Analgesics Flashcards

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1
Q

Tissue injury causes release of…

A
  • bradykinin
  • histamine
  • potassium
  • prostaglandins
  • serotonin
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2
Q

Adjucant drugs

A
  • assisst primary drugs in px relief
  • can be NSAIDs, antidepressants, anticonvulsants, corticosteroids
  • Amitriptyline
  • Gabapentin
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3
Q

Schedule I drugs

A
  • highest abuse potential
  • heroin, LSD, marijuana, Psilocybin
  • no accepted medicinal use
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4
Q

Schedule II drugs

A
  • high abuse potential
  • morphine, PCP, cocaine
  • accepted medicinal use w/ restrictions
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5
Q

Schedule III drugs

A
  • medium abuse potential
  • some amphetamines, anabolic steroids, codein w/ aspirin
  • accepted medicinal use
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6
Q

Schedule IV drugs

A
  • low abuse potential
  • Diazepam, Ambien, Xanax
  • accepted medicinal use
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7
Q

Schedule V drugs

A
  • lowest abuse potential
  • OTC prescription drugs containing codeine
  • accepted medicinal use
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8
Q

Opioid analgesics MOA

A

three classes:
- agonists
- agonist-antagonists
- antagonists (non-analgesic) used to reverse effects of opioid (Narcan)

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9
Q

Opioid analgesic agonists MOA

A
  • bind to opioid px receptor in brain
  • cause analgesic response which is a reduction of the px sensation
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10
Q

Opioid analgesic agonist-antagonists MOA

A
  • bind to pain receptor
  • weaker neurological response than a full agonist
  • aka mixed/partial agonists
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11
Q

Opioid analgesic antagonists MOA

A
  • reverse effects of opioids on px receptors
  • bind to px receptor and exert no response
  • aka competitive antagonists
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12
Q

Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is ___ times ___ potent than morphine

A

7 times MORE potent
so 1mg of hydromorphone is equivilant to 7mg morphine

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13
Q

Opioid analgesics contraindications

A
  • severe asthma
    extreme caution in:
  • resp insufficiency
  • elevated ICP
  • morbid obesity
  • sleep apnea
  • Paralytic ileus (paralysis of digestive tract)
  • Pregnancy
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14
Q

Opioid analgesics AE

A
  • CNS depression (then resp depress, the most serious AE)
  • N/V
  • urinary retendion
  • sweating and flushing
  • miosis
  • constipation
  • itching
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15
Q

Opioid Analgesics Toxicity and OD

A
  • Naloxone (Narcan)
  • Naltrexone (ReVia)
  • opioid antagonists should be given in the event of resp depress REGARDLESS of withdrawal sx
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16
Q

Opioid analgesics interactions

A
  • alcohol
  • antihistamines
  • Barbiturates
  • Benzodiazepines
  • MAOIs
  • others
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17
Q

Codeine sulfate

A
  • opioid agonist
  • natural opioid alkaloid from opium
  • Schedule II
  • less effective
  • Ceiling effect (eventually increasing dose does not increase effectiveness)
  • combined w/ acetaminophen = schedule III
  • usually used as an antitussive
  • AE: GI disturbance
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18
Q

Fetanyl

A
  • synthetic opioid
  • schedule II
  • moderate to severe px
  • parenteral injections
  • transdermal patches (Duragesic) for chronic px
  • buccal lozenges (Fentora) on stick (Actiq)
  • 0.1mg Fetanyl IV = 10mg morphine
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19
Q

Carfentanil

A
  • synthetic opioid
  • white powder (resembling cocaine/heroin)
  • mixed with heroin to make it stronger
  • 10,000x stronger than morphine
  • 100x stronger than fetanyl
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20
Q

Hydromorphone (Dialudid)

A
  • very potent
  • schedule II
    Exalgo:
  • extended release form
  • osmotic ER PO
  • hard to crush/inject so lower risk for abuse
  • around the clock px management
  • opioid tolerance
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21
Q

Morphine Sulfate

A
  • naturally occuring alkaloid derived from opium
  • prototype for all opioids
  • schedule II
  • high abuse potential
  • oral, injectable, rectal, or ER forms
  • Embeda is morphine and naltrexone
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22
Q

Methadone Hydrochloride (Dolophine)

A
  • synthetic
  • schedule II
  • # 1 for detox tx of opioid addicts in “methadone maintenance programs”
  • prolonged half-life can cause OD and death
  • can cause dysrhythmias and resp arrest
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23
Q

Oxycodone hydrochloride

A
  • similar to morphine in structure and action
  • Schedule II
  • w/ acetaminophen = Percocet
  • w/ aspirin = Percodan
  • extended or immediate release
  • hydrocodone is a weaker form combined with acetaminophen (Norco)
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24
Q

Opioid analgesics nursing implications

A
  • PO take with food
  • safety measure (like bed rails)
  • tell pt to keep record of px and response to treatment
  • ortho hypo
  • manage constipation
    Withhold if:
  • pt conditions declines
  • abnormal VS
  • RR < 10-12
  • px continues
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25
Q

What does Cyclooxygenase (COX) do in general?

A
  • produce prostaglandins (in response to pain)
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26
Q

COX-1

A
  • maintains homeostasis
  • cause blood-clotting
  • protects mucosa of the stomach
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27
Q

COX-2

A
  • causes px and inflammation
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28
Q

Acetaminophen

A
  • nonopioid
  • COX-1 inhibitor
  • analgesic and antipyretic
  • blocks pain impulses via blocking prostaglandin synthesis
  • for mild to moderate pain and fever
  • good alternative for aspirin
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29
Q

Acetaminophen dosage

A
  • max 3000mg/day for healthy adults
  • max 2000mg/day for older adults and pt w/ liver disease
  • be careful about other medications that may contain acetaminophen
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30
Q

Acetaminophen contraindications and interactions

A
  • liver dysfunction or failure
  • G6PD deficiency (aids RBCs)
  • alcohol
  • hepatotoxic drugs
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31
Q

NSAIDs

A
  • inhibit COX-1 and COX-2
  • analgesic and antipyretic
  • pain, fever, and inflammation
  • N Naproxen (Aleve)
  • S Salicylate Acid (Aspirin)
  • Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin)
  • I Ibuprofen and Indomethacin (Indocin)
  • D Diclofenac (Voltaren
  • K Ketorolac (Toradol)
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32
Q

Baclofen

A
  • skeletal muscle relaxtant
  • AE: drowsiness, dizziness, confusion, N, constipation, weakness
  • abrupt discontinuation: seizures and hallucinations
  • excreted through kidneys (caution)
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33
Q

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

A
  • skeletal muscle relaxant
  • AE: dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth, retention, serotonin syndrome (w/ antidepressants), increased sedation (with depressants)
  • Caution: retention, CA glaucoma, increased intraocular pressure, anticholinergics, antidepressants and
    CNS depressants
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34
Q

Purines

A
  • what the body breaks down to produce uric acid, which builds up and causes gout
  • purines found in/promoted by red meats, some seafood, alcohol (especially beer), and fructose
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35
Q

Allopurinol

A
  • antigout
  • reduces production of uric acid\
  • metabolized in liver
  • excreted in kidneys
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36
Q

Anesthetics

A
  • reduce/eliminate px by depressing nerve function in CNS and PNS
37
Q

General anesthesia

A

complete loss of consciousness and reflexes

38
Q

Local anesthesia

A
  • no paralysis of respiratory function
  • anesthetized nerves eliminate pain specific to those nerves
39
Q

Balanced anesthesia

A
  • general anesthetics and adjuncts
  • less of each is needed
  • more balanced and controlled state
40
Q

Nitrous oxide

A
  • “laughing gas”
  • only gas used for general anesthesia
  • but the weakest general anesthetic
  • dental procedures
  • high concentrations: post op N/V
41
Q

Sevoflurane (Ultane)

A
  • widely used, especially in surgery
  • inhaled
  • general anesthesia
  • nonirritating to airway
  • facilitates induction of unconsious state, especially in peds pt
42
Q

Moderate sedation

A
  • aka conscious/procedural
  • doesn’t cause complete loss of consciousness
  • doesn’t USUALLY cause resp arrest
  • a combination of IV benzo/propofol + opiate analgesic
  • reduce benzo dose by 30%-50% when used w/ opioid
  • use of alcohol may indicate increased benzo dose
  • patient will not recall procedure
43
Q

moderate sedation indications and implications

A
  • pt can still maintain airway and follow commands
  • diagnostic and minor surgical procedures
  • fast recovery
  • safer than general anesthesia
  • advanced cardiac life support
  • intubution on standby
44
Q

Local anesthetics MOA

A

In this order:
1. autonomic activity lost
2. pain/sensory functions lost
3. motor activity lost
recovery occurs in reverse

45
Q

Local anesthetics indications

A
  • surgical, dental, diagnostic procedures
  • treatment of some chronic px
  • spinal anesthesia: surgery and childbirth
46
Q

examples of local anesthetics

A
  • LidoCAINE
  • BupivaCAINE
  • PriloCAINE
  • ProCAINE
47
Q

transdermal Lidocaine

A
  • topical anesthetic
  • indicated in postherpetic neuralgia (shingles)
  • no longer than 12h
  • AE: skin irritation
48
Q

Propofol

A
  • parenteral general anesthetic
  • induction and maintenance
  • sedation for mechanical ventilation (ICU)
  • lower doses for moderate sedation
  • lowers BP and supressed breathing
  • monitor cardiac function and breathing at all times
49
Q
  • highest abuse potential
  • heroin, LSD, marijuana, Psilocybin
  • no accepted medicinal use
A

Schedule I drugs

50
Q
  • high abuse potential
  • morphine, PCP, cocaine
  • accepted medicinal use w/ restrictions
A

Schedule II drugs

51
Q
  • medium abuse potential
  • some amphetamines, anabolic steroids, codein w/ aspirin
  • accepted medicinal use
A

Schedule III drugs

52
Q
  • low abuse potential
  • Diazepam, Ambien, Xanax
  • accepted medicinal use
A

Schedule IV drugs

53
Q
  • lowest abuse potential
  • OTC prescription drugs containing codeine
  • accepted medicinal use
A

Schedule V drugs

54
Q
  • bind to opioid px receptor in brain
  • cause analgesic response which is a reduction of the px sensation
A

Opioid analgesic agonists MOA

55
Q
  • bind to pain receptor
  • weaker neurological response than a full agonist
  • aka mixed/partial agonists
A

Opioid analgesic agonist-antagonists MOA

56
Q
  • reverse effects of opioids on px receptors
  • bind to px receptor and exert no response
  • aka competitive antagonists
A

Opioid analgesic antagonists MOA

57
Q

7 times MORE potent
so 1mg of hydromorphone is equivilant to 7mg morphine

A

Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is ___ times ___ potent than morphine

58
Q
  • severe asthma
    extreme caution in:
  • resp insufficiency
  • elevated ICP
  • morbid obesity
  • sleep apnea
  • Paralytic ileus (paralysis of digestive tract)
  • Pregnancy
A

Opioid analgesics contraindications

59
Q
  • CNS depression (then resp depress, the most serious AE)
  • N/V
  • urinary retendion
  • sweating and flushing
  • miosis
  • constipation
  • itching
A

Opioid analgesics AE

60
Q
  • alcohol
  • antihistamines
  • Barbiturates
  • Benzodiazepines
  • MAOIs
  • others
A

Opioid analgesics interactions

61
Q
  • agonist
  • natural opioid alkaloid from opium
  • Schedule II
  • less effective
  • Ceiling effect (eventually increasing dose does not increase effectiveness)
  • combined w/ acetaminophen = schedule III
  • usually used as an antitussive
  • AE: GI disturbance
A

Codeine sulfate

62
Q
  • synthetic opioid
  • schedule II
  • moderate to severe px
  • parenteral injections
  • transdermal patches (Duragesic) for chronic px
  • buccal lozenges (Fentora) on stick (Actiq)
  • 0.1mg ________ IV = 10mg morphine
A

Fetanyl

63
Q
  • synthetic opioid
  • white powder (resembling cocaine/heroin)
  • mixed with heroin to make it stronger
  • 10,000x stronger than morphine
  • 100x stronger than fetanyl
A

Carfentanil

64
Q
  • very potent
  • schedule II
    Exalgo:
  • extended release form
  • osmotic ER PO
  • hard to crush/inject so lower risk for abuse
  • around the clock px management
  • opioid tolerance
A

Hydromorphone (Dialudid)

65
Q
  • naturally occuring alkaloid derived from opium
  • prototype for all opioids
  • schedule II
  • high abuse potential
  • oral, injectable, rectal, or ER forms
  • Embeda is _____ and naltrexone
A

Morphine Sulfate

66
Q
  • synthetic
  • schedule II
  • # 1 for detox tx of opioid addicts in “________ maintenance programs”
  • prolonged half-life can cause OD and death
  • can cause dysrhythmias and resp arrest
A

Methadone Hydrochloride (Dolophine)

67
Q
  • similar to morphine in structure and action
  • Schedule II
  • w/ acetaminophen = Percocet
  • w/ aspirin = Percodan
  • extended or immediate release
  • hydrocodone is a weaker form combined with acetaminophen (Norco)
A

Oxycodone hydrochloride

68
Q
  • PO take with food
  • safety measure (like bed rails)
  • tell pt to keep record of px and response to treatment
  • ortho hypo
  • manage constipation
    Withhold if:
  • pt conditions declines
  • abnormal VS
  • RR < 10-12
  • px continues
A

Opioid analgesics nursing implications

69
Q
  • produce prostaglandins (in response to pain)
A

What does Cyclooxygenase (COX) do in general?

70
Q
  • maintains homeostasis
  • cause blood-clotting
  • protects mucosa of the stomach
A

COX-1

71
Q
  • causes px and inflammation
A

COX-2

72
Q
  • nonopioid
  • COX-1 inhibitor
  • analgesic and antipyretic
  • blocks pain impulses via blocking prostaglandin synthesis
  • for mild to moderate pain and fever
  • good alternative for aspirin
A

Acetaminophen

73
Q
  • liver dysfunction or failure
  • G6PD deficiency (aids RBCs)
  • alcohol
  • hepatotoxic drugs
A

Acetaminophen contraindications and interactions

74
Q
  • inhibit COX-1 and COX-2
  • analgesic and antipyretic
  • pain, fever, and inflammation
  • N Naproxen (Aleve)
  • S Salicylate Acid (Aspirin)
  • Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin)
  • I Ibuprofen and Indomethacin (Indocin)
  • D Diclofenac (Voltaren
  • K Ketorolac (Toradol)
A

NSAIDs

75
Q
  • skeletal muscle relaxtant
  • AE: drowsiness, dizziness, confusion, N, constipation, weakness
  • abrupt discontinuation: seizures and hallucinations
  • excreted through kidneys (caution)
A

Baclofen

76
Q
  • AE: dizziness, drowsiness, dry mouth, retention, serotonin syndrome (w/ antidepressants), increased sedation (with depressants)
  • Caution: retention, CA glaucoma, increased intraocular pressure, anticholinergics, antidepressants and
    CNS depressants
A

Cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril)

77
Q
  • what the body breaks down to produce uric acid, which builds up and causes gout
  • purines found in/promoted by red meats, some seafood, alcohol (especially beer), and fructose
A

Purines

78
Q
  • antigout
  • reduces production of uric acid
  • metabolized in liver
  • excreted in kidneys
A

Allopurinol

79
Q

complete loss of consciousness and reflexes

A

General anesthesia

80
Q
  • no paralysis of respiratory function
  • anesthetized nerves eliminate pain specific to those nerves
A

Local anesthesia

81
Q
  • “laughing gas”
  • only gas used for general anesthesia
  • but the weakest general anesthetic
  • dental procedures
  • high concentrations: post op N/V
A

Nitrous oxide

82
Q
  • widely used, especially in surgery
  • inhaled
  • general anesthesia
  • nonirritating to airway
  • facilitates induction of unconsious state, especially in peds pt
A

Sevoflurane (Ultane)

83
Q
  • aka conscious/procedural
  • doesn’t cause complete loss of consciousness
  • doesn’t USUALLY cause resp arrest
  • a combination of IV benzo/propofol + opiate analgesic
  • reduce benzo dose by 30%-50% when used w/ opioid
  • use of alcohol may indicate increased benzo dose
  • patient will not recall procedure
A

Moderate sedation

84
Q
  • pt can still maintain airway and follow commands
  • diagnostic and minor surgical procedures
  • fast recovery
  • safer than general anesthesia
  • advanced cardiac life support
  • intubution on standby
A

moderate sedation indications and implications

85
Q

In this order:
1. autonomic activity lost
2. pain/sensory functions lost
3. motor activity lost
recovery occurs in reverse

A

Local anesthetics MOA

86
Q
  • surgical, dental, diagnostic procedures
  • treatment of some chronic px
  • spinal anesthesia: surgery and childbirth
A

Local anesthetics indications

87
Q
  • Lidocaine
  • Bupivacaine
  • Prilocaine
  • Procaine
A

examples of local anesthetics

88
Q
  • topical anesthetic
  • indicated in postherpetic neuralgia (shingles)
  • no longer than 12h
  • AE: skin irritation
A

transdermal Lidocaine

89
Q
  • parenteral general anesthetic
  • induction and maintenance
  • sedation for mechanical ventilation (ICU)
  • lower doses for moderate sedation
  • lowers BP and supressed breathing
  • monitor cardiac function and breathing at all times
A

Propofol