Anaesthetic drug Flashcards

1
Q

Halothane

A

INHALED anaesthetic (GA)

  • First modern INHALED anaesthetic, standard for comparison
  • VOLATILE liquid, non-flammable and non-irritating
  • Potent (MAC 0.75%)
  • MEDIUM rate of onset and recovery
  • Little or NO analgesia until unconsciousness supervenes

• Causes RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION dose-dependently
• DECREASE B.P. due to DEPRESSION of CARDIAC OUTPUT
BRADYCARDIA and ARRHYTHMIA may also occur leading to hypotension and dysarrhythmia
• RELAXES skeletal muscle and potentiates skeletal muscle relaxants
• May lead to halothane-associated HEPATITIS

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2
Q

Isoflurane

A

Isoflurane (Inhaled GA)

  • Pungent smell
  • Potent (MAC 1.4%)
  • MEDIUM rate of onset and recovery
  • Similar to halothane with less hypotension and arrhythmia
  • Causes RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION dose-dependently
  • Decreases B.P. due mainly to decrease in systemic vascular resistance
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3
Q

Sevoflurane

A

Sevoflurane (inhaled GA)

  • Potent (MAC 2%)
  • More RAPID rate of onset and recovery
  • Metabolized in the LIVER to release inorganic fluoride, also NEPHROTOXIC
  • UNSTABLE when exposed to carbon dioxide absorbents in anaesthetic machines, degrading to a compound that is potentially nephrotoxic
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4
Q

Nitrous oxide

A

Nitrous oxide (N2O) (GAS GA)

  • Odourless gas
  • Non-flammable
  • RAPID onset and recovery but LACK POTENCY (MAC 105%)

• Nitrous oxide alone gives ANALGESIA and AMNESIA but NOT complete unconsciousness or surgical anaesthesia

  • Patients undergoing GA receive nitrous oxide to SUPPLEMENT the analgesic effects of primary anaesthetic
  • When used alone: as analgesic agent (eg. dentistry, during delivery*)

• Major concern: postoperative nausea and vomiting

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5
Q

Thiopentone (sodium thiopental) + MOA

A

IV GA

  • A barbiturate with extremely high lipid solubility
  • Enters the brain easily and rapidly - rapid onset of action (unconsciousness occurs 10-20sec after IV)

• Single Dose: Re-distributes to less vascularized tissues – ultra-short duration of action
(Injected alone & w/o inhale agents, patients wake up ~10min)

  • Multiple doses/infusions: duration of action depends on clearance
  • Slow elimination, large Vd, active metabolite (PENTOBARBITAL), liver cirrhosis –> can result in prolongation of clinical action.

• Extensively bound to plasma protein
- small amount of free drug can be excreted by glomerular filtration + reabsorption in tubules.
• Less than 1% excreted unchanged

MOA
• Cause CNS depression by potentiating the action of the neurotransmitter GABA on the GABAA receptor-gated chloride ion channels

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6
Q

Propofol

A

IV GA

Propofol*
• the most common IV anaesthetic used in Singapore – (ready made in injectable form, no need to re-constitute (unlike thiopentone)

  • Induction rate is similar to thiopentone, and recovery is more rapid (patients move sooner and feel better)
  • Used both for induction and maintenance
  • Rapid onset (unconsciousness develops within ~60sec) • Short duration of action (~3-5min following single injection) because rapid redistribution from brain to other tissues
  • Extensively used in “day surgery”
  • needs continuous, low-dose infusion for extended effects
  • Reduced postoperative vomiting (may be related to an antiemetic action)
  • Significant cardiovascular effect during induction (decrease b.p. and negative inotropic) – HYPOTENSION
  • To be used with caution in elderly patients, patients with compromised cardiac function, hypovolemic patients
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7
Q

Ketamine

A

IV GA
Ketamine

  • racemic (potency: S- > R+); I/M, oral, rectal routes
  • Produces a state known as dissociative anaesthesia ie. patient feels dissociated from environment
  • Can cause SEDATION, IMMOBILITY, ANALGESIA, and AMNESIA
  • Rapid induction; Responsiveness to pain is lost
  • Metabolized in LIVER to LESS active metabolite, excreted in urine & bile
  • Large Vd, rapid clearance –> suitable for continuous infusion without the lengthening in duration of action
  • Unpleasant psychologic reactions (HALLUCINATION DISTURBING DREAM, DELIRIUM) may occur during recovery from ketamine
  • Risks of psychologic adverse reactions may be reduced with premedication of diazepam or midazolam

• It is the ONLY IV anaesthetic that possess ANALGESIC property
 hence very popular in 3rd world country as the only anaesthetic, due to the lack of other anaesthetic agents

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8
Q

Benzodiazepine: Midazolam (I/V) AS adjunct

A

Used for ANXIOLYSIS , AMNESIA and SEDATION prior to induction of anaesthesia (perioperative period) or Used for sedation during procedures not requiring GA

  • Rapid onset (unconsciousness develops in 80sec; peak ~2min; sedates ~30min)
  • Metabolized in liver (elderly, alcoholic, liver cirhosis tend to be more sensitive, slower recovery)
  • Midazolam (benzodiazepine group of drugs) usually has a high therapeutic index –> it has relatively lesser cardiovascular & respiratory depressing effect compare to other IV anaesthetics.
  • Side effects are compounded by concurrent usage of other agents
  • Adverse effects can be minimized by injecting midazolam SLOWLY (over 2 or more minutes) and by waiting another 2 or more minutes for full effects to develop before dosing again
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9
Q

α2 Adrenergics: Dexmedetomidine (I/V)

as adjunct

A
  • Highly selective α2 adrenergic receptor agonist
  • Short term sedation (<24hrs)
  • Sedation and analgesic effects (doesn’t produce reliable GA even at maximal doses)

• Little respiratory depression

  • Tolerable decrease in blood pressure and heart rate
  • Undesirable side effects: nausea, dry mouth, hypotension, bradycardia
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10
Q

Analgesics:

as adjunct

A

• Minor surgical procedures –> COX-2 inhibitors and paracetamol

  • Opioids (Fentanyl, morphine) – perioperative period
  • Agonist activity at µ-opioid receptors

• Relative potency to morphine [duration of action]: sufentanil (1000x) [intermediate ~15min]
remifentanil ( 300x) [ultra-short ~10min]
fentanyl ( 80x) [intermediate ~30min]
alfentanil ( 15x) [intermediate ~20min]

  • Choice – based primarily on duration of action
  • Metabolized in liver (except remifentanil is hydrolyzed by tissue & plasma esterases)

• Excretion: urine, bile

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11
Q

Neuromuscular Blockers as adjunct

A

Neuromuscular Blockers
• Depolarizing: Succinylcholine
• Non-depolarizing (eg. vecuronium)

  • Administered during induction of anaesthesia to relax muscles of jaw, neck, airway –> facilitate laryngoscopy and endotracheal intubation
  • Aids many surgical procedures and provide additional insurance of immobility

• Note: barbiturates will precipitate when mixed with muscle relaxants –> should be allowed to clear from the IV line prior to injection of muscle relaxant

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12
Q

Cocaine

A

(2) M

ester LA

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13
Q

Procaine

A

procaine (1) S

ester LA

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14
Q

tetracaine

A

tetracaine (16) L

ester LA

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15
Q

benzocaine

A

benzocaine (surface only)

ester LA

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16
Q

Lidocaine

A

Lidocaine (4) M

amide LA

17
Q

Mepivacaine

A

Mepivacaine (2) M

amide LA

18
Q

Bupivacaine

A

Bupivacaine (16) L

Amide LA

19
Q

Etidocaine

A

Etidocaine (16) L

Amide LA

20
Q

ropivacaine

A

ropivacaine (16) L

amide LA

21
Q

prilocaine

A

prilocaine (3) M

amide LA