Anatomical Sciences Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following structures carry lymph into the node’s subcapsular
sinus, through the cortical sinus and into the superficial cortex and paracortex?

  • efferent lymphatic vessels
  • afferent lymphatic vessels
  • both afferent and efferent lymphatic vessels
  • neither afferent or efferent lymphatic vessels
A

• afferent lymphatic vessels

enter on convex surface, into subcapsulary sinus –> through cortical into superficial cortex and paracortex

cleansed/presented from cortical to medulla

Filtered: leaves through efferent.

Thoracic duct: both lower + ULQ. Right lymphatic duct: URQ

Paracortex - T cells; cortex - follicles.

Hilum: blood vessels enter, efferent lymph exit

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2
Q
Which of the following vessels are characterized by the presence of valves?
• arterioles only
• capillaries only
• sinusoids only
• veins only
•lymphatics only
•lymphatics and capillaries
•lymphatics and veins
A

• lymphatics and veins

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3
Q
T cells are produced in the \_\_\_ .and mature in the \_\_ .
•liver, thymus
• bone marrow, liver
• bone marrow, thymus
•lymph nodes, thymus
A

• bone marrow, thymus

DiGeorge: no thymus and parathyroids

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4
Q
Posterior 1/3 of the tongue drains into:
• facial nodes
• occipital nodes
• submandibular nodes
• deep cervical nodes
• submental nodes
• jugulodigastric nodes
A

• deep cervical nodes; along internal jugular vein

  • drain salivary, thyroid, posterior 1/3 of tongue
    tonsils, nose, pharynx, larynx –> jugular lymph trunk
  • submandibular: maxillary and mandibular teeth except mandibular incisors
  • submental: tip of tongue, mandib incisors –> into submandibular and deep cervical
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5
Q
When antigen recognition occurs by a lymphocyte, B cells are activated and
migrate to which area oft he lymph node?
• inner medullary region
• medullary cords
• medullary sinuses
• germinal centers
A

• germinal centers

medullary cords: B + plasma
paracortex: T
germinal centers: B when activated, go to mature

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6
Q

The lymph from the lower extremities drains into the:
•left internal jugular vein
• left subclavian vein
• junction of the left internal jugular and subclavian veins
• superior vena cava
• junction of the right internal jugular and subclavian veins

A

• junction of the left internal jugular and subclavian veins

btw mammary drain into axillary

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the spleen?
• removal of old or defective blood cells from blood
• forming crypts that trap bacteria
• storage of blood platelets
• storage of iron

A

• forming crypts that trap bacteria

clearing old erythrocytes: reticuloendothelial
only efferent lymphatics (like thymus)

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8
Q
Which of the following tonsil(s) is/are covered by nonkeratinized stratified
squamous epithelium?
Select all that apply.
•lingual tonsils only
• pharyngeal tonsil only
• palatine tonsils only
• pharyngeal and palatine tonsils
•lingual and palatine tonsils
• all of the above
A

• lingual and palatine tonsils

pharyng tonsils (adenoids) - columnar pseudostratified, no crypts
palatine - nonkeratinized stratified squamous; crypts but no sinuses
lingual - single crypt, nonkeratinized strat squam; dorsal tongue
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9
Q
In which of the following locations would one most likely find yellow bone
marrow in an adult?
• diaphysis offemur
• epiphysis of humerus
• ribs
• cranial bones
• vertebrae
A

• diaphysis of femur

yellow marrow in dyaphyses; red: skull, vertebrae, thoracic cage, heads of long bones
at birth, all marrow is red (till like 7)

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10
Q
Which of the following cells are agranulocytes?
Select all that apply.
• basophils
• eosinophils
• lymphocytes
• monocytes
• neutrophils
A
  • lymphocytes
  • monocytes

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

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11
Q
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding erythrocytes?
They:
• are biconcave in shape
• have an average lifespan of 30 days
• rely completely on anaerobic metabolism
• have no nucleus
• have no mitochondria
• are disposed of by the spleen
A

• have an average lifespan of 30 days

completely anaerobic

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12
Q
The formed elements of blood include all of the following EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
• plasma
• red blood cells
• platelets
• white blood cells
A

• plasma

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13
Q

Regarding the difference between plasma and serum, which of the following
statements is true?
• serum is yellow; plasma has no color
• serum contains antibodies; plasma does not
• plasma contains clotting proteins; serum does not
• plasma contains hemoglobin; serum does not

A

• plasma contains clotting proteins; serum does not

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14
Q
Platelets are best described as:
• megakaryocytes
• cytoplasmic fragments
• agranulocytes
• immature leukocytes
• lymphoid cells
A

• cytoplasmic fragments

TXA2 prothrombotic; PGI2 vasodil and reduce plt aggregation

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15
Q
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the articular cartilages?
Select all that apply.
• they are covered by disks
• most of them are covered by hyaline cartilage
• they are covered by perichondrium
• they are covered by periosteum
• they are vascular
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

• most of them are covered by hyaline cartilage

TMJ has fibroctlg

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16
Q
Which of the following joints is/are a synarthrosis?
Select all that apply.
• temporomandibular joint
• skull sutures
• synovial joints
• condyloid joints
A

• skull sutures

synarthrosis - immoveable (b/w flat)
amphiartrosis - pubic symphysis
diarthrodial - fully moving

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17
Q
The spheno-occipital joint and epiphyseal cartilage plates are classified as
which of the following joints?
• sutures
• symphyses
• synchondrosis
• syndesmoses
A

• synchondrosis

spheno-occipital jt and ctlg plates - synchondroses
syndesmoses: tibiofibular distal, tympanostapedial

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18
Q

The paramedics arrive at the scene of a minor motor vehicle collision. One driver claims to have experienced whiplash and is having trouble shaking her head in a “NO” motion. She is fine with nodding her head in a “YES” manner.
Which of the following joints allows maximum rotational movement of the head about its vertical axis (saying “NO”)?
• intervertebral joint
• atlantoaxial joint
• atlanta-occipital joint
• costovertebral joint

A

• atlantoaxial joint

atlantooccipital YES
atlantoaxial NO

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19
Q
When someone is rotating the forearm with the palm turning outward, this
motion is termed as:
• abduction
• adduction
• flexion
• extension
• pronation
• supination
A

• supination

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20
Q
The ureter connects which of the following parts of the kidney to the urinary
bladder?
• renal papi lla
• renal columns
• renal calyx
• renal pelvis
A

• renal pelvis

pelvis connects calyx to ureters;
bladder transitional epithelium

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21
Q

Name the following structures of the nephron in the order they are encountered
from blood to urine.
(1) distal convoluted tubule (2) bowman’s capsule (3) collecting duct (4) glomerulus
(5) loop of Henle (6) proximal convoluted tubule

A

• 4,2,6,5, 1,3

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22
Q
Which of the following persists as the definitive (permanent) kidney?
• pronephos
• metanephros
• mesonephros
• none of the above
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A

• metanephros

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23
Q

A 26-year-old female has been previously diagnosed with McCune-Albright
syndrome. There is bony fibrous dysplasia of the anterior cranial base leading
to the encasement and narrowing of the optic canal. Although her vision is
normal, there is concern that there will be compression of the optic nerve
and which of the following other structure(s)?
• ophthalmic nerve (CN Vl)
• cranial nerves Il l, IV, and VI
• ophthalmic artery
• ophthalmic veins

A

• ophthalmic artery

The optic canal is located posteriorly in the lesser wing of the sphenoid. It communicates with the middle cranial fossa. It transmits t he optic nerve and the ophthalmic
artery.

cribiform - olfactory
hypoglossal (in occipital) - hypoglossal
carotid (in temporal) - internal carotid artery
lacrimal canal - tear duct
inferior orbital fissure:
infraorb and zygomatic branches of V2, infraorb a

superior orbtal fissure: III, IV, VI; lacrimal, frontal of V1; ophth vein, sympath

optic canal: II + opth a
stylomastoid: VII

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24
Q

A 62-year-old female visits the family physician with complaints of right-sided
hearing loss, ringing in the right ear (tinnitus), numbness over the right half
of her face, and dizziness. The physician diagnoses her with an acoustic
schwannoma that is occluding her right internal acoustic meatus. The internal
acoustic meatus pierces the posterior surface of the petrous part of the temporal
bone. The internal acoustic meatus transmits which two structures?
• trigeminal nerve (CN V) and facial nerve (CN VII)
• facial nerve (CN VII) and vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
• vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) and vagus nerve (CN X)
• trigeminal nerve (CN V) and vagus nerve (CN X)

A

• facial nerve (CN VII) and vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)

internal acoustic meatus

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25
Q

Which of the following foramina appears as a small round radiolucent area
on the mandibular premolar and can be confused with a periapical abscess if
not recognized correctly?
• mandibular foramen
• incisive foramen
• mental foramen
• foramen ovale

A

• mental foramen

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26
Q
Through which ofthe following foramina does the largest ofthe three (paired)
arteries that supplies the meninges pass?
• foramen magnum
• jugular foramen
• foramen rotundum
• foramen ovale
• foramen spinosum
• foramen lace rum
A

• foramen spinosum-the artery i s the middle meningeal artery which i s the largest
of the three (paired) arteries which supply the meninges, the others being the
anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery

rotundum V2
oval V1
spinosum MMA (all three in sphenoid)
incisive: nasopalatine n. + sphenopalatine a.
between occipital and temporal - jugular: IX, X, XI

XI enters via foramen magnum and exits via jugular
vertebral arteries in foramen magnum

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27
Q

The cranial nerves that supply motor innervations to the muscles that move
the eyeball all enter the orbit through a foramen that is between the:
·lesser wing of sphenoid and fronta l bone
·lesser wing of sphenoid and ethmoid bone
• greater and lesser wings of sphenoid bone
•lesser wing of sphenoid, frontal and ethmoid bones

A

• greater and lesser wings of sphenoid bone

contains III, IV, VI;
ophth vein; sympathetics

petrotympanic fissure: chorda tympani
lacerum - between sphen/occip/temp – n. of pterygoid

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28
Q
Which of the following terms means air in the chest?
• hemothorax
• pyothorax
• pneumothorax
• pulmothorax
• pulmonary inflation
A

• pneumothorax

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29
Q
where trachea splits into primary
bronchi is the:
• carina
•lingula
• mediastinum
• bronchial tree
A

• carina

T4-5, level of sternal angle)

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30
Q
Which of the following components of the respiratory system does NOT have
cilia?
• tertiary bronchioles
• primary bronchioles
• alveolar ducts
• respiratory bronchioles
• terminal bronchioles
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

alveolar ducts

conducting zone - up to terminal bronchioles; dead zone, no O2 exchange

respiratory zone - respiratory brinchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli

no ctlg, no glands in bronchioles
still some cilia in respiratory bronchioles
no cilia in alveolar ducts (actual gas exchange)

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31
Q
Which of the following vessels supply blood to the bronchi?
• pulmonary arteries
• pulmonary veins
• subclavian arteries
• none of the above
A

bronchial

root of lung^ primary bronchus, pulm a. and vv. vagus passes behind root

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32
Q
Which of the following is NOT a part of the lower respiratory tract?
•laryngopharynx
• trachea
• primary bronchus
• alveolar duct
A

laryngopharynx

upper respiratory tract - up to larynx; lower - trachea and onward

inferior mediastinum: anterior, middle (= pericardium), posterior

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33
Q

All of the paranasal sinuses drain into one of the three meatuses (superior,
middle, and inferior) EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• maxillary sinus
• frontal sinus
• ethmoidal sinus
• sphenoidal sinus

A

sphenoidal drains into sphenoethmoidal recess;

maxillary –> middle meatus
ethmoidal and frontal via meatuses

olfactory epithelium prominent in upper medial portion

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34
Q

While ascending to 30,000 feet, the passengers on a commercial flight experience
the sensation of their ears “popping:’ The swallowing or yawning that
triggers this equalizes the pressure of the middle ear with the surrounding
atmosphere via the eustachian (auditory) tube. The pharyngeal opening for
this tube, along with the salpingopharyngeal fold, pharyngeal recess, and
pharyngeal tonsils (adenoids) are all located in the:
•laryngopharynx
• oropharynx
• nasopharynx
• none of the above

A

nasopharynx

aufitory tube openings, pharyng tonsils; up to soft palate and uvula

respiratory epithelium

oropharynx: from soft palate to hyoid: lingual + palatine tonsils
laryngopharynx: from hyoid to esophagus

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35
Q

A women in Ethiopia who has a human papillomavirus infection, starts to
grow warts on her larynx and respiratory tract. In order to allow her to breathe
an emergency airway maybe established by opening into the trachea:
• through the thyrohyoid membrane
• between the thyroid and cricoid cartilage
• between thyroid cartilages
• above the level of thyroid cartilage
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

between thyroid and cricoid

median cricothyroid ligament

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36
Q

Which of the following describes the function of the surfactant?
• increases the surface area of the alveoli
• reduces the attractive forces of 0 2 molecules and increases surface tension
• reduces the cohesive force of H20 molecules and lowers surface tension
• increases the cohesive force of ai r molecules and raises surface tension
• none of the above
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

reduces cohesive water, lowers surface tension

cells of respiratory mucosa: clara cells (GAGs); type I pneumocytes (simple squamous, 95%, gas exchange); type II (granular cuboidal, make surfactant); alveolar macrophages

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37
Q

The external carotid artery terminates within the parotid gland, just behind
the neck of the mandible, where the external carotid artery gives off two final
branches. Which of the following is one of those terminal branches?
• superior thyroid artery
• superficial temporal artery
• posterior auricular artery
• occipital artery
• facial artery
• middle meningeal artery
• anterior ethmoidal artery

A

superficial temporl and maxillary are two terminal branches of external carotid

Some Anatomists Like Fornication, Others Prefer Sado Maso

superior thyroid (–>)
ascending pharyngeal ()
Facial (–>)
Occipital ()

terminates behind neck of mandible in parotid gland;
begins at upper border of thyroid ctlg

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38
Q
The Circle of Willis is formed by all of the following arteries EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
• anterior communicating artery
• posterior communicating artery
• anterior cerebral artery
• superior cerebellar artery
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

superior cerebellar artery - branch of basilar; arises before posterior cerebral, does not partake in circle of Willis; two vertebrals combine into basilar

internal carotid –> anterior and middle cerebral; basilar –> posterior cerebral. ant + post communicating branches;

right common carotid arises from brachiocephalix; left from aortic arch

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39
Q

In carotid s inus syncope, the carotid sinus is overly sensitive to manual stimulation
and can lead to loss of consciousness. Given this, which of the following
statements is true?
• it is stimulated by changes in blood pressure
• it functions as a chemoreceptor
• it is innervated by the facia l nerve
• it is located at the terminal end of the external carotid artery
• it communicates freely with the cavernous sinus

A

stimulated by blood pressure

carotid sinus - dilation of internal carotid near its origin from common carotid. baroreceptors (blood pressure). innerv by IX

carotid body - at bifurcation of common carotid; chemoreceptors
aortic body (chemo, baro) - aortic arch, X. 

baroreflex in response to increased BP –> decreases HR
decreased BP –> increases HR

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40
Q
Which of the following branches of the internal carotid artery is most frequently
implicated in a stroke?
• ophthalmic artery
• anteri or choroidal artery
• middle cerebral artery
• anteri or cerebral artery
I refer to card 38-1 for illustration)
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

middle cerebral a. - largest branch of internal carotid, most often occluded in stroke
intracranial berry aneurysms - in Willis

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41
Q
The sinusoids are most likely found in all of the following organs EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• spleen
• bone marrow
• cartilage
• parathyroid glands
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

cartilage

sinusoid: blood vessel with discontinuous endothelium
liver, lymphoid, endocrine, hematopoietic
walls partly made of phagocytic cells; involved in phagocytosis and AB formation

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42
Q
The most prominent functional component in the tunica media of large
arteries is the:
• skeletal muscle cells
• elastic f ibers
• smooth muscle cells
• collagen
A

elastic fibers

in small aa. - smooth mm cells

tunics: intima (endothelium + BM; all vessels, atherosclerosis - plaque b/w endothelium and BM)
media - regulates BP, thicker in aa.
adventitia - elastic + cllagen + vasa vasorum; thicker in vv.

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43
Q
The tunica media and adventitia are absent in which blood vessel type?
• arteries
• arterioles
• capillaries
• venules
• veins
A

capillaries: simple layer of endothelium, no media or adventitia
velocity slowest, resistance most
flow proportional to radius^4

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44
Q
The hepatic veins that drain the liver empty into the:
• hepatic sinusoids
• azygous vein
• inferi or vena cava
• inferi or vena cava and azygous veins
• portal vein
A

IVC

portal triad = hepatic a., portal v., bile duct

aorta –> hepatic a. –> interlobular branches;

hepatic portal v. –> interlobular branches

——-> sinusoids, central vv., hepati vv., IVC

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45
Q
The greatest drop in blood pressure is seen at the transition from:
• arterioles to capillaries
• arteries to arterioles
• capillaries to venules
• venules to veins
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

arteries –> arterioles

arteries - mainly transport
arterioles (very muscular wall) - mainly BP
capillaries - diffusion
veins – transport

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46
Q
All of the following vessels supply blood to the tonsils EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
• ascending pharyngeal artery
• tonsil lar branch of facial artery
• superior labial artery
• dorsal lingual artery
I refer to card 37 A-1 for illustration I
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

superior labial artery

facial artery portions:
cervical (tonsillar, asc palatine, submental)

and facial (inf labial, sup labial, lat nasal, angular (to medial eye))

palatine tonsil supply: dorsal lingual, asc palatine, tonsillar, asc pharyngeal, lesser palatine

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47
Q
Which of the following arteries is found between the hyoglossus and
genioglossus muscles?
• inferi or alveolar artery
• posterior superior alveolar artery
•lingual artery
• infraorbital artery
• facial artery
A

lingual runs between hyoglossus and genioglossus; loop crossed by hypoglossal n.

branches: suprahyoid, dorsal lingual, sublingual, deep lingual

inf alv v, a, n along with lingual n. 
pterygomandibular space (between medial pterygoid and ramus)
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48
Q
If the palatal mucosa opposite to the maxillary first molar was lacerated and
bleeding occurred, which of the following arteries is most likely to be
involved?
• greater palatine artery
• descending palatine artery
• nasopalatine artery
•lesser palatine artery
• middle superior alveolar artery
• posterior superi or alveolar artery
A

greater palatine

end of maxillary a. - sphenopalatine (nasal cavity) –> later nasopalatine branch through incisive foramen (supplies anterior palate up to canine)

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49
Q

Examination of a patient with an ulcerative carcinoma of the posterior third
of the tongue revealed bleeding from the lesion and difficulty swallowing
(dysphagia). The bleeding was seen to be arterial; which of the following
arteries was involved?
• deep lingual artery
• dorsal lingual artery
• tonsillar artery
• sublingual artery

A

dorsal lingual - posterior superficial tongue

branches of lingual a: dorsal lingual (base + body of tongue)
suprahyoid - muscles
sublingual: floor, siblingual salivaries + mylohyoid
deep lingual - apex of tongue

Motor of tongue: XII (except palatoglossus - vagus)
Sensory: V3 lingual - anterior 2/3
IX - posterior 1/3
X (inf. laryng) - epiglottis

Taste: VII (chorda), IX

tonsillar a. - branch of facial
lingual + facial - common trunk off external carotid

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50
Q

During a boxing match a boxer got a blow on the lateral side of the skull,
immediately he fell unconscious for several seconds. He was asymptomatic
for the first 24 hours then he developed symptoms of elevated intracranial
pressure (headache, nausea and vomiting). Which of the following arteries is
most likely involved?
• inferior alveolar artery
• middle meningeal artery
• infraorbital artery
• deep temporal artery
• middle cerebral artery

A

middle meningeal - branch of maxillary
infratemporal fossa - where branches off

foramen spinosum to dura mater and calvaria
runs beneath pterion (super thin)

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51
Q

Which arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach?
• right gastric, left gastri c and short gastri c arteri es
• right and left gastroepiploic arteries
• right gastric, left gastroepiploic and short gastri c arteries
• right gastroepiploic, left gastroepiploic and short gastric arteries
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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right and left gastroepiploics and short gastrics (these - to fundus and upper; branches of splenic)

lesser curvature: right gastric inferiorly, left gastric superiorly

All - branches of celiac (off abdominal aorta, ~T12 just below diaphragm)
supplies foregut

branches:
- splenic (pancreatic, l. gastroepiploic, short gastric)
- left gastric (short, top of stomach + esophag branches)
- common hepatic (gastroduodenal [right gastroepiploic, superior pancreaticoduodenal], right gastric, hepatic proper [left hepatic, right hepatic, cystic])

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52
Q

The internal thoracic artery ends in the sixth intercostal space by dividing
into the:
• anterior and posterior intercostal arteries
• subclavian and inferior epigastric arteries
• superi or epigastri c and musculophrenic arteri es
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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superior epigastric (runs in rectum sheath to meet with inferior from external iliac; meet around umbilicus) and musculophrenic (runs around to back) - branches of internal thoracic in 6th intercostal space

internal thoracic - branch of subclavian (VITCD)
runs on pleura behind ctlges, lateral to sternum

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53
Q

hypoglossal - bone and what runs

A

occipital bone, hypoglossal nerve

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54
Q

carotid - bone and what runs

A

temporal bone, internal carotid a.

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55
Q

inferior orbital fissure

A

infraorbital and zygomatic branches of infraorbital a

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56
Q

superior orbital fissure

A

between greater and lesser wings of sphenoid
III, IV, VI
lacrimal, fromtal of V,
ophthalmic vein, sympaths

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57
Q

optic canal

A

II and ophth artery

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58
Q

stylomastoid

A

VII

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59
Q

internal acoustic meatus

A

VII + VIII

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60
Q

rotundum

A

V2

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61
Q

ovale

A

V1

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62
Q

spinosum

A

MMA

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63
Q

incisive

A

nasopalatine n and sphenopalatine a

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64
Q

jugular

A

IX, X, XI

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65
Q

petrotympanic fissure

A

chorda tympani

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66
Q

lacerum

A

between sphen/occip/temp, n. of pterygoid

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67
Q

At what level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate into the common iliac
arteries and also gives rise to the middle sacral artery?
• T1O
• T12
·T2
•L4
• L5

A

L4

aortic opening of diaphragm - T12
runs retroperitoneal
splits into common iliacs and unpaired median sacral at L4
very elastic in tunica media

ascending aorta gives off right and left coronaries
arch gives off brachiocephalic, l common carotid and l subclavian

descending: T4-T12
abdominal T12-L4

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68
Q
The blood supply of the mucosa of the nasal septum is derived mainly from
the:
• facial artery
• maxillary artery
• inferi or alveolar artery
• internal carotid artery
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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maxillary a (–> sphenopalatine)

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69
Q

lateral wall of pterygopalatine fossa

A

laterally - pterygomaxillary fissure to infratemporal fossa

Pterygomaxillary Fissure

The pterygomaxillary fissure connects the infratemporal fossa with the pterygopalatine fossa (see figure 1). It transmits two neurovascular structures:

Posterior superior alveolar nerve – a branch of the maxillary nerve. It exits through the fissure into the infratemporal fossa, where it goes on to supply the maxillary molars.
Terminal part of the maxillary artery – enters the pterygopalatine fossa via the fissure.

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70
Q

medial wall of pterygopalatine fossa

A

Sphenopalatine Foramen

This foramen is the only opening in the medial boundary. It connects the pterygopalatine fossa to the nasal cavity – specifically the superior meatus.

It is formed by the sphenopalatine notch at the superior aspect of the perpendicular plate of the palatine bone and the body of the sphenoid.

The sphenopalatine foramen transmits the sphenopalatine artery and vein, as well as the nasopalatine nerve (a large branch of the pterygopalatine ganglion – CNV2).

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71
Q

superior wall of pterygopalatine fossa

A

Foramen Rotundum

The foramen rotundum connects the pterygopalatine fossa to the middle cranial fossa. It is one of three openings in the posterior boundary of the pterygopalatine fossa. It conducts a single structure, the maxillary nerve.

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72
Q

anterior wall of pterygopalatine fossa

A

Inferior Orbital Fissure

The inferior orbital fissure forms the superior boundary of the pterygopalatine fossa and communicates with the orbit. It is a space between the sphenoid and maxilla bones.

The zygomatic branch of the maxillary nerve and the infraorbital artery and vein pass through the inferior orbital fissure.

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73
Q

contents of pterygpalatine fossa

A

max a, max n, pterygopalatine ganglion

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74
Q
The distal portion of the duodenum receives arterial supply from the inferior
pancreaticoduodenal artery which branches from the:
• celiac trunk
• gastroduodenal artery
• superior mesenteric artery
• inferi or mesenteric artery
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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SMA (inferior pancreaticoduodenal)

proximal part, before ampulla and opening of bile duct - superior pancreaticoduodenal, off of gastroduodenal off common hepatic off celiac

up to distal third of transverse colon - SMA
jej and ileum branches are on left side of SMA

rectum: superior rectalis off IMA
middle - internal iliac
inferior - internal pudendal

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75
Q
All of the following are direct branches of the subclavian artery EXCEPT one.
Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• internal t horacic artery
• thyrocervical artery
• inferi or thyroid artery
• dorsal scapular
A

inferior thyrod is branh of thyrocervical
Vertebral
Internal Thoracic
Thyrocervical (–> inferior thyroid, suprascapular, transverse ervical)
Costocervical
Dorsal scapular

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76
Q

All of the following statements concerning the common carotid arteries are
true EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• the common carotid arteri es are the same in length
• the common carotid arteri es differ in their mode of origin
• the right common carotid artery is a branch of the brachiocephalic trunk
• the left common carotid artery is a branch of the aortic arch
[refer to card 38 A-1, 49-1 for illustration)
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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not same length

right off brachiocephalic. left self off arch

common carotid in sheath with internal jugular and vagus
level of larynx - splits into internal and external

internal –> ophthalmic (in optic canal with II) + anterior and middle cerebral (–>into Willis)

external: some anatomists like fornication, others prefer sado maso

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77
Q
What is the major arterial origin supplying the mandibular anterior teeth?
• mandibular artery
• facial artery
• vertebral artery
• maxillary a
A

maxillary artery:
branches: anterior (from infraorbital, after orbital fissure), middle (same) and posterior superior alveolar (before pterygopalatine fossa) + inferior alveolar (for all mandibular teeth)
inf alv also gives mental and incisive

Parts and branches of maxillary:
1st - mandibular (posterior to lateral pterygoid, horizontal, deep to neck of condyle)
– deep auricular, anterior tympanic, MMA, inferior alveolar

2nd (pterygoid) - adjacent to lateral pterygoid, medial to temporal
–> masseteric, deep temporal, pterygoid branches, buccal

3rd (pterygopalatine) - distal (anterior) to pterygoid, between heads of lateral pterygoid through pterygomaxillary fissure into pterygopalatine fossa
– posterior superior alveolar, infraorbital, a of pterygoid canal, pharygeal, descending palatine (splits into greater and lesser), sphenopalatine - walls and septum of nose

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78
Q

arteries
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the left and right renal
arteries?
• they both arise from the abdominal aorta below the superior mesenteric artery
• the left renal artery is longer that the right renal artery
• the right renal artery is somewhat higher than the left renal artery
• the right renal artery arises below the superior mesenteric artery, while the left one
arises below the inferior mesenteric artery
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
60
ental Oe

A

both arise from abdominal below SMA

right is longer (passes behind IVC), left a bit higher

urinary bladder supplied by internal iliacs

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79
Q
The subscapular artery which supplies the subscapularis muscle branches off
the:
• subclavian artery
• 1st part of axillary artery
• 2nd part of axillary artery
• 3rd part of axillary artery
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

3rd of axillary
Sixties - superior thoracic

Teens - thoracoacromial
Like - Lateral thoracic

Sex - Subscapular
And - anterior humeral
Pot - posterior humeral

Subclavian is same vessel but before 1st rib (VIT (IST) CD)

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80
Q

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding vertebral arteries?
• inside the skull, the two vertebral arteri es join up to form the basilar artery
• they arise from thyrocervical trunk
• they enter the skull through carotid canal
• they pass through the t ransverse foramina of all 7 cervical vertebrae
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

branch off subclavian, pass through C6-C1 and foramen magnum, combine into basilar

verterbrals - posterior inferior cerebellar
basilar - anterior inferior cerebellar + superior cerebellar

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81
Q
Which ofthe following structures provides attachment to falx cerebri?
• cribriform plate
• crista galli
•lesser wing of sphenoid
• greater wing of sphenoid
• corpus callosum
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

crista galli

lateral masses of ethmoid = sinuses + orbital plate (medial wall of orbit)

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82
Q

The hypophyseal fossa is located in a depression in the body of the sphenoid
bone; it houses which of the following structures?
• hypothalamus
• pituitary
• cerebellum
• hippocampus
• corpus cal losum

A

pituitary sits in sella

greater wings of sphenoid - lateral wall of orbit, roof of infratemporal fossa
foramen rotundum - V2
ovale - V3
spinosum - MMA

lesser wings - roof of orbit and superior orbital fissure

optic canal - CN II + ophth artery

pterygoid process with medial and lateral plates
lateral - for both pterygoids
medial has hamulus for tensor veli palatini

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83
Q
Flat bones of the skull, maxilla, major parts of the mandible and clavicles are
formed by:
• endochondral ossification
• subchondral ossification
• intramembranous ossification
• primary ossification
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

intramembranous ossification

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84
Q

During distalization of molars in bodily orthodontic movement, the alveolar
bone distal to the tooth must resorb, and the alveolar bone mesial to the
tooth must appositionally grow. In orthodontic movement, the alveolar
bone is being remodeled. This remodeling is a function of:
• osteocl asts and osteoblasts
• chondroblasts and osteoblasts
• osteoblasts and osteocytes
• chondrocytes and osteocytes

A

osteoblasts and clasts

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85
Q
All are functions of the skeletal system EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• lymph filtration
• mineral storage
• support
• protection
• body movement
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

lymh filtration

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86
Q
At the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), hinge movements occur between
the:
• condyle and articular eminence
• art icular disc and articular eminence
• condyle and articular disc
• art icular disc and articular cavity
• condyle and articular cavity
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

hinge in lower (initiates movement, between condyle and disc), glide in upper (gliding after hinge, between disc and eminence)

chorda tympani - petrotympanic fissure

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87
Q

A patient comes into the orthodontist’s office as referred to by his general
dentist. The orthodontist notes the patient’s tongue thrusts and notes that
early treatment could prevent skeletal problems. Soft tissue development is
thought to encourage mandibular growth:
• upward and forward
• upward and backward
• downward and forward
• downward and backward
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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down and forward

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88
Q
Which of the following structures does NOT form a portion of the lateral wall
of the nasal cavity?
• maxilla
• palatine bone
• conchae
• vomer
• ethmoid
A

vomer

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89
Q
A tubercle is:
• a small, rounded process
• a prominent elevated ridge or border of a bone
• a large, rounded, roughened process
• a sharp, slender, projecting process
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
bone
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A

small rounded process

prominent elevated ridge - crest
large rounded roughened - tuberosity
sharp slender projecting - spine

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90
Q
The shaft of a long bone is capped on the end by spongy bone that is surrounded
by compact bone. This is called the:
• periosteum
• diaphysis
• endosteum
• epiphysis
A

epiphysis

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91
Q
The hypophyseal fossa which houses the pituitary gland is located within
which of the following cranial fossae?
• anteri or cranial fossa
• middle cranial fossa
• posterior cranial
A

middle cranial fossa

border between anterior (smallest) and middle - lesser wing
between middle and posterior (largest) - petrous part

posterior contains cerebellum medulla pons

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92
Q

Treacher Collins syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that presents with many
craniofacial deformities. One of the characteristic traits is downward slanting
eyes, which is caused by underdevelopment of the bone that forms the
substance of the cheek. Which bone is this that anchors many of the muscles
of mastication and facial expression?
• ethmoid bone
• zygomatic bone
• occipital bone
• sphenoid bone

A

zygomatic

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93
Q
Which of the following can be defined as a tube-like passage running
through a bone?
• fovea
• meatus
• fossa
• fissure
A

meatus

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94
Q
The ganglion that supplies the mucous membrane of the mouth and nose
with parasympathetic fibers is located in which of the following fossae?
• pterygopalatine fossa
• infratemporal fossa
• temporal fossa
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

pterygopalatine

pterygopalatine ganglion with parasymps for mouth and nose mucosa

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95
Q
The pterygopalatine fossa communicate laterally with infratemporal fossa
though which of the following?
• sphenopalatine foramen
• foramen rotundum
• foramen lacerum
• pterygomaxillary fissu re
• inferi or orbital fissu re
A

pterygomaxillary fissure

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96
Q
Which ofthe following receives the opening ofthe nasolacrimal duct?
• superi or meatus
• middle meatus: ethmoidal bulla
• middle meatus: Hiatus of semilunaris
• sphenoethmoidal recess
• inferior meatus
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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inferior meatus

superior receives posterior ethomidal sinuses
middle had ethmoidal bulla

anterior ethmoidal and frontal sinuses drain into infundibulum which in turn drains into hiatus semilunaris
maxillary drains into hiatus semilunaris

sphenoidal sinus - into sphenoethomidal recess

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97
Q

A prosthodontist designs his maxillary removable complete and partial
dentures to engage the hamular notch behind the maxillary tuberosities.
The hamulus is a small slender hook, which accommodates the action of the
tensor veli palatini. The hamulus is a component of which bone?
• lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone
• medial pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone
• maxilla
• hori zontal plate of palatine bone
• perpendicular plate of palatine bone

A

medial pterygoid plate of sphenoid

tensor veli palatini: motor from V3, sensory from V2

98
Q

A young patient arrives in the physician’s office with unexplained, persistent
symptoms. The patient has had bloody nasal discharge and painful oral
lesions. A chest x-ray reveals “coin lesions” and labs reveal kidney failure.
Ultimately, the isolation of the AN CAs - lgG antibodies - yield a diagnosis of
Wegener’s granulomatosis. The dentist who referred this patient to the
physician made a note of the necrotizing oral lesion that had perforated the
hard palate into the nasal cavity. The roof of the oral cavity is formed by the:
• ethmoid and palatine bones
• maxilla and nasal bones
• maxilla and palatine bones
• nasal and vomer bones

A

maxilla and palatine

hard palate: anterior 2/3 = palatine processes of maxilla
posterior - horizontal plate of palatine

99
Q
Most precisely, osteocytes are located in which of the following spaces?
• canaliculi
• lacunae
· lamellae
• trabeculae
A

lacunae

haversian canal surrounded by lamellae

100
Q

Which of the following is the largest bone of the pelvis?
·ilium
• ischium
• pubis

A

ilium

meet at acetabulum: superior - ilium
posteroinferior - ischium
anteromedial - pubis

inguinal ligament from pubic tubercle to ASIS
sciatic n - largest in body

101
Q

The trachea divides into left and right main bronchi at the level of?
• the upper part of sternum
• the mid part of the body of the sternum
• just above the xiphoid process
• junction of manubrium and body of sternum
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

junction of manubrium and sternum = sternal angle, ~2nd intercostal space
T4-5
also there: 2nd cartilage, beginning of arch

rib 1 is attached to manubrium
2-7 to body of sternum
8-10 = false ribs, to ctlg of above
11-12 float

costal groove: VAN below rib, nerve least covered

7 - 12 - 5 + sacrum (5) + coccyx

102
Q
Which of the following bones articulates with the capitulum of the humerus?
• radius
• acromion
• ulna
• scapula
• clavicle
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

radius

trochlea with ulna (its olecranon)

wrist: radius is lateral
coronoid fossa on anterior of humerus

clavicle - manubrium and acromion

103
Q
Which of the following bones forms the major part of the lateral wall of the
orbit?
• frontal bone
• zygomatic bone
• maxillary bone
• sphenoid
A

zygomatic

walls of orbit:
superior = frontal (+ lesser wing of sphenoid сзади)
medial = ethmoid + contributions from frontal, lacrimal and sphenoid
inferior = maxilla, zygomatic, palatine
lateral = zygomatic + greater wing

104
Q

superior wall of orbit

A

frontal + lesser wing of sphenoid

105
Q

lateral wall of orbit

A

zygomatic + greater wing of sphenoid

106
Q

medial wall of orbit

A

ethmoid + contributions from lacrimal, frontal and sphenoid

107
Q

inferior wall of orbit

A

maxilla, palatine, zygomatic

108
Q

Kartagener syndrome is a hereditary syndrome; it’s characterized by recurrent
upper and lower respiratory tract infections. Dysfunction of which
organelle is responsible for this syndrome?
• centriole
·flagellum
• vacuole
•cilium

A

cilium

Kartagener is respiratory ciliary dysfx
cilia = 9+2 arrangement

centriole is triplets

109
Q

cilia arrangement

A

9+2

110
Q

centriole arrangement

A

triplets

111
Q
The inactive X chromosome in a female cell is called the \_\_\_\_ which is
an example of \_\_\_ _
• pineal body, euchromatin
•lateral body, heterochromatin
• golgi body, euchromatin
• barr body, heterochromatin
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

Barr body, heterochromatin *inactive condensed DNA)

112
Q
In which cellular component are glycoproteins assembled for extracellular
use?
• the Golgi apparatus
• the endoplasmic reticulum
• the nucl eus
• the nucleolus
ANATOMIC SCIENCES
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A

Golgi

fx of Golgi: modify proteins and lipids
storage and packaging

glycoproteins assembled for extracellular use
O-glycosylation

trans - to membrane
cis - to nucleus

rough ER continuous with perinuclear space
COPII targets for fusion with Golgi

113
Q

cis side of Golgi

A

nucleus

114
Q

trans side of Golgi

A

to memrane

115
Q

targets from ER to fuse with Golgi

A

COPII

116
Q

Which of the following is the distinctive array of microtubules in the core of
cilia and flagella composed of a central pair surrounded by a sheath of nine
doublet microtubules (characteristic “9 + 2” pattern)?
• centriole
• axoneme
• tubulin
• malleolus

A

axoneme

core of cilia and flagella (9+2)
made from MTs

dynein arms - enables to beat + radial spoke

nexin - inter-doublet linkage

centrioles - mitotic spindle

117
Q

inter-doublet linkage in cilia/flagellae

A

nexin

118
Q

core of cilia and flagella

A

axoneme, made out of MTs

119
Q
Which ofthe following organelles have double membranes?
Select all that apply.
• mitochondria
• golgi apparatus
• peroxisomes
• centriole
• nucleus
• nucleolus
A

m/ch + nucleus

120
Q
All of the following are considered as specialized types of macrophages
EXCEPT one, which one is the EXCEPTION?
• kupffer cells
• microglial cells
• osteoclasts
• langerhans cells
• plasma
A

plasma cells

Kupffer - m/ph in liver (sinusoids)
langerhans - APC in skin
alpha-pancreatic - glucagon, beta - insulin

Leydig - testosteron
Sertoli - testicular fluid

121
Q

testosteron cells + what do and where

A

Leydig, interstitial, in CT around tubules

122
Q

testicular fluid cells + what do and where

A

Sertoli, line seminiferous tubules, responsive to FSH

secrete hormones, ABPs etc

123
Q

Which cell lines the lumen of the seminiferous tubules and secretes hormones,
androgen binding proteins (ABPs) and other proteins that facilitate
spermatogenesis?
• interstitial cells of Leydig
• principal cells
• sertoli cells
• clara cells

A

Sertoli - line seminiferous tubules, secrete hormones, ABPs etc.
sensitive to FSH

Leydig - in vascular CT around tubules, secrete testosteron

btw clara cells make GAGs in respiratory epithelium

124
Q

clara cells

A

respiratory, make GAGs

125
Q
Protein synthesis occurs in all of the following phases EXCEPT one. Which
one is the EXCEPTION?
• G1 phase
• S phase
• G2 phase
• M phase
A

M phase
cell growth and protein production stop

G1 - S (DNA synthesis), G2

126
Q

The plasma membrane (cell membrane):
• surrounds the cell wall and serves to protect t he cell from changes in osmotic pressure
• is a polysaccharide-containing structure that functions in attachment to solid surfaces,
preventing desiccation, and protection
• is a non-permeable membrane enclosing t he cell wall
• is a dynamic, selectively permeable membrane enclosing t he cytoplasm

A

dynamic, selectively permeable, encloses c/pl

m/ch and nucleus - double-membraned
m/ch contains cyclic DNA

peripheral proteins can be removed with detergent
for integrated proteins, need to disrupt membrane

127
Q
What type of cell in the dental papilla adjacent to the inner enamel epithelium
differentiates into odontoblasts?
• stellate reticular cell
• mesenchymal cell
• ameloblast
• follicular cel
A

mesenchymal

NC –> spinal and autonomic ganglia, Schwann, pigment, chromaffin, teeth

128
Q

On the playground at recess, a young girl is stung by a bee and immediately
breaks out in hives and starts gasping for air. The teacher grabs an epinephrine
autoinjector from the first aid kit and is able to save the girl. What cells,
when bound by lgE, are responsible for this anaphylactic reaction?
• mast cells
• macrophages
• platelets
• kupffer cells
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A

mast cells:

heparin, histamin, bradykinin, IgE, serotonin, SES-A, lysosomal enzymes

129
Q
A chromosome is maximally condensed chromatin wrapped around a protein
base of primarily:
• hydroxyapatite
• hyaluronan
• histones
• haploid
A

histones

human: 23x2 choromosomes
histones - very basic (+)

Arg, Lys, His - beads for DNA

130
Q

AAs in histones

A

very basic (+)

arginine, lysine, histidine

131
Q
Plasma cells are immediate derivations of which cell type?
• CDS+ T cell
• CD4+ T cell
• B lymphocyte
• neutrophil
• eosinophil
A

B

132
Q
Which ofthe following is a specialized macrophage located in the liver?
• fibroblasts
• hepatocyte
• kupffer cell
• erythrocyte
A

kupffer - in sinusoids

133
Q
Which of the following is the site of synthesis of rRNA and is NOT bound by a
membrane?
• endoplasmic reticulum
• ribosomes
• golgi apparatus
• nucleolus
• plasma membrane
A

nucleolus

inside nucleus, not membrane bound, rRNA synthesis

smooth ER - steroid, detox, Ca storage
rough: proteins for extracellular –> then to Golgi (COPII)

nucleus - 2 membranes, very basophilic bc lots of RER (nucleic acids like basic dyes)

m/ch and lysosomes - acidophilic

134
Q

which ER stores Ca

A

smooth

135
Q

which ER make steroids

A

smooth

136
Q

what color m/ch

A

eosinophilic

137
Q

what color lysosomes

A

eosinophilic

138
Q
In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes condense and become visible,
the nuclear membrane breaks down, and the mitotic spindle apparatus
forms at opposite poles of the cell?
• interphase
• prophase
• metaphase
• anaphase
• telophase
A

prophase - condense and become visible, membarne breaks, spindle apparatus at poles
metaphase - align, MT spindle
anaphase - separate and move
telophase - arrive at poles, cytokinesis –> 2 daughter cells

139
Q

order of phases in mitosis

A

pro (condense begin), meta, ana, telo

140
Q

All of the following statements regarding differences between meiosis and
mitosis are FALSE EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• both require one division to complete the process
• crossing over occurs in mitosis, it does not occur in meiosis
• meiosis occurs in germ cells only
• in mitosis the daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes as the parent
cell (2n ton), while in meiosis the daughter cells have the same number of chromosomes
as the parent cells (2n to 2n)
• in meiosis the daughter cells have the same genetic information as the parent cell,
while in mitosis the daughter cells are genetically different from the parent cell

A

meiosis in germ cells only

synapsis of bivalents, crossing over, chiasmata - meiosis

141
Q
Almost all human body cells have mitochondria EXCEPT one, which one is the
EXCEPTION?
• fibroblasts
• RBCs
• osteobl asts
• osteoclasts
A

RBCs - purely anaerobic glycolysis

142
Q
The main distinguishing feature of the jejunum is the presence of prominent:
• brunner's glands
• rugae
• peyer's patches
• teniae coli
• plicae circulares
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plicae circulares = valves of Kerckring

duodenum - Brunner’s glands in submucosa (alkaline)
jejunum - plicae circulares, fewer arcades, longer branches
ileum - Peyer’s patches, B12 (cobalamin), more arcades, shorter branches

B12: pernicious, gastric parietal intrinsic factor needed for absorption

143
Q

Brunner’s glands

A

alkaline in duodenum

144
Q

Peyer’s patches

A

ileum

145
Q

more arcades shorter branches

A

ileum

146
Q

less arcades longer branches

A

jejunum

147
Q

B12 absorption

A

intrinsic factor by gastric parietal cells
pernicious anemia
ileum

148
Q

A patient comes to the emergency room presenting with jaundice and
intense pain in the upper abdominal and between the shoulder blades. The
physician suspects choledocholithiasis that is caused by cholesterol stones
formed in which organ that stores and concentrates the bile.
• appendix
• gallbladder
·liver
• pancreas
• spleen

A

gallbladder

Oddi’s sphincter + hepatopancreatic ampulla
cholecystokinin - stimulates gallbladder contraction, made by duodenum

149
Q

what stimulates gallbladder contraction

A

CKK, made by duodenum

150
Q

name of sphincter in gallbladder

A

Oddi

151
Q

what makes CCK

A

duodenum, stimulates gallbladder contraction

152
Q

The smooth muscle coat of the large intestine consists of three bands called
taeniae coli.
The walls of the large intestine have more villi than the small intestine.
• both statements are t rue
• both statements are false
• the f irst statement is t rue, the second is false
• the f irst statement is fa lse, the second is t rue

A

first true, second false

large intestine - many glands, taeniae coli (not continuous smooth mm)
anal region - longitudinal folds

153
Q
Name the glands found in the submucosa of the duodenum that secrete an
alkaline mucus to protect the walls of the mucosa.
• peyer's patches
• glands of Kerckring
• hertwig's glands
• brunner's glands
• crypts of Lieberkuhn
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brunner’s glands

duodenum is retroperitoneal except first 2cm
duodenal papila
superior pancreaticoduodenal - off gastroduodenal
inferior - off SMA

sympath: splanchnic, parasymp: vagus

crypts of Lieberkuhn = paneth cells

154
Q

crypts of lieberkuhn

A

paneth

155
Q

retroperitoneal organs

A
S = Suprarenal (adrenal) glands
A = Aorta/Inferior Vena Cava
D = Duodenum (second and third segments)*
P = Pancreas* except tail
U = Ureters
C = Colon (ascending and descending only)*
K = Kidneys
E = Esophagus
R = Rectum
156
Q

secondarily retroperitoneal organs

A

For secondarily retroperitoneal remember ‘Pussy Cat Dolls“:

P = Pancreas except tail

C = Colon (only ascending and descending)

D = Duodenum (only parts 2-4)

157
Q
At which level does the esophagus pierce the diaphragm?
·C6
• TS
• TlO
• T12
A

T10

I Ate 10 Eggs At 12
IVC 8, Esophagus 10, Aorta 12

esophagus starts at C6
pierces into stomach at T10 (esophag hiatus)

GERD, Barrett (metaplasia) –> adenocarcinoma
parasymp vagus, motor - recurrent laryngeal

158
Q

motor innerv of esophagus

A

recurrent laryngeal

159
Q
The lateral surface of the stomach is called the:
•lesser curvature
• greater curvature
•lesser omentum
• greater omentum
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greater curvature

mm layers: outer long, middle circular, inner oblique

r + l gastric - lesser curvature
l + r gastroomental - greater curvature

parietal (oxyntic) - fundus and body, HCl + intrinsic factor
chief - fundus and body - pepsinogen
G - throughout - gastrin

160
Q
Which ofthe following vessels does NOT supply blood to the liver?
• hepatic veins
• hepatic portal vein
• common hepatic artery
• celiac trunk
A

hepatic veins

hepatic triad = hepatic a + portal v + bile duct

falciform + triangular + coronary ligaments

joined to stomach by lesser omentum and duodenum by hepatoduodenal ligament

kupffer in siusoids

161
Q

One significant difference between the jejunum and the ileum is that the ileum
characteristically contains more of which feature below?
• plicae circulares
• brunner’s glands
• taeniae coli
• peyer’s patches
• vil li

A

peyer’s patches

jejunum: more plicae, more villi
absorbs carbs and proteins

ileum: more peyer, absorbs bile salts and B12
more goblet cells that secrete mucus

162
Q
Peristalsis for what organ is controlled by taeniae coli?
• esophagus
• stomach
• large intestine
• small intes
A

large intestine

Hirschprung - no myenteric plexus - –> decreased motility
major fx of large intestine - absorption of water

163
Q

Which cells, located in the crypts of Lieberkiihn, secrete an antibacterial
enzyme that maintains the gastrointestinal barrier?
• paneth cells
• enteroendocrine cells
• sertoli cells
• absorptive

A

paneth
mostly in ileum
lysozyme for antibacterial

brush border = goblet cells (mucus, ileum)
absorptive (simple columnar)
enteroendocrine (secretin, cholecystokinin, abundant in duodenum)

164
Q
Which ofthe following cells are responsible for secreting glucagon?
• alpha cell s
• beta cells
• delta cells
• gamma cell s
A

alpha

beta is insulin, delta is somatostatin, gamma - polypeptides

endocrine islands

165
Q

which pancreas cells make somatostatin

A

delta

166
Q

which pancreatic cells make polypeptides

A

gamma

167
Q

what do delta pancreatic cells make

A

somatostatin

168
Q

what do gamma pancreatic cells make

A

polypeptides

169
Q
Which of the following provides parasympathetic stimulation to the sigmoid
colon?
• vagus nerve
• phrenic nerve
• Tl-l2
• S2-S4
A

S2-S4

foregut: celiac trunk
hepatic portal system (l gastric and splenic vv)
celiac nodes,
thoracic nn in celiac plexus for symps, vagus for parasymps

midgut: SMA
hepatic portal (SMV)
superior mesenteric nodes
thoracic nn in SM plexus for symps, vagus for parasymps

hindgut - starts at last 1/3 of transverse colon all the way to rectum
IMA
hepatic portal (IMV)
superior and inferior mesenteric nodes
inferior mesenteric plexus for symps, 
S2-S4 for parasymps
170
Q

supply of rectum:

A

rectum: superior rectalis off IMA
middle - internal iliac
inferior - internal pudendal

171
Q
Which of the following triangles is bounded by the sternocleidomastoid, the
posterior belly of digastric and the superior belly of omohyoid muscle?
• submental triangle
• digastric triangle
• carotid triangle
• muscular triangle
• occipital triangle
• subclavian triangle
A

carotid

Anterior triangle: submental is madible, anterior digastric and hyoid bone (floor is mylohyoid)

carotid triangle is superior omohyoid, SCM and posterior digastric
contains bifurcation of carotid, internal jugular, vagus, hypoglossal

digaastric trinagle is anterior and posterior digastric + mandible, contains submandibular gland

muscular triangle boundariessuperior omo, midline and SCM

Posterior triangle:
occipital (SCM/trap/omo) - accessory n.
subclavian (SCM/trap, clavicle)

172
Q

submental triangle boundaries

A

submental is madible, anterior digastric and hyoid bone (floor is mylohyoid)

173
Q

carotid triangle boundaries

A

carotid triangle is superior omohyoid, SCM and posterior digastric, contains bifurcation of carotid, internal jugular, vagus, hypoglossal

174
Q

muscular triangle boundaries

A

muscular triangle boundariessuperior omo, midline and SCM

175
Q

digastric triangle boundaries

A

digaastric trinagle is anterior and posterior digastric + mandible, contains submandibular gland

176
Q

what makes posterior triangle of neck

A

Posterior triangle:
occipital (SCM/trap/omo) - accessory n.
subclavian (SCM/trap, clavicle)

177
Q
Which of the following muscles assists in opening the pharyngeal orifice of
the auditory tube during swallowing?
• stylopharyngeus
• palatopharyngeus
• salpingopharyngeus
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salpingopharyngeus
all these are longitudinal mm of pharynx
stylo - IX
salpingo and palato - vagus

178
Q

stylopharyngeal supply

A

IX

179
Q

salpingopharyng supply

A

vagus

180
Q

palatopharyng supply

A

vagus

181
Q
Which ofthe following contains thick myosin filaments ONLY?
• H zone
• I band
• A band
• all of the above
A

H band

A bands don't change 
H - only myosin
Z - middle of I
I is everything that's not A
A has both thick and thin

actin - mostly I, extend to A

now draw picture

182
Q
The is the most superficially located and strongest muscle of mastication?
• temporalis
• medial pterygoid
• lateral pterygoid
• masseter
A

masseter

lingual n. runs on lateral surface of medial pterygoid
temporalis m helps medial pterygoid and masseter elevate and close

both lats - protrusion
one - lateral deviation to opposite side

all mastication mm - V3 (+ tensor tympani and tensor veli palatini)

183
Q

what do lateral pterygoids do

A

protrude

184
Q

motor fx of V3

A

all mastication + tensor veli palatinin + tensor tympani

185
Q
The anterior and posterior pillars of the fauces enclose which area of lymphoid
tissue?
• lingual tonsils
• pharyngeal tonsils
• palatine tonsils
• peyer's patches
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palatine tonsils

fauces - passage from mouth to pharynx

anterior = palatoglossal fold with muscle
posterior = palatopharyngeal fold with muscle
186
Q
Which of the following muscles are innervated by the axillary nerve?
Select all that apply.
• pectoralis major
• pectoralis minor
• teres major
• teres minor
• deltoid
• latissimus dorsi
A

deltoid and teres minor

now draw brachial plexus

187
Q

innervation of pec major

A

med and lat pec

188
Q

innervation of pec minor

A

med pec

189
Q

innervation of teres major

A

upper and lower subscap

190
Q

innervation of teres minor

A

axillary

191
Q

innervation of deltoid

A

axillary

192
Q

innervation of latissimus dorsi

A

thoracodorsal (=middle subscap)

193
Q
All the following muscles are innervated by the same nerve that innervates
the muscles of mastication EXCEPT one, which one is the exception?
• mylohyoid
• tensor tympani
• tensor vel i palatini
• anteri or belly of digastric
• posterior belly of digastric
[refer to card 119 A-1 for illustration )
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posterior belly of digastric - facial n.

all mm of mastication + 2 tensors - V3 and maxillary artery

develop from first pharyngeal arch

194
Q
All the muscles of the tongue are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve
EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
• hyoglossus
• styloglossus
• palatoglossus
• genioglossus
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palatoglossus - vagus

all other mm of tongue (intrinsic and extrinsic) - hypoglossal

btw as a reminder
stylopharyngeal IX
salpingopharyngeal and palatopharyngeal - X

195
Q
Most of the muscles that act on the shoulder girdle and upper limb joints are
supplied by branches of the brachial plexus. Which of the following is NOT?
• levator scapulae
• rhomboid major
• rhomboid minor
• trapezius
• serratus anterior
• pectoralis minor
• subclavius
A

trap - accessory n. XI
runs in occipital trinagle of posterior neck (SCM trap omo)

serratus anterior pulls scapula down and forward - LTN

trap:upper elevates scapula, middle pulls medially, lower pulls medially so that glenoid faces up and forward

196
Q

innervation of serratus anterior

A

LTN

197
Q

what does serratus anterior do

A

pull scapula down and forward

198
Q

levator scapulae + rhomboids

A

dorscal scapular n. (off C5)

raise medial border of scapula

199
Q

A 16-year-old girl who is just about to have her junior prom comes crying
into the physician’s office, but is lacrimating only from her right eye. The left
half of her face is also paralyzed. An oral exam reveals trauma to her buccal
mucosa where her teeth have bitten her cheek. Which muscle is responsible
for keeping mucous membranes out of the plane of occlusion and food out
ofthe buccal vestibule?
• medial pterygoid
• lateral pterygoid
• buccinator
• masseter
• temporalis

A

buccinator

damage to facial n. - Bell’s palsy
parotid duct travels over masseter and penetrates buccinator,
opens near 2nd maxillary molar

200
Q
All of the following muscles are responsible for elevating the mandible
EXCEPT one. Which one is the exception?
• masseter
• medial pterygoid
• mylohyoid
• temporalis
A

mylohyoid - floor of mouth, suprahyoid depressor actually

mylohyoid
geniohyoid (on top of mylo)
digastric

201
Q
The action of which of the following muscles would be affected if the hamulus
was fractured?
• uvular
• palatopharyngeus
• tensor vel i palatini
• palatoglossus
•levator veli palatini
A

tensor veli palatini loops over hamulus

all mm of soft palate - X, except tensor veli - V3

202
Q
Which of the following travels with the esophagus through the esophageal
opening in the diaphragm?
• aorta
• thoracic duct
• azygos vein
• vagus nerve
• right phrenic nerve
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vagus + esophagus T10

phrenic runs between pericardium and pleura and innervates diaphragm
diaphragm is higher on right

203
Q
Which costal muscle can typically cross more than one intercostal space?
• external intercostal
• internal intercostal
• innermost intercostals
• subcostal
• transverse thoracic
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A

subcostal

external hand in pocket elevates
internal and innermost vice versa
subcostal elevates
transverse thoracic ffrom sternum to ctlges depresses

main m of respiration is diaphragm

204
Q

Name the molecule that lies along the surface ofF-actin and physically covers
myosin binding sites during the resting state.
• G-actin
· tropomyosin
• troponin
• light meromyosin
• heavy meromyosin

A

tropomyosin

G-actin globules assebled into F-actin fiber
light meromyosin is backbone with lateral heavy meromyosins which interact with actin

when troponin binds Ca, it pulls tropomyosin off binding site and lets myosin

205
Q
The right and left rectus abdominis muscles are entirely independent, being
separated by a connective structure called the:
• pyramidalis
• gubernaculum
• linea alba
• il iopectineal arch
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linea alba

spermatic cord or round ligament of uterus runs below internal oblique –> cremaster

back wall of abdominal:
psoas major and minor and quadratus lumborum (lumbar plexus)
iliacus (femoral n.)

206
Q
All of the following structures are located between the superior and middle
pharyngeal constrictors EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• stylopharyngeus muscle
• glossopharyngeal nerve
• stylohyoid ligament
• recurrent laryngeal nerve
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A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

all constrictors innervated by pharyng plexus

above superior constrictor: auditory tube, levator palatini, ascending palatine a.

between superior and middle: stylopharyng m, glossopharyng n. and stylohyoid ligament

between middle and inferior: internal branch of superior laryngeal n. and superior laryngeal artery

below inferior constrictor: recurrent laryngeal nerve and inferior laryngeal artery

207
Q

what runs between superior and middle pharyn constrictors

A

stylohyoid ligament
glossopharyngeal nerve
stylopharyng muscle

208
Q

what runs between middle and inferior pharyng constrictor

A

internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve and superior laryngeal artery

209
Q

below inferior constrictor runs

A

recurrent laryngeal and inferior laryngeal artery

210
Q
The connective tissue layer surrounding each individual muscle fiber is
called the:
• perimysium
• epimysium
• endomysium
• sarcolemma
A

endomysium

211
Q

At a picnic, the kids all decide to hang upside down on the monkey bars. One
daring kid decides that he will try to eat a grape while hanging upside down
and finds that he has no trouble doing this. Peristalsis and other similar
movements are produced by which type of muscle tissue?
• smooth muscle tissue
• striated muscle tissue
• skeletal muscle t issue
• cardiac muscle tissue
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smooth

212
Q

A surgeon performing a thyroidectomy accidentally transects a nerve. The
patient then presents with hoarseness and difficulty breathing. There is a
loss of sensation below the vocal folds and loss of motor innervation to all of
the intrinsic muscles of the larynx except the cricothyroid muscle. Which
nerve was transected during the surgery?
• recurrent laryngeal nerve
• internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
• external branch of superior laryngeal nerve
• accessory nerve
• glossopharyngeal nerve

A

common damage is recurrent laryngeal nerve
innervates all intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid

cricothyroid is by external branch of superior laryngeal

sensation above vocal folds - internal branch of superior laryngeal
below - recurrent laryngeal

213
Q

innervation of cricothyroid

A

external branch of superior laryngeal nerve

internal branch of it runs between middle and inferior constrictors

cricothyroid extends vocal folds

214
Q

sensation above vocal folds and where it runs

A

internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve, passes between middle and inferior constrictors

215
Q

The axilla, or armpit, is a localized region of the body between the upper
humerus and thorax. It provides a passageway for the large, important
arteries, nerves, veins, and lymphatics that ensure that the upper limb
functions properly. The muscle that forms the bulk of the anterior axillary
fold is the:
• latissimus dorsi
• pectoralis major
• subscapulari s
• teres minor
• teres major

A

pec major

anterior fold - pecs
posterior fold - lat dorsi + teres major
lat wall humerus
posterior wall - subscapularis, teres major, lat dorsi
anterior wall - pecs + subclavian
216
Q

posterior fold/wall of axilla

A

lat dorsi, teres major/subscapularis

217
Q
All the infrahyoid muscles are innervated by the ansa cervicalis (Cl -3)
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
• sternohyoid
• sternothyroid
• thyrohyoid
• omohyoid
A

all ansa except thyrohyoid which is C1 via hypoglossal

suprahyoids:
digastric: posterior facial, anterior V3
mylohyoid V3
geniohyoid hypoglossal
stylohyoid facial

SCM C2+3

218
Q
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of cardiac muscle?
• multinuclear
• intercalated discs
• gap junctions
• desmosomes
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multinuclear

219
Q

A nervous dental student is performing the inferior alveolar nerve block for
the first time. His injection passes the ramus, but he thinks deposition of the
anesthetic will work. His patient complains that he can’t “move his face” on
the side ofthe injection. Which gland did the dental student penetrate?
• sublingual gland
• submandibular gland
• parotid gland
• von Ebner’s glands
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A

parotid

220
Q
Biceps brachii is the major \_\_\_\_ of elbow joint, and \_\_\_\_ ofthe forearm.
• f lexor, pronator
• f lexor, supinator
• extensor, pronator
• extensor, supinator
• pronator, supinator
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A

flexor, supinator

triceps (radial n.) - extensor

brachialis starts at middle of humerus to coronoid of ulna,
musculocutaneous n.
flexor of elbow

coracobrachialis sameeeeee

biceps brachii two heads: longer at supraglenoid, shorter at coracoid; musculocutaneous, flexor + supinator

221
Q

Which of the following muscles originates from the medial surface of the
lateral pterygoid plate?
• superficial head of the medial pterygoid
• deep head of the medial pterygoid
•lower head of the lateral pterygoid
• upper head of the lateral pterygoid
I refer to card 119 A-1 for illustration I
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A

deep head of medial pterygoid

its supf from maxilla

lower head of lateral from lat pteryg plate to neck of condyle; upper from greater sphenoid wing into TMJ

temporalis from temp fossa to coronoid
anterior and superior fibers elevate, posterior retract mandible

222
Q

attachments of lateral pterygoid

A

upper: greater sphenoid –> TMJ
lower: plate –> neck of condyle

223
Q

attachments and fx of temporalis

A

to coronoid

superior and anterior fibers elevate, posterior fibers retract mandible

224
Q

A patient comes to the emergency room after boxing practice. He was hit
with an uppercut and heard a crack in his jaw joint. ACT scan shows a condylar
fracture with damage to the articular disc. When the patient attempts
protrusion, the mandible markedly deviates to the left. Which muscle is
unable to contract?
• left lateral pterygoid
• right lateral pterygoid
•left medial pterygoid
• right medial pterygoid
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A

left lateral pterygoid

225
Q

A 46-year-old woman comes into the dentist’s office for a cleaning. He
notices that her tongue is slightly swollen, fiery red, and smooth. Her diet
history indicates that she has had a loss of appetite for quite some time and
that she has been feeling fatigued. A call to her physician indicates a history
of iron deficiency anemia and associated glossitis. In glossitis, the smooth
nature is caused by a lack of which papillae that are the most numerous and
cover the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
• foliate
• circumvallate
• fungiform
• filiform

A

filiform

Plummer-Vinson: postmenopausal: dysphagia (eaophag webs), glossitis, iron deficiency

226
Q
Which ofthe following muscles cells does NOT contain troponin?
• skeletal muscl e cell
• cardiac muscl e cell
• smooth muscle cell
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A

smooth

poor sarcoplasmic tericulum
calmodulin binds Ca

227
Q

Skeletal muscle possesses a well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum. This
along with T tubules and terminal cisternae function in the release and
reuptake of:
• sodium
• phosphate
• calcium
• glucose

A

Ca

number of mm fibers does not increase

troponin + Ca in skel and cardiac
calmodulin + Ca in smooth

228
Q
Which ofthe following muscles elevates and abducts the eyeball?
• medial rectus
• lateral rectus
• superior rectus
• inferi or rectus
• superior oblique
• inferi or oblique
A

inferior oblique

IO + IR - adduct and laterally rotate
SO + SR - abduct and medially rotate

LR6, SO4
all - ophthalmic artery

229
Q

Internal Oblique does what

A

elevate, laterally rotate and adduct

230
Q

Superior Oblique does what

A

depress, abduct, medially rotate

231
Q

Superior Rectus does what

A

elevate, medially rotate, abduct

232
Q

All mm of pharynx supplied by except which is

A

IX + X except stylopharyng which is IX

233
Q

All mm of larynx supplied by except which is

A

recurrent laryngeal except cricothyroid which is external branch of superior laryngeal nerve

234
Q

all mm of tongue supplied by except which is

A

hypoglossal except palatoglossal which is X

235
Q

all soft palate supplied by except which is

A

IX+X except tensor veli which is V3

236
Q

all infrahyoid supplied by except which is

A

ansa (C1-C3) (btw CSM is C2+3) except thryohyoid which is C1 via hypoglossal

237
Q

where does glossopharyngeal pass?

A

between superior and middle pharyng constrictors

238
Q

what attaches actin in smooth mm cells?

A

dense bodies

239
Q

which mm sense extracellular Ca

A

smooth and cardiac

240
Q

which mm have gap jxns

A

cardiac (also intercalated) and smooth

241
Q

mode of stimulation in cardiac

A

all or none