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anat/physio/patho Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 4 lobes of the brain

A

Frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital

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2
Q

List the subdivisions of the frontal lobe and their functions

A
  1. Primary motor cortex - execution of movements
  2. Secondary motor cortex - planning of complex movements
  3. Broca’s speech area - speech production
  4. Prefrontal cortex - higher order mental capabilities like behaviour and planning
  5. Frontal eye field - coordination of eyes to focus on a single object
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3
Q

What is the function of the parietal lobe?

A

Primary somatosensory cortex where all the information from the somatic sensory pathways are transmitted to and processed

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4
Q

Describe what is the sensory homunculus

A

A visual representation of how much processing power is allocated through all the body parts.

Face and hands are the most, ie. they can do the most precise fine motor functions and are the most sensitive.

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5
Q

What is the function of the temporal lobe?

A
  1. Primary auditory cortex = process hearing information coming from CN8
  2. *Wernicke’s speech area = speech understanding
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6
Q

What are the 2 areas of the brain responsible for speech and which lobes are they found in respectively?

A

Broca’s = speech PRODUCTION, found in frontal lobe

Wernicke’s = speech INTERPRETATION, found in temporal lobe

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7
Q

What is the function of the occipital lobe?

A

Primary and secondary visual cortex = VISION

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8
Q

What 2 functions does the cerebellum play an important role in?

A

Balance and coordination

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9
Q

List the anatomical divisions of the cerebellum

A

From medial to lateral,
1. Vermis **
2. Intermediate zone
3. Lateral hemispheres

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10
Q

List the functional divisions of the cerebellum

A
  1. Vestibule cerebellum - postural maintenance
  2. Spinocerebellum - Integrate sensory input with motor commands
  3. Cerebrocerebellum
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11
Q

Which part of the brainstem is the cardiopulmonary centre?

A

Medulla oblongata

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12
Q

Which part of the brainstem does the cranial nerves 5,6,7,8 branch from?

A

Pons

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13
Q

Which cranial nerves emerge from the pontomedullary junction?

A

Cranial nerves 5,6,7,8

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14
Q

Name the 4 branches of the ICA

A
  1. Ophthalmic artery
  2. Anterior cerebral artery
  3. Middle cerebral artery
  4. Posterior communicating artery
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15
Q

Where does the ophthalmic artery supply?

A

Orbit

Forehead via supratrochlear artery

Dorsum of nose via supraorbital artery

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16
Q

Which part of the brain does the ACA supply?

A
  1. Midline of frontal lobe
  2. Superior medial parietal lobe
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17
Q

Which part of the brain does the MCA supply?

A
  1. Lateral cerebral cortex
  2. Anterior temporal lobes
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18
Q

Which artery does the posterior communicating artery connect to?

A

Posterior cerebral artery

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19
Q

Describe which is the main artery supplying the intra and extra cranial structures

A

Intra-cranial: ICA and vertebral arteries

Extra-cranial: ECA

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20
Q

Which part of the brain does the PCA supply?

A
  1. Occipital lobe
  2. Temporal lobe
  3. Thalamus
  4. Choroid plexus of third and lateral ventricles
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21
Q

Which special sense will be affected if the PCA is occluded?

A

Vision

Because the PCA supplies the occipital lobe which houses the primary visual cortex

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22
Q

List the significance of the Circle of Willis

A
  1. Provides collateral blood flow between the anterior and posterior circulations of the brain to PROTECT AGAINST ISCHEMIA
  2. Common site for berry/saccular aneurysms which is the most common cause of non-traumatic SAH.
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23
Q

What is the main vessel supplying the extra-cranial structures?

A

External carotid artery

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24
Q

**List the branches of the ECA

A
  1. Superior thyroid artery
  2. Ascending pharyngeal artery
  3. Lingual artery
  4. Facial artery
  5. Occipital artery
  6. Posterior auricular artery
  7. Maxillary artery
  8. Superficial temporal artery
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25
Q

Which nerve is closely related to the superior thyroid artery?

A

External laryngeal nerve

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26
Q

Which nerve is closely related to the inferior thyroid artery?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve

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27
Q

How does the lingual artery enter the oral cavity?

A

From behind the hypoglosus muscle

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28
Q

What parts of the face does the facial artery supply?

A

Muscles of soft palate, sublingual and submandibular gland

Orbicularis oculi and oris

Superficial face

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29
Q

What muscles does the occipital artery supply?

THINK BACK OF NECK!

A

SCM & trapezius

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30
Q

What is the name of the artery that branches out from ECA within the parotid gland?

A

Posterior auricular artery

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31
Q

Name the 2 terminal branches of the ECA

A

Maxillary artery
Superficial temporal arteries

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32
Q

What is a key branch of the maxillary artery involved in SAH?

A

Middle meningeal artery

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33
Q

How does the middle meningeal artery enter the cranial cavity?

A

Via foramen spinosum

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34
Q

What is the main artery supplying the EAR?

A

Posterior auricular artery

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35
Q

What is the artery supplying the muscles of mastication?

A

Maxillary artery

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36
Q

What is a branch of the maxillary artery that goes to the mandible?

A

Inferior alveolar artery (passes through mandibular foramen)

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37
Q

Which part of the brain produces CSF?

A

Choroid plexus

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38
Q

List the functions of CSF

A
  1. **Protection for the brain (shock absorption)
  2. Buoyancy (allows the brain to maintain its density)
  3. Prevention of brain ischemia (decreasing the amt of CSF in limited space inside the skull decreases total ICP)
  4. **Removal by-products of metabolism
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39
Q

** Describe CSF circulation in the brain

A

Produced by choroid plexus

Lateral ventricles to 3rd ventricle via interventricular foramen

3rd to 4th ventricle via cerebral aqueduct

4th ventricles has openings for the CSF to flow into the subarachnoid space

Reabsorbed into dural venous sinuses through arachnoid granulations.

Choroid plexus -> lateral ventricle -> 3rd -> 4th ventricle via aqueduct -> subarachnoid -> arachnoid granulation -> DVS

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40
Q

What structure of the brain reabsorbs/recycles CSF?

A

Arachnoid granulations

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41
Q

Which is the most clinically important dural venous sinus and what structures pass through it?

A

Cavernous sinus

CN 3,4,6,V1,V2

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42
Q

Where is the highest number of arachnoid granulations found?

A

Superior sagittal and tranverse sinuses

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43
Q

Where does dural venous sinuses drain into?

A

Internal jugular vein

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44
Q

Describe the most common cause of epidural/extradural haemorrhage

A

Trauma associated with skull fracture, specifically fracture at the pterion

The fracture causes rupture of the MIDDLE MENINGEAL ARTERY

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45
Q

What will I see on a CT scan if there is epidural haemorrhage?

A

Biconvex (lens-shaped) hyperdense area

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46
Q

Describe the most common cause of subdural haemorrhage

A

Rupture of bridging veins, especially in elderly due to age related shrinking of the brain causing the distance between the brain and skull to increase.

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47
Q

What will I see on a CT scan if there is subdural haemorrhage?

A

Crescent-shaped haematoma

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48
Q

Describe the most common cause of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Rupture of berry aneurysm, most commonly at the Circle of Willis.

Or arteriovenous malformation
Or coagulopathies

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49
Q

What will I see on a CT scan if there is subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

Blood fills the sulci and around the Circle of willis.

Blood may also pool in the basal cisterns, forming a “star-shaped” pattern.

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50
Q

Describe the most common cause of intraparenchymal haemorrhage

A

HYPERTENSION!!!

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy
Vascular abnormalities (eg. arteriovenous malformations)

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51
Q

Describe the sequence of events from the photoreceptor to the brain when processing images

A
  1. Photoreceptors recieve light and undergo phototransduction.
  2. Optic nerve exits orbit via optic canal
  3. Hemi decussation of nasal hemiretina tract at optic chiasm
  4. Optic tract (ipsilateral temporal and contralateral nasal)
  5. Synapses at the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus
  6. Optic radiation
  7. Primary visual cortex in occipital lobe
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52
Q

Which are the 4 nerves with parasympathetic component?

A

CN 3,7,9,10

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53
Q

What is the parasympathetic function of CN3?

A

Innervation of the smooth muscles of the eye (ie. sphincter pupillae and ciliary muscles).

Sphincter pupillae is for pupillary light reflex and ciliary muscle is to adjust the lens for accomodation.

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54
Q

What is the parasympathetic function of CN7?

A

Supply all the glands in the head EXCEPT parotid so lacrimal, sublingual, submandibular

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55
Q

What is the parasympathetic function of CN9?

A

Innervate the parotid gland and increase its secretions

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56
Q

What is the parasympathetic function of CN10?

A

Heart, lungs, GIT parasympathetic functions

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57
Q

What is the visual field defect associated with lesion to the optic nerve?

A

Ipsilateral monocular blindness

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58
Q

What is the visual field defect associated with lesion to the central optic chiasm?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

Central optic chiams aka the point of decussation -> both the nasal visual fields affected -> lost of peripheral vision on both sides

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59
Q

In what condition is a lesion to the central optic chiasm seen more often?

A

Pituitary tumour

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60
Q

What is the visual field defect associated with lesion to the lateral optic chiasm?

A

Ipsilateral nasal hemianopia

Depending on which side is affected, it affects the ipsilateral temporal vision -> loss of central vision.

Right lateral optic chiasm -> right temporal visual field disrupted -> right central vision gone

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61
Q

What is the visual field defect associated with lesion to the optic tract?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia.

Right: right temporal (right central) and left nasal (left periphery)
- Right central and Left peripheral vision loss

Left: left temporal (left central) and right nasal (right periphery)
- Left central and Right peripheral vision loss

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62
Q

What is the visual field defect associated with lesion to the optic radiation?

A

Contralateral quadrantanopia

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63
Q

What is the visual field defect associated with lesion to the Meyer’s loop?

A

Contralateral quadrantanopia

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64
Q

What is the visual field defect associated with lesion to the visual cortex?

A

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing

Because even if there is an occlusion -> stroke -> infarct of visual cortex, the visual cortex will still have blood supply from collateral vessels, it will not totally die off.

Hence not complete blindness and got macular sparring.

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65
Q

Where does CN 1 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Cribriform plate, anterior CF

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66
Q

Where does CN 2 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Optic canal, middle CF

Along with ophthalmic artery which is a branch of ICA

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67
Q

Where does CN 3 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Midbrain

Middle CF, supra-orbital fossa

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68
Q

Where does CN 4 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Midbrain

Middle CF, supra-orbital fossa

69
Q

Where does CN 5 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Pons

Middle CF
V1: supraorbital fissure
V2: foramen rotundum
V3: foramen ovale

70
Q

Where does CN 6 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Pontomedullary junction

Middle CF; Suspended in cranial cavity

71
Q

Where does CN 7 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Pontomedullary junction

Posterior CF; Internal acoustic meatus

72
Q

Where does CN 8 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Pontomedullary junction

Posterior CF; Internal acoustic meatus; petrous part of temporal bone

73
Q

Where does CN 9,10,11 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Medulla oblongata

Posterior CF; Jugular foramen

74
Q

Where does CN11 go after emerging from jugular foramen?

A

Spinal accessory nerve goes through the foramen magnum

75
Q

Where does CN 12 emerge from in the skull? State the cranial fossa component as well

A

Medulla oblongata

Posterior CF; Hypoglossal canal

76
Q

What is the main somatic sensory nerve of the face? And via what tract does it transmit sensory information?

A

CN V - Trigeminal nerve

Trigeminothalamic tract

77
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in the pupillary reflex?

A

CN 2 & 3

78
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in the accommodation reflex?

A

CN 2,3,4,6

79
Q

Name the 2 intrinsic muscles innervated by the parasympathetic component of CN 3

A

Sphincter pupillae
Ciliary muscles

80
Q

Where in the cranial cavity does CN7 exit via?

A

Stylomastoid foramen

81
Q

Where does the facial nerve branch into its 6 terminal branches?

A

Within the parotid gland

82
Q

List the 6 terminal branches of the facial nerve

A
  1. Temporal
  2. Zygomatic
  3. Buccal
  4. Marginal
  5. Mandibular
  6. Cervical
83
Q

Which is the only branch of the trigeminal nerve to have a motor component?

A

V3 - mandibular nerve

84
Q

Which nerve gives rise to the sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

V3 mandibular nerve

85
Q

Which nerve gives rise to the sensation in the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?

A

CN 9 glossopharyngeal nerve

86
Q

Which group of muscles in the face does the motor component of the trigeminal nerve innervate?

A

Muscles of mastication (eg. medial and lateral pterygoid, masseter and temporalis)

87
Q

What will I observe in a patient with CN 4 palsy?

A

In front gaze, the affected eye will be elevated and slightly abducted.

This is because of denervation to the superior oblique muscle that depress, adducts and internally rotates the eye.

88
Q

What muscle does CN 4 innervate and what movements does it control?

A

Superior oblique muscle of the eye

Depression, adduction and internal rotation

89
Q

What will I observe in a patient with CN 6 palsy?

A

Eye will be adducted due to denervation of lateral rectus muscle that abducts the eye (look sideways)

90
Q

Which muscle is innervated by CN6 and what movement of the eye does it control?

A

Lateral rectus

Abduction

LAB!!

91
Q

Which nerve innervates TASTE of anterior 2/3 and posterior 1/3 + circumvallate papillae of the tongue?

A

Anterior 2/3: Chorda tympani which is a branch of the facial nerve

Posterior 1/3: CN 9, glossopharyngeal nerve

92
Q

Which nerve innervates TASTE of anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

A

Chorda tympani which is a branch of the facial nerve, CN 7

93
Q

Which nerve innervates TASTE of posterior 1/3 + circumvallate papillae of the tongue?

A

CN 9, glossopharyngeal nerve

94
Q

Which nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle?

A

External laryngeal nerve

95
Q

Which nerve innervates the muscles of the soft palate?

*There is one exception

A

CN 10, vagus nerve

Except tensor palatini which is innervated by mandibular nerve (V3)

96
Q

Which is the muscle of the pharynx not innervated by pharyngeal branches of the vagus nerve?

A

Stylopharyngeus which is innervated by CN 9, glossopharyngeal

97
Q

Which artery is the recurrent laryngeal nerve closely related to?

A

Inferior thyroid artery

98
Q

How can I tell if there is a CNX palsy?

A

Uvula deviation: will deviate away from affected side.

Because CNX innervates muscles of the soft palate (esp levator palatini) -> elevates the soft palate.

Denervation -> no elevation of affected side + unopposed pull and elevation of unaffected side = deviation away from affected side

99
Q

Which muscle of the larynx is closely related to voice production and why?

A

Posterior cricoarytenoid muscle which abducts the vocal folds

100
Q

Which nerve, if affected, will result in hoarseness in voice?

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve because it innervates the posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

101
Q

How do I check for CNXII palsy?

A

Tongue deviation because CNXII innervates the genioglossus muscle which contracts to protrude the tongue.

Denervation means that one side of the tongue protrudes and the other doesnt, hence causing deviation towards the affected side.

102
Q

Which nerve innervates the muscles of the tongue?

*Name the exception

A

CN 12 hypoglossal

Innervates all except palatoglossus which is innervated by CNX vagus

103
Q

**What will I see in a patient with CN3 palsy?

A
  1. Ptosis due to impaired levator palpebrae superioris
  2. Mydriasis (pupils dilate) due to impaired sphincter pupillae
  3. Diplopia due to uncoordinated eye movements
104
Q

Which CN does pupillary light reflex test for?

A

2,3

105
Q

Which CN does accommodation test for?

A

2,3,4,6

106
Q

Does the trigeminal motor nucleus receive bilateral or unilateral UMN influence?

A

Bilateral

107
Q

What CN does corneal reflex test?

A

5,7

108
Q

What parasympathetic component are you trying to elicit in a corneal reflex and what nerve innervates it?

A

Production of tears by lacrimal gland

Parasympathetic innervation is by CN 7

109
Q

Describe the motor innervation of the face

A

For face, the upper half receives bilateral UMN influence while the lower half only receives contralateral UMN influence.

110
Q

Patient presents with ipsilateral half of face weakness and numbness. What kind of lesion does he have?

A

LMN lesion - likely palsy of the facial nerve

111
Q

Patient presents with lower half of the face symptoms (ie. loss of nasolabial, drooping corner of the mouth). What kind of lesion does he have?

A

UMN of the facial nerve lesion

112
Q

What is the main muscle of the tongue that protrudes it?

A

Genioglossus

113
Q

Name a key branch of the ophthalmic nerve and what muscle does run superiorly to?

A

Frontal nerve

Sits on top of the levator palpebra superioris muscle which raise and hold the upper eyelid open

114
Q

Describe the visual processing pathway

A
  1. Photoreceptor (undergo phototransduction)
  2. Optic nerve
  3. Optic chiasm
  4. Synapse at lateral geniculate nucleus of thalamus
  5. Optic radiation
  6. Primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe
115
Q

What is the function of the vestibular nerve and which CN is it a branch of?

A

CNVIII

Transmit vestibular information aka balance, spatial awareness and coordination

116
Q

Name the contents of the carotid sheath

A

Vagus nerve
ICA
IJV

117
Q

Describe how the vagus nerve branches out

A

Vagus
-> superior laryngeal nerve & recurrent laryngeal nerve

SLN -> external & internal LN

118
Q

Which branch of the vagus nerve loops around which structure?

A

Recurrent LN
Left -> arch of aorta
Right -> right subclavian artery

119
Q

Describe the trajectory of CNXII

A

Passes inferior to the angle of mandible and **CROSSES OVER THE ICA AND ECA to enter the tongue

120
Q

Which CN are found in the cavernous sinus?

A

CN 3,4,6,V1,V2

121
Q

Explain why lesions in the brain tend to cause unilateral CONTRALATERAL muscle weakness

A

Can be explained by the corticospinal tract which decussates at the medulla.

Hence, motor innervation of the left side of the body decussates and goes to the right primary motor cortex.

Infarct to the right PMC will thus cause contralateral left sided muscle weakness

122
Q

Patient has a stroke. How do you expect the distribution of their muscle paralysis to be?

A

Unilateral & contralateral

123
Q

Patient has UMN signs and also presents with aphasia and hemineglect. Where is the lesion likely to be?

A

Cerebrum/cerebral cortex

124
Q

Patient has UMN signs and also presents with ataxia, dysmetria and dysdiadokinesis. Where is the lesion likely to be?

A

Cerebellum

125
Q

What is the most common environmental cause of cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Chronic alcoholism

126
Q

Which sensory pathway is likely affect in a medial brainstem injury and hence what patient present with?

A

DCML

Patient likely to present with loss of sensation of vibration and proprioception in the CONTRALATERAL side of the body

127
Q

Patient presents with ophthalmoplegia, dysphagia and deviation of the tongue. They also complain of loss of sensation of vibration and proprioception in one side of their body.

Where is the lesion?

A

UMN

Brainstem - medial

  1. CN deficits
  2. DCML tract affected
128
Q

Patient presents with miosis, ptosis and anhidrosis. They also complain experiencing a loss of sensation of pain and temperature in one side of their body.

Where is the lesion?

A

UMN

Brainstem - lateral

  1. Sympathetic outflow by superior cervical ganglion
  2. Spinothalamic tract affected
129
Q

Which sensory pathway is likely affect in a lateral brainstem injury and hence what patient present with?

A

Spinothalamic

Loss of sensation of pain and temperature in the contralateral side

130
Q

Patient presents with miosis, ptosis and anhidrosis. What condition do you suspect?

A

Horner’s syndrome

131
Q

What will I expect to see in patients presenting with spinal cord lesions?

A

BILATERAL muscle weakness from the level of lesion down.

LMN signs at the level of lesion and UMN signs for all levels BELOW the lesion

132
Q

If I have an anterior cord lesion, which sensory tract is affected and how will patient present?

A

Spinothalamic tract

Bilateral loss of sensation of pain and temperature from the level of lesion down

133
Q

If I have a posterior cord lesion, which sensory tract is affected and how will patient present?

A

DCML

Bilateral loss of sensation of vibration and proprioception

134
Q

What is the most common environmental cause of posterior cord syndrome?

A

B12 deficiency

135
Q

** What happens if there is a lesion to a lateral half of the spinal cord?

A

Affect both DCML and spinothalamic

Motor (corticospinal) also affected.

**Loss of pain and temperature in the CONTRALATERAL side

IPSILATERAL loss of sensation of vibration and proprioception

136
Q

What are some signs I will sign in cauda equina syndrome?

A
  1. Bilateral weakness in lower limbs
  2. LMN signs - hypotonia & absent reflexes
  3. Fasciculations
  4. Urinary incontinence due to S2-4 involvement
137
Q

What is a sign of peripheral neuropathy?

A

Numbness, tingling and/or weakness with a glove and stocking distribution - the entire hand and feet are affected

138
Q

What is the most common cause of peripheral neuropathy?

A

DIABETES MELLITUS!!!

139
Q

What is a key differentiating symptom of NMJ conditions from the other neurological conditions?

A

Fatigability!!

Movements gets progressively weaker the more it is repeated.

Ocular weakness - drooping eyelids, double vision, difficulty keeping eyes open

140
Q

Name a NMJ disorder and briefly state its pathogenesis

A

Myasthenia gravis

Ach receptor autoantibodies block and damage the Ach receptors

141
Q

Will a patient with NMJ have abnormal or normal reflexes?

A

Normal reflexes

No sensory abnormalities as well (ie. no tingling/numbness)

142
Q

Name some UMN signs

A
  1. Hypertonia
  2. Clasp knife rigidity
  3. Hyper reflex
  4. Upgoing plantars
  5. Protonator drift
143
Q

Name some LMN signs

A
  1. Hypotonia
  2. Guttering (visible and hollow grooves due to severe muscular atrophy)
  3. Absent reflexes
  4. Downgoing plantars
  5. Fasciculations
144
Q

Explain why does fasciculations occur

A

Denervation (loss of nerve supply to the muscle) results in muscle wasting.

Because of this loss, the muscles compensate by becomng hyper excitable -> uncontrollable twitches

145
Q

What is the nutritional deficiency associated with peripheral neuropathy?

A

Vitamin B12 deficiency

146
Q

At which level does the spinal cord end?

A

L1/L2

147
Q

Is the cauda equina part of the spinal cord? Hence, if there is a lesion, will there be UMN or LMN signs?

A

No, it is not part.

Hence it is considered a bundle of peripheral nerves and will have LMN signs

148
Q

Which space in the brain contains CSF?

A

Subarachnoid space between arachnoid and pia maters

149
Q

At which level is lumbar puncture/spinal tap done?

A

L4/5

150
Q

List the sensations transmitted by DCML

A
  1. Vibration
  2. Conscious propriocetion
  3. Fine/discriminative touch
151
Q

List the sensations transmitted by the spinothalamic tract

A
  1. Pain
  2. Temperature
  3. Unconscious proprioception
  4. Crude touch
152
Q

Which part of the spinothalamic tract transmit pain and temperature?

A

Lateral

153
Q

Which part of the spinothalamic tract transmits crude touch and pressure?

A

Anterior

154
Q

** At what level does the spinothalamic tract decussate?

A

At point of entry into spinal cord so decussate at spinal cord

155
Q

** At which level does DCML deccusate?

A

Medulla oblongata

156
Q

What is the function of pyrimidal motor tracts?

A

Transmit information about VOLUNTARY movements from the brain to the effectors

157
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract decussate?

A

Medulla oblongata

Then it descends on contralateral side of spinal cord as lateral corticospinal tract

158
Q

Name the UMN and LMN part of the corticospinal tract respectively

A

UMN: cerebral cortex
LMN: motor nuclei in ventral horn of spinal cord

159
Q

Most LMNs recieve bilateral influence from UMNs, with the exception of:

A
  1. Part of the facial motor nucleus which innervates the lower half of the the fac
    *recall that the lower half of the face recieves only contralateral UMN influence
  2. Hypoglossal nucleus recieves mainly contralateral UMN influence
160
Q

What is the function of extrapyrimidal tracts in motor pathways?

A

Transmit information about involuntary and automatic muscle control (eg. muscle tone, balance, posture and locomotion)

161
Q

Name the 4 extrapyrimidal tracts

A

Reticulospinal
Vestibulospinal
Rubrospinal
Tectospinal

162
Q

Patellar reflex test which nerves?

A

L4/5

163
Q

Achilles reflex test which nerve?

A

S1

164
Q

Which cranial nerve exits from the pons?

A

Trigeminal CN 5

165
Q

Which cranial nerve exits from the midbrain?

A

Oculomotor CN3
Trochlear CN4

166
Q

What does a positive Rinne’s test suggest? (ie. bone > air conduction)

A

Sound is transmitted better within the inner ear than in the external ear canal
=> Conductive hearing loss
=> External/middle ear pathology

167
Q

Patient complains of right hearing loss. Upon conducting Rinne, it is found to be negative (ie. air > bone conduction).

When Weber’s test is done, left ear hears the sound louder than right.

Name the type of pathology

A

Sensioneural hearing loss

Pathology lies within the inner ear or with cochlear nerve transmission.

168
Q

Patient complains of right hearing loss. Upon conducting Rinne, it is found to be positive (bone > air).

When Weber’s test is done, right ear hears the sound louder than left.

Name the type of pathology

A

Conductive hearing loss

Pathology lies within the external or middle ear.

Neuro (7 decks)

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