Anaesthesia Questions Flashcards

1
Q

All of the following are correct with respect to prevention of systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics EXCEPT a. Incremental dosing b. Aspiration prior to injection c. Dosage fragmentation d. Addition of vasoconstrictor e. Prophylactic dantrolene is indicated

A

e

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2
Q

A 4 year old boy is scheduled for herniotomy as a day case. Pre-operative preparation will include a. Fasting to clear fluids for at least 6 hours b. Intramuscular atropine c. Group & cross-match one unit of blood d. EMLA cream application e. Intramuscular promethazine

A

d

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3
Q

Which statement is correct concerning the maximum safe dose of the local anaesthetics agent? a. Plain ropivacaine 1mg/kg b. Lidocaine with adrenaline 5mg/kg c. Plain bupivacaine 2mg/kg d. Bupivacaine with adrenaline 3.5mg/kg e. Plain lidocaine 2mg/kg

A

c

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4
Q

A 32 year old parturient is scheduled for emergency caesarean section on account of severe pre-eclampsia. A subarachnoid block is chosen. Which of the following is true regarding this technique? a. Plain bupivacaine is the drug of choice b. Ephedrine is indicated in the treatment of hypotension c. 5mls of local anaesthetic is sufficient to attain an adequate block d. Hypotension is effectively prevented by crystalloid preload e. A block to T10 is adequate

A

b

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5
Q

Which of the following airway devices is appropriate for a 4 year old boy scheduled for herniotomy as a day case? a. Endotracheal tube size 3.5mm b. Laryngeal mask airway size 1.5 c. Endotracheal tube size 4.5mm d. Laryngeal mask airway size 2 e. Endotracheal tube size 4.0mm

A

b

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6
Q

A 4 year old child has just undergone adenotonsillectomy. Post-operatively the child is noticed to be restless and sweating with stridulous breathing. Airway obstruction is suspected. The possible causes of airway obstruction in the patient include all of the following EXCEPT a. Forgotten throat pack b. Airway oedema c. Aspiration of blood clot d. Laryngeal spasm e. Bronchospasm

A

e

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7
Q

Which of the following statement is INCORRECT regarding atropine? a. It can be used to treat bradycardia at a dose of 0.02mg/kg b. It is an anticholinergic c. It can be used to prevent bradycardia at a dose of 0.01mg/kg d. It should be given with neostigmine when reversing residual muscle relaxant e. It should be given after neostigmine when reversing residual muscle relaxant

A

e

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8
Q

The estimated blood volume of a 7 day old full term neonate is a. 255 mls b. 215 mls c. 415mls d. 355 mls e. 315 mls

A

e

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9
Q

A 4 year old boy is scheduled for herniotomy as a day case. His expected weight will be a. 14kg b. 20kg c. 16kg d. 22kg e. 18kg

A

c

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10
Q

A 24 year old lady fell from a height 3 hours prior to presentation in the accident and emergency department of your hospital, with history of loss of consciousness and fracture to the right femur. On examination, the Glasgow coma scale was 6/15. CT scan revealed subdural haematoma. The immediate management includes all of the following EXCEPT a. Endotracheal intubation b. Mechanical ventilation c. Oxygen therapy d. Nutritional Therapy e. Emergency evacuation of blood clot from the brain

A

d

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11
Q

Which muscle relaxant is best avoided in this 60yr old known hypertensive and diabetic undergoing exploratory laparotomy? a. Suxamethonium because of hyperkalaemic effects b. Rocuronium because of its sympathetic activity c. Atracurium because it releases histamine d. Vecuronium because it causes hyperglycaemia e. Pancuronium because of sympathetic activity

A

e

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12
Q

A 26 year old asthmatic man is involved in a fight shortly after a large meal of pounded yam. He sustains a blunt abdominal injury with suspected ruptured spleen. His blood pressure is 90/60mmHg and his pulse rate is 120bpm. He is scheduled for an emergency splenectomy. One precaution that should be taken during induction of general anaesthesia for exploratory laparotomy is a. Administration of fundal pressure b. Administration of midazolam c. Application of cricoid pressure d. Administration of ketamine e. Administration of adequate analgesia

A

c

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13
Q

Which of the following management strategies is recommended to prevent further toxin release? a. Wound debridement b. Intravenous metronidazole c. Tetanus toxoid d. Skin grafting e. Intravenous midazolam

A

a

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14
Q

Which statement is INCORRECT regarding preparation for anaesthesia of a 60 year old controlled hypertensive diabetic patient scheduled for exploratory laparotomy for a large ovarian tumour? a. Premedication with Ranitidine may be indicated b. Fasting guidelines should be limited to 4hours to prevent diabetic ketoacidosis c. An anxiolytic premedication is indicated d. An electrocardiogram is mandatory e. Diastolic blood pressure should be less than 110mmHg to minimize cardiovascular complications

A

b

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15
Q

Which of the following describes the airway anatomy of this neonate? a. The larynx is cylindrical in shape b. The epiglottis is short and stiff c. The narrowest part of the larynx is at the level of the cricoid cartilage d. The larynx is high and anterior situated at C1-C3 e. There is equal bifurcation of the trachea at 40

A

c

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16
Q

Regarding Mapleson breathing systems, the following are true EXCEPT a. Mapleson E has no reservoir bag b. Mapleson A is identical to Magills’ attachment c. Mapleson A is best for controlled ventilation d. Mapleson F is lightweight and compact e. Mapleson D is the best for controlled ventilation

A

e

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17
Q

The following are true regarding general anaesthesia for caesarean section EXCEPT a. General anaesthesia is associated with less blood loss than regional anaesthesia b. A rapid sequence induction is always necessary c. There is a risk of maternal awareness during the surgery d. The obstetric patient is a potential difficult airway e. Anaesthetic agents cross the placental barrier

A

a

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18
Q

A 60 year old controlled hypertensive, diabetic woman is scheduled for exploratory laparotomy on account of a large ovarian tumour. Which of the following is NOT a goal of pre-operative assessment in this patient? a. To ensure fitness for surgery b. To prescribe antibiotics c. To prescribe premedication d. To allay anxiety e. To obtain consent

A

b

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19
Q

The intravenous induction agent to avoid in a hypertensive diabetic patient is a. Thiopentone because of its anticonvulsant property b. Midazolam because of its cardiovascular depression c. Ketamine because of its sympathomimetic effect d. Etomidate because of its hyperglycaemic properties e. Propofol because of exaggerated hypotension

A

c

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20
Q

A 26 year old woman in 2nd stage of labour requests an epidural for labour analgesia. Epidural analgesia during labour is contraindicated in parturients with a. Obesity b. Previous myomectomy c. Previous Caesarean section d. Documented Neurological deficits e. Fixed cardiac output state

A

e

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21
Q

During institution of an epidural for labour analgesia, the patient develops convulsions. Which of the following is INCORRECT? a. You have given a total spinal b. You will give oxygen c. You will give a vasopressor d. You will give sodium thiopentone e. You will finish the injection

A

e

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22
Q

A 4 year old child is scheduled for adenotonsillectomy. Intra-operative complications which could occur during this surgery include all of the following EXCEPT a. Accidental extubation b. Inaccessibility of patient c. Obstruction of the tracheal tube d. Hyperthermia e. Venous air embolism

A

e

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23
Q

The correct assessment of a 60 year old controlled hypertensive, diabetic woman scheduled for exploratory laparotomy on account of a large ovarian tumour is: a. ASA I patient for SRC III procedure b. ASA IV patient for SRC IV procedure c. ASA II patient for SRC V procedure d. ASA III patient for SCR I Procedure e. ASA II patient for SRC IV Procedure

A

e

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24
Q

Which statement is true regarding oxygen delivery devices? a. A face mask with reservoir bag can deliver up to 100% oxygen if the flow rate is 6L/min b. A flow rate of 6L/min is appropriate for nasal prongs c. At 6L/min a simple face mask will deliver up to 50% oxygen d. The FiO2 of a Venturi mask depends on the flow rate and size of orifice e. The efficiency of the simple face mask is independent of the patient effort

A

d

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25
Q

The most appropriate airway device for a 7 day old baby is a. Laryngeal mask airway size 2 b. Endotracheal tube size 3.5mm c. Endotracheal tube size 4.0mm d. Laryngeal mask airway size 1.5 e. Endotracheal tube size 4.5mm

A

d

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26
Q

Standard monitoring which should be in place during anaesthesia in any patient scheduled for major surgery include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Oxygen saturation at least every 5 minutes b. Continuous capnography c. Blood pressure monitoring at least every 5 minutes d. Urine output every hour e. Continuous presence of the Anaesthetist.

A

a

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27
Q

An inhalational induction with halothane is planned for a 7-day-old full-term neonate scheduled for surgery. All are true concerning Halothane EXCEPT: a. It increases cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure b. It has no effect on the bronchioles c. It has a pleasant effect d. It has a MAC of 0.75 indicating potency e. It sensitises the heart to catecholamines in the presence of hypoxia and hypercapnia.

A

d

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28
Q

Which of the following statements regarding arterial blood gas analysis (ABG) is true? a. A pH greater than 7.35 is indicative of acidosis b. A PaCO2 less than 14kPa is indicative of hypoxia c. A blood sample is collected into an EDTA bottle d. A PaCO2 less than 35mmHg is indicative of respiratory acidosis e. A PaCO2 greater than 45mmHg is indicative of respiratory acidosis.

A

e

29
Q

Which of the following statements regarding local anaesthetic agents is INCORRECT? a. Ropivacaine causes more sensory than motor block b. Prilocaine causes methaemoglobinaemia in doses >200mg c. Bupivacaine is more cardio-toxic than lignocaine d. Prilocaine and lignocaine are contraindicated in IVRA e. EMLA consists of a 5:50 mixture of 2.5% lignocaine and 2.5% prilocaine.

A

d

30
Q

Which induction agent would be most appropriate for a patient with suspected ruptured spleen with blood pressure of 90/60mmHg and pulse rate of 120bpm scheduled for emergency splenectomy? a. Isoflurane b. Propofol c. Ketamine d. Sodium thiopentone e. Halothane.

A

c

31
Q

Which of the following statements regarding fluid balance in a full-term neonate is INCORRECT? a. 60 drops from a burette equals 1ml of fluid b. Fasting guidelines should be 4 hours to breast milk c. They are unable to handle large sodium loads d. 5% dextrose in water is appropriate maintenance fluid e. Maintenance fluids should be 4ml/kg/hr.

A

d

32
Q

In a 4-year-old boy scheduled for herniotomy as a day case, adequate intra-operative analgesia can be provided by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Oral paracetamol b. Caudal anaesthesia with bupivacaine c. Caudal anaesthesia with ropivacaine d. Intramuscular diclofenac e. Intravenous fentanyl.

A

a

33
Q

Side effects of opioids include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Pruritus b. Diarrhoea c. Chest wall rigidity d. Vomiting e. Sedation.

A

b

34
Q

Accurate nerve location for regional nerve block is best achieved by the following: a. Anatomical landmark b. Direct visualization c. Paraesthesia d. Motor evoked response e. Ultrasound.

A

e

35
Q

A 4-year-old child has undergone adenotonsillectomy. Post-operatively the child is noticed to be restless, sweating with stridulous breathing. Airway obstruction is suspected. The immediate line of management is: a. Ventilator assistance and cooling b. Ventilator assistance and analgesia c. Ensure airway patency and ventilator assistance d. Ensure airway patency and analgesia e. Ensure airway patency and cooling.

A

c

36
Q

Further resuscitation of a neonate with an Apgar score of 5 at 1 minute will include all of the following EXCEPT: a. Tracheal suctioning for aspiration of thick meconium b. Nasogastric tube insertion to prevent aspiration c. Cannulation of femoral vein for drug administration d. Drying and covering the neonate to prevent hypothermia e. Administration of vitamin K.

A

b

37
Q

The pulse oximeter comprises one of the minimum standards of monitoring in anaesthesia. Which of the following DOES NOT result in inaccuracies with this equipment? a. Excessive ambient light b. Venous pulsation c. Presence of sickle cell haemoglobinopathy d. Nail polish e. Presence of carboxyhaemoglobin.

A

c

38
Q

The indication for admission into ICU in a trauma patient with loss of consciousness, fracture femur, and GCS of 6/15 is: a. GCS of 6/15 b. Blood loss in excess of one litre c. Urine output of 1-1.5 mls/kg/hour d. Hypotension of 90/50 mmHg e. Hypothermia.

A

a

39
Q

Regarding epidural anaesthesia, which one of these factors DOES NOT affect the height of the block? a. The age of the patient b. The position of the patient c. The site of injection d. The volume of solution injected e. The site of the intravertebral foramina.

A

e

40
Q

A 4-year-old boy has just undergone herniotomy as a day case. The following criteria must be fulfilled before he can be discharged home EXCEPT: a. Has an accompanying parent or guardian b. Has passed urine c. Minimal blood loss d. Minimal pain e. Has eaten a meal.

A

e

41
Q

A 4-year-old child is undergoing adenotonsillectomy. During surgery, the surgeon intends to infiltrate the surgical site with adrenaline solution. Which statement regarding adrenaline infiltration is correct? a. Hypocapnia aggravates arrhythmias due to adrenaline administration in the presence of halothane b. High dose adrenaline may cause hypoxia in the presence of sevoflurane c. The maximum safe concentration of adrenaline during halothane anaesthesia is 1:80,000 d. High dose adrenaline may cause myocardial depression in the presence of halothane e. The maximum safe concentration of adrenaline during halothane anaesthesia is 1:100,000.

A

e

42
Q

An elderly patient undergoing exploratory laparotomy is noted to be hypothermic after 3 hours of surgery. Core temperature would have been best measured at which site? a. Middle of the forehead b. Axilla c. Oro-pharynx d. Rectum e. Lower third of the oesophagus.

A

e

43
Q

A 4-year-old boy is scheduled for herniotomy as a day case. Induction of anaesthesia may be achieved by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Intravenous Propofol b. Intravenous Thiopentone c. Inhalational Isoflurane d. Inhalational Sevoflurane e. Inhalational Halothane.

A

c

44
Q

All the following help to confirm correct placement of the tracheal tube EXCEPT: a. Absence of gurgling in epigastrium b. Calculated length of tracheal tube c. Sustained capnography tracing d. Equal and bilateral air entry e. Equal and bilateral chest excursion.

A

b

45
Q

A 7-day-old neonate with a post-conceptual age of 41 weeks and weighing 3.5kg is scheduled for laparotomy under general anaesthesia. Which of the following correctly describes this neonate? a. Low birth weight b. Pre-term c. Extreme pre-term d. Full term e. Post-term.

A

d

46
Q

Which of the following information CANNOT be obtained from capnography? a. Oesophageal intubation b. Adequacy of ventilation c. Rebreathing due to exhausted soda lime d. Airway pressure e. Respiratory rate.

A

d

47
Q

A 32-year-old primip with eclampsia is undergoing an emergency Caesarean section. She delivers a neonate with an Apgar score of 5 at 1 minute. The most important step when resuscitating this compromised newborn is to: a. Stabilise heart rate b. Perform tactile stimulation c. Ventilate the lungs d. Expand the circulating blood volume e. Keep warm.

A

c

48
Q

In the Mallampati test to assess ease of intubation, all the following are true EXCEPT: a. In class 4 only the hard palate is seen b. In class 1 the soft palate, uvula and faucial pillars are seen c. In class 2 the soft palate and the faucial pillars are seen d. In class 1 the soft palate and the uvula are seen e. In class 3 the soft palate is seen.

A

e

49
Q

A 4-year-old boy is scheduled for herniotomy as a day case. The following condition precludes him from being a day case EXCEPT: a. Asthma b. Metabolic disorders c. Undiagnosed cardiac murmur d. Sickle cell disease e. Sleep apnoea.

A

a

50
Q

The most appropriate breathing system for a full-term neonate undergoing surgery is: a. Bains circuit b. Paediatric circle c. Magils attachment d. Rendell Baker e. Mapleson F

A

e

51
Q

Which statement is applicable concerning the Electrocardiograph (ECG) in place? a. It will give a good indication of the cardiac output b. ST segment abnormalities may indicate myocardial ischaemia c. it will display the pulse rate d. Electrodes are best placed on the muscle e. A 2 lead ECG is sufficient for monitoring

A

b

52
Q

Post-operative pain management after a laparotomy is best achieved using: a. intravenous regional analgesia b. intravenous NSAIDS c. intermittent intramuscular opioids d. opioid infusion e. patient controlled analgesia

A

e

53
Q

A 26-year-old woman presents at the labour ward in the second stage of labour. What segments will need to be blocked in order to achieve satisfactory analgesia for delivery? a. T6-T10 b. L2-L3 c. T10-L1 d. S2-S4 e. L1-L5

A

c

54
Q

The correct sequence of Rapid sequence induction is: a. Application of cricoid pressure, administration of suxamethonium, administration of induction agent, preoxygenation, and endotracheal intubation b. Administration of suxamethonium, administration of induction agent, preoxygenation, application of cricoid pressure and Endotracheal intubation c. Administration of induction agent, application of cricoid pressure, preoxygenation, administration of suxamethonium, and endotracheal intubation d. Preoxygenation, administration of induction agent, application of cricoid pressure, administration of suxamethonium, and Endotracheal intubation e. Preoxygenation, administration of induction agent, administration of Suxamethonium, application of cricoid pressure, and Endotracheal intubation

A

e

55
Q

A 24-year-old lady fell from a height and sustained a fracture to the right femur. Which regional technique will be appropriate for fixation of this fracture? a. femoral nerve block b. 3-in-1 block c. Biers block d. Combined sciatic and femoral nerve block e. Combined popliteal and femoral nerve block

A

d

56
Q

Which statement regarding temperature control in a full-term neonate is INCORRECT? a. The thermo-neutral control in this neonate is approximately 32-43 degrees Celsius b. Their thermoregulatory centre is immature c. all gases should be humidified to prevent hypothermia d. The small body surface area to weight ratio encourages heat loss e. Non-shivering thermogenesis is an ineffective way of generating heat in neonates

A

a

57
Q

The following are side effects of suxamethonium EXCEPT: a. Hypernatraemia b. Myalgia c. Prolonged apnoea d. Raised intra-ocular pressure e. Bradycardia

A

a

58
Q

Which of the following is correct as regards the use of Glasgow coma scales in the assessment of the level of consciousness of the patient? a. Abnormal Flexion or decorticate posture - 2 b. Inappropriate conversation – 4 c. Confused conversation - 2 d. Localizes pain - 5 e. Open eyes to pain - 4

A

e

59
Q

Which statement is TRUE of the Bains’ circuit? a. It may function as a Mapleson C b. It can be used in paediatrics c. Fresh Gas Flow (FGF) occurs through the outer tube d. It requires FGF=MV to prevent rebreathing in spontaneous respiration e. Dead space increases if the tube becomes detached at the machine end

A

e

60
Q

The hypertensive response to laryngoscopy can be attenuated with all of the following EXCEPT: a. Magnesium sulphate b. Labetalol c. Dopamine d. Lidocaine e. Esmolol

A

c

61
Q

A 50-year-old farmer is admitted into the ICU with a diagnosis of severe Tetanus. Severe Tetanus is characterized by: a. Autonomic dysfunction b. Tinnitus c. Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy d. Hyporeflexia e. Hypothermia

A

a

62
Q

The following are complications of massive blood transfusion EXCEPT: a. Hypothermia b. Coagulopathy c. Hyperkalaemia d. Hypercalcaemia e. Deep venous thrombosis

A

e

63
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the reversal of residual non-depolarising muscle blockade? a. sustained head lift of >2 seconds is a reliable clinical test b. it can be achieved using neostigmine 0.25mg and atropine 0.1mg c. it can be achieved using neostigmine 2.5mg and atropine 1.2mg d. sustained hand grip of >2 seconds is a reliable clinical test e. sugammadex can be used to reverse vecuronium

A

c

64
Q

A difference between epidural and spinal anaesthesia is: a. The duration of block is shorter with an epidural anaesthesia b. Hypobaric bupivacaine is the preferred local anaesthetic for spinal anaesthesia c. Hypotension occurs more slowly with spinal anaesthesia d. The onset of block is faster with spinal anaesthesia e. A smaller volume of local anaesthesia is required for epidural anaesthesia

A

d

65
Q

Following induction and tracheal intubation, the Capnography tracing shows an uprising slope. The most likely explanation is: a. Exhaustion of soda lime b. Endobronchial intubation c. Return of neuromuscular function d. Bronchospasm e. Low fresh gas intubation

A

d

66
Q

Which statement regarding airway devices is correct? a. The correct size of the tracheal tube in a child is calculated by age (yrs)/2 + 12mm b. The laryngeal mask airway protects against aspiration of stomach contents c. The nasopharyngeal airway can stimulate a gag reflex in the semi-conscious patient d. The bite-block of the oro-pharyngeal airway prevents compression of the lumen e. The correct size of an oro-pharyngeal airway should extend from the angle of the mouth to the mastoid process

A

c

67
Q

During surgery, a patient loses half of the blood volume. Significant blood loss is determined by: a. Tachycardia, hypertension, capillary refill = 2 secs b. Bradycardia, hypotension, polyuria c. Bradycardia, oliguria, capillary refill >5 secs d. Tachycardia, hypotension, capillary refill > 5 secs e. Tachycardia, hypertension, oliguria

A

d

68
Q

Which statement regarding intra-operative blood pressure monitoring is INCORRECT: a. The systolic pressure is the point where Korotkoff sounds are loudest b. The bladder cuff should be fully deflated between readings c. If the cuff is too large for the arm, the pressure reading will tend to read low d. The slower the deflation, the more accurate the reading e. The bladder cuff should be at least 20% > circumference of the arm

A

a

69
Q

Which of the following investigations DOES NOT assess complications due to hypertension or diabetes? a. Coagulation screen b. Electrocardiogram c. Electrolytes, urea and creatinine d. Echocardiography e. Chest X-ray

A

a