blood flow to the organ/tissue supplied.

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124
Q

What is the sympathetic tone?

A

Background, low level of contraction of smooth muscle in arterioles,

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125
Q

How does the sympathetic tone come about?

A

Due to tonic (continuous) conduction of action potentials to arterioles by sympathetic nerves.

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126
Q

How can the sympathetic nervous system reduce blood loss following an injury?

A

Arteriolar smooth muscle contraction (vasoconstriction) can help to reduce blood loss following an injury (the vessel is said to be in “spasm”)

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127
Q

What is an anastomosis?

A

An anastamosis is where arteries connect with eachother without an intervening capillary network

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128
Q

What is an arterial occlusion?

A

A blockage in the artery

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129
Q

What does an anastomosis do?

A

Provides alternative routes for blood to flow to supply the cells distal to an arterial occlusion e.g. there are anastomoses around elbows and knees to allow the bend during flexion.

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130
Q

What is an end artery?

A

An end artery is the ONLY arterial blood supply to a given area of the body (there are no collateral vessels)

131
Q

What would happen if there was an untreated occlusion of an artery?

A

This would result in infarction of its territory

132
Q

Define infarction

A

Irreversible cell death due to hypoxia (lack of oxygen) caused by loss of arterial blood supply.

133
Q

Provide 3 examples of infarction

A

Fingertip infarction- occlusion of a digital artery branch (amputation)

Myocardial infarction- occlusion of a coronary artery (‘heart attack’ or death)

Retinal infarction- occlusion of the central artery of the retina (monocular blindness)

134
Q

Provide 5 key facts about the aorta…

A
  1. All the systemic arterial blood enters the aorta first.
  2. Recieves blood at high pressure during systole (when the heart contracts).
  3. Its elastic walls expand under the pressure.
  4. Elastic recoil maintains peripheral flow when the heart relaxes (during diastole).
  5. Aorta has many branches which supply the whole body.
135
Q

Name the 4 parts of the aorta

A
  1. Ascending aorta
  2. Arch of the aorta
  3. Thoracic aorta
  4. Abdominal aorta
136
Q

How many branches does the ascending aorta have?

What are they called and what do they do?

A

Two branches

The left and right coronary artery

Supply the heart muscle with blood, so if they are blocked- MI

137
Q

How many branches does the arch of the aorta have?

A

3

138
Q

How many branches does the thoracic aorta have?

A

Numerous

139
Q

How many branches does the abdominal aorta have?

A

3 unpaired midline branches & several paired, bilateral branches

140
Q

Name the 3 branches of the arch of the aorta

A
  1. Brachiocephalic trunk (brachio= arm, cephalic=head)
  2. LEFT common carotid artery

3, LEFT subclavian artery (runs below the clavicle)

141
Q

Where so the branches of the arch of the aorta supply?

A

Head, neck and upper limb

142
Q

What two arteries does the brachiocephalic trunk bifurcate into?

A

Right common carotid artery

Left subclavian artery

143
Q

What sometimes happens to arteries at different anatomical landmarks?

A

They can change their name

144
Q

What do you always need to include when describing arteries?

A

Rights and lefts

internal/extrenal

145
Q

Which arteries supply the pelvis/perineum and lower limbs?

A

common illiac arteries

146
Q

Which bifurcations of the common iliac arteries supply the lower limbs and pelvis/perineum respectively?

A

External iliac artery- lower limbs

Internal iliac artery- pelvis/perineum

147
Q

Name the 6 peripheral pulses

A

Carotid pulse

Femoral artery pulse

popliteal artery pulse

dorsalis pedis artery pulse

brachial artery pulse

radial artery pulse

148
Q

Where can the carotid pulse be observed?

A

At the bifurcation of the common carotid artery

149
Q

Where can the brachial artery pulse be felt?

A

Anterior to the elbow joint

150
Q

Where can the radial artery pulse be observed?

A

Radial side of the palmar aspect of the wrist

151
Q

Where can you feel the femoral artery pulse?

A

The continuation of the external iliac artery in the midpoint of the groin.

152
Q

Where can you feel the popliteal artery pulse?

A

Posterior to the knee joint

153
Q

Which peripheral pulse is located on the dorsum of the foot?

A

Dorsalis pedis artery pulse

154
Q

What are the 7 key principles of veins?

A
  1. Often run in neurovascular bundle- nerve, artery, vein
  2. carry de-oxygenated blood
  3. low pressure and non-pulsatile
  4. drain blood away from a territory
  5. venules and veins merge like tributaries of a river
  6. Thin walled which are collapsed when empty
  7. They have valves!
155
Q

What are the three ways venous blood is “pumped” back towards the heart?

A
  1. Venous valves
  2. skeletal muscle pump
  3. Venae comitantes
156
Q

What is the function of venous valves when it comes to venous return?

A

In limb veins, valves are present to ensure unidirectional flow back to the heart against gravity.

157
Q

How does the skeletal muscle pump allow venous return?

A

Contraction of skeletal muscles in the lower limb squeezes veins to help blood flow back to the heart.

158
Q

How do venae comitantes allow venous return?

A
  • small veins run in pairs or more with an artery in a sheath
  • arterial pulsation pushes venous blood along
159
Q

Name and describe the 2 sets of veins that the body posesses?

A

superficial veins- smaller and run within superficial fascia then drain into…

deep veins- larger and run deep to the deep fascia & in cavities often in NVB

160
Q

What are the 2 main venous systems of the body?

A

The hepatic portal venous system

The Systemic venous system

161
Q

What is the function of the hepatic portal venous system?

A

Drains venous blood from absorptive parts of the GI tract & associated organs to the liver for “cleaning”

162
Q

What is the function of the systemic venous system?

A

Drains venous blood from all other organs and tissues into the superior and inferior vena cava.

163
Q

List 4 key principles of capillaries

A
  • Form extensive vascular networks
  • lined with a single layer of endothelium
  • Narrow lumen only allowing one red blood cell (erythrocyte) through at a time.
  • Allow for exchange of gases, metabolites and waste products.
164
Q

Why is it important to know about lymphatic drainage?

A

One of the major areas where infection or cancer can spread.

165
Q

What is the function of lymphatic capillaries?

A

They collect tissue fluid (the fluid that normally leaks out when blood flows through capillary beds)

166
Q

What is tissue fluid called when it enters the lymphatic capillaries?

A

Lymph

167
Q

Describe lymphatic circulation

A
  1. Lymphatic capillaries collect tissue fluid.
  2. Once in the lymphatic capillaries the fluid is called lymph.
  3. lymphatics carry lymph through lymph nodes.
  4. Eventually lymph is returned into the central veins in the root of the neck.
168
Q

Why are lymph nodes important?

A

Contain white blood cells to filter out foreign particles and fight infection/cancer.

169
Q

Which lymphatic duct drains lymph into the right venous angle?

A

The right lymphatic duct

170
Q

Which is the only lymphatic vessel large enough to be found in dissection?

A

The thoracic duct

171
Q

Which lymphatic duct drains lymph into the left venous angle?

A

The thoracic duct

172
Q

What are the two types of lymphatic vessels?

A

Superficial and deep

173
Q

How is the lymphatic system a ‘recycling system’?

A

Lymph eventually drains back into the venous system at the venous angles in the root of the neck (where the central veins returning from the head/neck & upper limbs meet).

174
Q

Which regions of the body does the thoracic duct drain?

A

Right and left lower limbs, abdomen, left side of the chest, left upper limb and left side of the head and neck

175
Q

Which regions of the body does the lymphatic duct drain?

A

Right upper limb

Right side of the chest

Right side of the head and neck

176
Q

What is another name given to conducting fibres?

A

Purkinje fibres

177
Q

Can normal lymph nodes be palpated?

A

No

178
Q

What does ‘palpated’ mean?

A

Felt beneath the examining doctors fingertips

179
Q

Why would you be able to palpate a lymph node or see it on a CT scan?

A
180
Q

Which bones make up the axial skeleton?

A

Bones of the skull

Bones of the neck

Bones of the trunk

181
Q

Which bones make up the appendicular skeleton?

A

Bones of the pectoral girdle

Bones of the upper limbs

Bones of the pelvic girdle

Bones of the lower limb

182
Q

What is the name of the single long bone in the arm?

A

Humerus

183
Q

What are the names of the two long bones in the forarm?

A
  1. Radius (lateral aspect)
  2. Ulna (medial aspect)
184
Q

What are the names of the three types of bones in the hand:

a) The wrist bones
b) The bones in the palm
c) The finger bones

A

a) Carpal bones
b) Metacarpals
c) Phalanges

185
Q

What is the name of the one long bone in the thigh?

A

The fumur

186
Q

Name the 2 long bones in the leg

A
  1. Tibia (medial aspect)
  2. Fibula (lateral aspect)
187
Q

Name the 3 types of foot bone:

a) hindfoot/midfoot
b) forefoot
c) forefoot- toes

A

a) Tarsal bones
b) Metatarsals
c) Phalanges

188
Q

When do bony features develop?

A

During bone growth

189
Q

For what 3 reasons may bony features develop?

A
  1. Functional-best shape for the job (may help fulfil a function)
  2. An adjacent structure e.g. a tendon, a blood vessel, a nerve or another bone applies a force to the developing bone moulding its shape accordingly.
  3. An adjacent structure is developing at the same time as the bone- the bone has to grow around the other structure forming a foramen.
190
Q

What is a tuberoscity?

A

A roughened, raised patch where the muscle or connective tissue is attaching to the bone.

191
Q

What is a foramen?

A

An opening, hole or passage within the bone.

192
Q

What two components make up the skeleton?

A

Bones and Cartilage

193
Q

What is bone?

A

A hard connective tissue

194
Q

What are the 4 functions of bone?

A
  1. Support & protection of the body organs
  2. Calcium metabolism
  3. Red blood cell formation
  4. Attachment for skeleltal muscles
195
Q

Where does red blood cell formation occur?

A

In the bone marrow, usually in flat bones e.g. hips, sternum, skull, ribs, ends of long bones

196
Q

Is connective tissue more or less rigid than bone?

A

Less rigid

197
Q

Where is cartilage located?

A

Where mobility is required- at articulations (joints).

198
Q

Where does movement of the skeleton occur?

A

At joints

199
Q

How does movement of the skeleton occur?

A

Skeletal muscles which are attached to the bones contract to move the bones.

200
Q

What are the 3 types and subtypes of joints?

A
  1. Synovial
  2. Cartilaginous
  3. Fibrous
201
Q

What is each type of joint a compromise between?

A

Mobility and stability

Increased mobility = decreased stability

Decreased mobility = increased stability

Each joint has a different compromise profile.

202
Q

_________ joints are the most mobile but least stable.

A

Synovial

203
Q

________ joints are the least mobile but the most stable.

A

Fibrous

204
Q

Do joints have a good sensory nerve supply?

A

Yes, joints have an excellent sensory nerve supply,

205
Q
A
206
Q

What are the 4 sensations detected by the sensory receptors of the joint nerves?

A
  1. pain
  2. touch
  3. temperature
  4. proprioception (sense of where a joint is positioned in space)
207
Q

The arteries supplying joints arise from large named arteries located near the joint. What are these arteries at joints called?

A

Articular branches

208
Q

Periarticular arterial anastomoses are common. What are these?

A

Periarterial- around the joint

anasatomoses-connection or opening between two things usually branching or diverging.

So there are arterial connections between arteries around the joint to ensure no matter what way a joint moves there is a continuous blood supply.

209
Q

How can the arteries supplying joints become damaged?

A

Dislocation

Pathology such as arthritis

210
Q

Which type of muscles produce movement and locomotion of the skeleton?

A

Skeletal muscles

211
Q

Where are skeletal muscles usually found?

A

Deep to deep fascia.

Deep fascia is a tough, fibrous, connective tissue covering that lies deep to the superficial fascia and surrounds most of the skeletal muscles of the body.

212
Q

What is skeletal muscle?

A

A tough fibrous connective tissue covering.

213
Q

There are many different types of muscle fibres. Name 4.

A
  1. Circular- usually around body orifaces
  2. fusiform- spindle shaped
  3. Pennate- feather like
  4. quadrate- four equal sides
214
Q

What is the benefit of longer muscle fibres?

A

Greater potential range of shortening.

Greater potential range of movement produced at joint.

i.e. longer muscles can contract more and produce more movement at a joint.

215
Q

Skeletal muscles are usually named according to combination of 6 things. Name them

A
  1. Shape- latin/Greek name
  2. location- body region
  3. size- relative size e.g. major/minor
  4. main bony attachment
  5. main action/movement
216
Q

There are usually at least 2 points of attachment of skeletal muscle to bone. What are they called?

A
  • The “origin(s)” on one side of a joint
  • The “insertions” on the other side
217
Q

What is the function of skeletal muscle?

A
  • Move the origin and insertion closer together during contraction.
  • During contraction, muscle fibres shorten along the long axis between the origin and insertion.

Skeletal muscles can only move a joint if they cross a joint and attach to bones on either side.

218
Q

What do tendons do?

A

Attach the muscle (usually) to bone.

  • Found at either end of the muscle
  • non-contractile, they do not contract themselves they just transmit the force generated by the muscle to move the bone
219
Q

What does the direction of movement of skeletal muscle depend on?

A

Which side of the joint the muscle spans

220
Q

Explain how you would know the direction of movement of the biceps brachii

A
  • spans the shoulder joint anteriorly, therefore it flexes the arm at the shoulder joint.
  • spans the elbow joint anteriorly therefore it flexes the forearm at the elbow joint
  • spans the proximal radioulnar joint anteriorly producing supination of the forearm
221
Q

How can the actions of any given muscle be worked out? Provide 4 contributors

A
  1. which joint is spanned
  2. the long axis of the muscle fibres
  3. the aspect of the joint that is spanned
  4. the shapes of the articular surfaces of the joint
222
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

A flattened tendon

  • most commonly associated with flat muscles
  • attach muscle to soft tissue rather than bone
223
Q

How is circumduction of the shoulder permitted?

A

By the shallow socket of the glenoid fossa of the scapula

There is nothing to stop the ball rotating right around in the socket.

224
Q

Describe the movement of the trochlea of the distal humerus

A
  • only flexion/extension
  • trochlear notch of the proximal ulna is a very specific shape so that when the trochlea is in it forms a sort of hinge and only moves in a very specific way.
225
Q

The deltoid only crosses one joint- the shoulder joint. How can it cause differnet movements odf the shoulder>

A

Its muscle fibres are orientated in different directions.

226
Q

Which movement of the shoulder do the posterior fibres of a deltoid allow?

A

Extension

227
Q

Which movement of the shoulder do the middle fibres of the delotid allow?

A

Abduction

228
Q

Which movement of the shoulder do the anterior fibres of the deltoid allow?

A

Flexion

229
Q

What are the 2 key features of reflexes?

A
  1. Protective
  2. automatic
230
Q

Name the 2 main reflexes involving skeletal muscles

A
  1. Stretch reflex
  2. flexion withdrawal reflex
231
Q

What are reflexes?

A

Rapid, predictable, involuntary reactions to danger.

Movement is made unconsciously by the nervous system and muscles

232
Q

What is involved in a flexion withdrawal reflex?

A
  • Touch something potentially damaging
  • sudden flexion to withdraw from the danger
  • nerve connections are at a spinal cord level the brain is not involved
233
Q

Name the 4 stretch reflexes

A
  1. bicep jerks
  2. tricep jerks
  3. knee jerk
  4. ankle jerk
234
Q

How do we test stretch reflexes?

A
  • A tendon hammer is used to apply a brief, sudden stretch to the muscle via its tendon.
  • normal reflex response to being stretched is to contract
  • reflex contraction results in a brief twitch of the muscle belly or a movement in the normal direction.
  • reflexes are protective against overstretching
235
Q

What are the three steps/nerves involved in deep tendon reflexes?

A
  1. Sensory nerve from muscle detects the stretch & tells the spinal cord
  2. synapse in the spinal cord between the sensory & motor nerves
  3. motor nerve from spinal cord passes message to muscle to contract
236
Q

What is the name of the junction where the motor nerve communicates with the skeletal muscle?

A

Neuormuscular junction

237
Q

What is the name of the route taken by the action potentials during a reflex?

A

The reflex arc

238
Q

The _______ prevents the reflex from being overly brisk

A

Brain

239
Q

A normal stretch reflex indicates that the following are functioning normally:

Provide 6 points

A
  1. The muscle
  2. Its sensory nerves
  3. Its motor nerve fibres
  4. The spinal cord connections between the two
  5. The neuromuscular junctions
  6. “descending controls” from the brain
240
Q

What does it mean if a muscle is paralysed?

A

The muscle is without a functioning motor nerve supply.

241
Q

Can a paralysed muscle contract?

A

No, a paralysed muscle cannot contract

242
Q

On examination, a paralysed muscle would have ____________ tone.

A

reduced

reduced tone- reduced resistance to stretch, floppy

243
Q

If a muscle shows spacticity, does it have a functioning and intact motor nerve?

A

Yes, the muscle has an intact and functioning motor nerve.

244
Q

On examination, a muscle with spasticity would have ___________ tone.

A

Increased

245
Q

What is muscle atrophy?

A

‘Wasting’ of the muscles

246
Q

What happens to the muscle cells during muscle atrophy?

A

Muscle fibres (myocytes) become smaller, reducing the muscles bulk.

247
Q

How does muscle atrophy develop?

A

As a result of inactivity

  • immobilisation after fracture
  • damage to motor nerve supply
  • ‘couch potato’
248
Q

What is the process opposite to muscle atrophy?

A

hypertrophy

249
Q

What happens during muscle hyperytophy?

A
  • Skeletal muscles enlarge
  • Each individual myocyte enlarges
250
Q

What are gametes?

A

Haploid cells which contain half the genetic information of a normal cell.

They are sex cells

251
Q

What is the name of the male gametes?

A

spermatozoa

252
Q

What is the name of the female gamete?

A

Oocyte or ovum

253
Q

What produces the gametes?

A

The gonads

254
Q

what is the name of the male gonads?

A

The testes

255
Q

What is the name of the female gonads?

A

The ovaries

256
Q

What is produced during fertilization?

A

A diploid cell called a zygote

257
Q

During normal fertilisation the ovum moves from the _______ to _________ of the uterine tube.

Many spermatozoa move from _______ to vagina.

A
  1. ovary
  2. ampulla
  3. testis
258
Q

does a zygote have a full chromosome compliment/set of genetic information?

A

Yes

259
Q

State three points which describe how the pelvic cavity can be found

A
  1. lies within the bony pelvis
  2. continuous with the abdominal cavity
  3. between the pelvic inlet and the pelvic outlet
260
Q

What is the pelvic inlet?

A

A superior ring of bone formed by the pelvic bones

261
Q

Where does the pelvic cavity end?

A

At the pelvic outlet which is basically the way from the pelvis to the perineum.

262
Q

What is the pelvic floor and what does it do?

A
  • Internal wall of skeletal muscle
  • separates pelvic cavity and perineum
263
Q

There are openings in the pelvic floor for which three tracts?

A
  • Distal alimentary
  • reproductive
  • renal
264
Q

What is the perineum?

A

Space or body region between the proximal part of the limbs which is inferior to the pelvic floor.

265
Q

What is the pelvic roof formed by?

A

parietal peritoneum

266
Q

What is the parietal peritoneum?

A

The lining of the abdominal cavity

267
Q

Describe the parietal peritoneum

A
  • firmly attached to walls
  • drapes over pelvic viscera
  • tightly arrached to the anterior, posterior and lateral walls of the abdominal cavity
  • thin, transparent, serous (secreting seral/peritoneal fluid) membrane
268
Q

What are the names of the two pouches created by the peritoneum draping over the viscera?

A
  1. Recto-uterine pouch
  2. vesico-uterine pouch
269
Q

What is another name for the recto-uterine pouch?

A

Pouch of douglas

270
Q

Why is the pouch of douglas clinically important?

A

It is classed as the most inferior part of the peritoneal cavity in an upright female patient so any abdominal fluid such as blood or pus will collect here when the patient is upright.

271
Q

What is the external urethral orifice the opening to?

A

Urinary tract

272
Q

What is the vaginal orifice the opening to?

A

Female genital tract

273
Q

What is the anus the opening to?

A

The gastrointestinal tract

274
Q

What is the anterior aspect which is a kind of fatty pad at the pubic synthesis of the surface anatomy of the perineum called?

A

Mons pubis

275
Q

What is the shape of the surface anatomy of the perineum in a female?

A

diamond

276
Q

What is located at either side of the diamond shape that makes up the surface anatomy of the perineum in the female?

A

Labia madura

277
Q

Name the female reproductive organs

A

Ovaries

278
Q

Name the accessory female reproductive organs

A
  • uterine tubes
  • uterus
  • vagina
279
Q

Name the 3 layers of the body of the uterus wall

A
  1. perimetrium
  2. myometrium
  3. endometrium
280
Q

What is the name of the opening at the uterine tubes into the peritoneal cavity?

A

Ostium

281
Q

Describe the 3 layers of the body of the uterus wall

A
  1. Perimetrium- very thin outer layer
  2. Myometrium- thick muscular layer that contracts during menstrual cramping
  3. endometrium- thickens during the menstrual cycle for potential implantation and sheds if no implantation.
282
Q

Name the top, middle and bottom parts of the uterus

A
  • Top-fundus
  • middle-body
  • bottom-cervix
283
Q

Where does fertilisation usually occur?

A

In the ampulla

284
Q

Where does implantation occur?

A

In the body of the uterus

285
Q

Describe the pathway of an unfertilized ovum during the menstrual cycle

A
  1. Ova develops in the ovaries
  2. Each mentstrual cycle, 1 ovum is released form surface of ovary into peritoneal cavity.
  3. ovum is gathered by fimbraie into infundibilum of uterine tube.
  4. moved along uterine tube by cilia.
  5. during menstruation, an unfertilised ovum is expelled by contractions of the myometrium.
286
Q

Which gland plays a vital role in regulating the female hormone production and the development of the ova?

A

The pituitary gland.

287
Q

What sweeps the ovum along the uterine tube?

A

Cilia

288
Q

When does an ectopic pregnancy occur?

A

When the fertilised ovum implants outwith the uterine cavity,

97%- tubal pregnancies

some can happen in the abdomen or peritoneal cavity

289
Q

What are the risks of ectopic pregnancies?

A
  • Potential emergency
  • danger of haemorrhage and mortality to the mother
290
Q

What happens if an STI in the vagina spreads through the uterus and uterine tubes into the peritoneal cavity?

A

Can cause peritonitis- inflammation of the peritoneum

291
Q

What is the name of female sterilisation?

A

Tubal ligation

292
Q

What happens during tubal ligation?

A

Both uterine tubes are clipped, cut or cauterised which blocks the lumen and prevents passage of an egg or sperm through the uterine tubes.

293
Q

What does the scrotum contain?

A

The testis

294
Q

What is the urethra for?

A

Passing urine and ejaculation of sperm

295
Q

What is a more common name given to the prepuce?

A

foreskin

296
Q

What is the final common pathway of the urinary and reproductive tracts?

A

The urethra

297
Q

What are the primary male reproductive organs?

A

The testes

298
Q

Name the accessory reproductive organs in males

A

The vas deferens, the seminal glands, prostate glands and the penis

299
Q

Where do the testis originate during development?

A

On the posterior wall of the abdominal cavity.

300
Q

Where do the testes descend to through the anterior abdominal wall (inguinal canal) by birth?

A

Into the scrotum

301
Q

What is the name of the tube that sperm pass through that follows the testis into the scrotum?

A

The vas (vas deferens)

302
Q

Which 2 structures does the vas connect?

A

The testis to (almost) the urethra

303
Q

Where does the neurovasculature originate for the male reproductive system?

A

The posterior wall of the abdominal cavity.

304
Q

The inguinal canal creates a weak point in the male reproductive system, what is this susceptible to?

A

Hernia formation

305
Q
A
306
Q

What can happen if the testis don’t descend properly?

A

Can cause further fertility issues down the line.

307
Q

Where are the sperm produced?

A

seminiferous tubules

308
Q

What route do the sperm travel from the testes? (3 locations)

A
  • Pass to the rete testis
  • Then into the head of the epididymus
  • epididymus becomes the vas deferens
309
Q

Describe how and which muscle keeps the seminiferous tubules and the testis approx 1ºC below core body temp

A
  • dartos muscle helps to control temp
  • smooth muscle that sits in the wall of the scrotum and reflexively contracts to help control temp of the testis.
  • Can bring testis closer to the body by contracting to heat them up or relax to cool them on a warm day
310
Q

How many sperm are produced every second?

A

1500

311
Q

How long does each sperm take to mature?

A

64 days

312
Q

What does the spermatic cord contain?

A
  • vas deferens
  • testicular artery
  • pampiniform plexus of veins
313
Q

What happens in torsion of the testis?

A
  • twisting of the spermatic cord
  • disrupts blood supply
  • severe pain
  • danger of testicular necrosis
  • surgical emergency- needed roughly 2-3 hours after onset
314
Q

Which seminal gland produces seminal fluid?

A

The right seminal gland

315
Q

What does the (prostatic) urethra do?

A
  1. drains urine from bladder
  2. passes semen in ejaculation
316
Q

Describe in 4 points the path of the sperm and how semen is produced

A
  1. Vas deferens doesn’t go into the bladder it sits on the posterior surface of both sides.
  2. seminal gland is a vesicle that produces seminal fluid. Vas deferens end when joined by the seminal gland. At this point sperm and seminal fluid combine and become semen.
  3. Prostatic urethra as it passes through the prostate gland
  4. Once in the urethra sperm and semen continue through the penis ready for ejaculation
317
Q

Name the 4 parts of the posterior surface of the penis from the most proximal to the most distal

A
  1. Root of the penis
  2. Body of the penis
  3. Glans
  4. External urethral orifice
318
Q

What happens during an erection?

A

Three cylinders of erectile tissue become filled with blood at arterial pressure.

319
Q

Where does each vas deferens lie?

A

Within the spermatic cord

320
Q

Each spermatic cord passes through the _________ abdominal wall within the _________ canal to reach the pelvic cavity.

A
  1. Anterior
  2. inguinal
321
Q

What is semen comprised of?

A

Sperm + seminal fluid

322
Q

Within the pelvis each vas deferens connects with the duct from a ________ gland (produces seminal fluid) to form an _____________ duct containing semen.

A
  1. seminal
  2. ejaculatory
323
Q

Where do the ejaculatory ducts join together and subsequently drain?

A
  • Right and left ejaculatory ducts join together within the prostate gland (immediately inferior to the bladder)
  • Drain into the urethra
324
Q

Where does the urethra open?

A

At the external urethral meatus of the penis

Principles (10 decks)

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